Domain 3 Exam.
A minimum of 70% is required to pass.
#1. David is preparing the server room for the new branch office. He wants to know what locking mechanism should be used for the primary and secondary server room entry doors?
〇:Primary entry doors should have controlled access via swipe card or cryptographic locks. Secondary doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.
Data centers, server rooms, and wiring closets should be located in the core areas of the facility, near wiring distribution centers. Strict access control mechanisms and procedures should be implemented for these areas. Access control mechanisms can lock smart card readers, biometric readers, or a combination of these. These restricted areas should have only one access door, but fire code requirements typically dictate that there must be at least two doors in most data centers and server rooms. Only one door should be used for daily entry and exit and the other door should be used only in case of an emergency, i.e., if a fire breaks out in a data center or server room, the door should be locked. This second door should not be an access door, meaning people should not be able to come through this door. It should be locked, but should have a panic bar that will release the lock if it is used as an exit, pushed from the inside.
×:The primary and secondary entry doors must have control access via swipe cards or cryptographic locks.
This is incorrect because even two entry doors should not be allowed to pass through with the identification, authentication, and authorization process. There should only be one entry point into the server room. No other door should provide an entry point, but can be used for an emergency exit. Therefore, secondary doors should be protected from the inside to prevent intrusion.
×:The primary entry door should have controlled access via a guard. Two doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.
The main entry door to the server room is incorrect as it requires an identification, authentication, and authorization process to be performed. Swipe cards and cryptographic locks perform these functions. Server rooms should ideally not be directly accessible from public areas such as stairways, hallways, loading docks, elevators, and restrooms. This helps prevent foot traffic from casual passersby. Those who are by the door to the area to be secured should have a legitimate reason for being there, as opposed to those on the way to the meeting room, for example.
×:The main entry door must have controlled access via swipe card or crypto lock. Two doors must have security guards.
Two doors should not have security guards, because it is wrong. The door should be protected from the inside simply so it cannot be used as an entry. Two-door must function as an emergency exit.
#2. Which of the following is the appropriate method of creating a digital signature?
〇:The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.
A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of digitally signing means encrypting the hash value of the message with his/her private key. The sender would encrypt that hash value using her private key. When the recipient receives the message, she performs a hash function on the message and generates the hash value herself. She then decrypts the hash value (digital signature) sent with the sender’s public key. The receiver compares the two values and, if they are the same, can verify that the message was not altered during transmission.
×:The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.
The sender is wrong because if the message encrypts the digest with his/her public key, the recipient cannot decrypt it. The recipient needs access to the sender’s private key, which must not occur. The private key must always be kept secret.
×:The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.
The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.
×:The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.
The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.
#3. I saw a news report about encryption technology being deciphered by the development of quantum computers. What do you call the phenomenon of existing encryption being deciphered as the computational power of computers improves?
Compromise is when what used to be secure encryption becomes insecure due to the evolution of computers. Cryptography is based on the sharing of a single answer, a key, among those communicating. The key is generated by computer calculations, and a third party must solve a difficult problem that would take several years to derive. However, as the computational power of computers has evolved, it is now possible to solve difficult problems that could not be solved before. In this case, encryption is meaningless. This is the compromise caused by evolution. Therefore, the correct answer is “Compromise.
#4. Which of the following physical environment designs combines sociology to reduce crime rates and fear of crime?
〇:Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED)
Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED) is a method by which crime can be reduced through proper design of the physical environment. It provides guidance on appropriate facility construction and environmental elements and crime prevention. It is used to guide the physical environment to behavioral effects that reduce crime.
×:Multi-layered defense model
The multi-layered defense model is incorrect because it is a hierarchical architecture of physical, logical, and administrative security controls. The concept is that if one layer fails, the asset is protected by other layers. Layers should be moved from the perimeter toward the asset and implemented.
×:Hiding by Ambiguity
Concealment by ambiguity is a technique of concealment secured by concealment of information and is incorrect. Basically, it is better not to consider something to be a true secret if it is logically reachable, even if it is not public.
×:Access Control
Access control is incorrect because it is guidance by the placement of doors, fences, lighting, and landscaping as people enter. It is an abstract concept and would not fit into a concrete definition that combines sociology.
#5. Which of the following events occurs in a PKI environment?
〇:CA signs certificates.
A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.
×:RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.
Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.
×:RA signs certificates.
The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.
×:The user signs the certificate.
Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.
#6. Which of the following is NOT a role of the memory manager?
〇:Run an algorithm that identifies unused committed memory and informs the operating system that memory is available.
This answer describes the function of the garbage collector, not the memory manager. The garbage collector is a countermeasure against memory leaks. It is software that runs an algorithm to identify unused committed memory and tells the operating system to mark that memory as “available. Different types of garbage collectors work with different operating systems, programming languages, and algorithms.
In some cases, a four-choice question can be answered without knowing the exact answer; since there is only one correct answer in a four-choice question, the answers can be grouped together to reduce it to “since they are saying the same thing, it is not right that only one of them is correct, therefore they are both wrong.
There are two answers to the effect of controlling the process to handle memory appropriately, but if the memory manager does not have that functionality, both would be correct, and therefore can be eliminated from the choices in the first place.
×:If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, use complex controls to guarantee integrity and confidentiality.
If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, the memory manager uses complex controls to ensure integrity and confidentiality. This is important to protect memory and the data in it, since two or more processes can share access to the same segment with potentially different access rights. The memory manager also allows many users with different levels of access rights to interact with the same application running on a single memory segment.
×:Restrict processes to interact only with the memory segments allocated to them.
The memory manager is responsible for limiting the interaction of processes to only those memory segments allocated to them. This responsibility falls under the protection category and helps prevent processes from accessing segments to which they are not allowed. Another protection responsibility of the memory manager is to provide access control to memory segments.
×:Swap contents from RAM to hard drive as needed.
This is incorrect because swapping contents from RAM to hard drive as needed is the role of memory managers in the relocation category. When RAM and secondary storage are combined, they become virtual memory. The system uses the hard drive space to extend the RAM memory space. Another relocation responsibility is to provide pointers for applications when instructions and memory segments are moved to another location in main memory.
#7. Frank is responsible for the security of the company’s online applications, web server, and web-based activities. Web applications have the ability to be dynamically “locked” so that multiple users cannot simultaneously edit web pages or overwrite each other’s work. The audit revealed that even with this software locking capability properly configured, multiple users can modify the same web page at the same time. Which of the following best describes this situation?
〇:TOC/TOU
Certain attacks can take advantage of the way a system processes requests and performs tasks. A TOC/TOU attack handles a series of steps that the system uses to complete a task. This type of attack takes advantage of the reliance on the timing of events occurring in a multitasking operating system; TOC/TOU is a software vulnerability that allows the use of condition checking (i.e., credential verification) and the results from that condition checking function. In the scenario in this question, the fact that the web application is likely correctly configured indicates that the programming code of this application has this type of vulnerability embedded in the code itself.
×:Buffer overflow
When too much data is accepted as input to a particular process, a buffer overflow occurs. This is incorrect because it does not match the event in the problem statement. A buffer is an allocated segment of memory. A buffer can overflow arbitrarily with too much data, but to be used by an attacker, the code inserted into the buffer must be of a specific length and require a command to be executed by the attacker. These types of attacks are usually exceptional in that the fault is segmented, or sensitive data is provided to the attacker.
×:Blind SQL Injection
Blind SQL injection attacks are wrong because they are a type of SQL injection attack that sends true or false questions to the database. In a basic SQL injection, the attacker sends specific instructions in SQL format to query the associated database. In a blind SQL attack, the attacker is limited to sending a series of true-false questions to the database in order to analyze the database responses and gather sensitive information.
×:Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is incorrect because it is an attack type that attempts to trick the victim into loading a web page containing malicious requests or operations. The attack operation is performed within the context of the victim’s access rights. The request inherits the victim’s identity and performs undesirable functions for the victim. In this type of attack, the attacker can cause the victim’s system to perform unintended actions such as changing account information, retrieving account data, or logging out. This type of attack could be related to the scenario described in this question, but focuses on how the user can bypass the locking mechanism built into the web application. The logic in the programming code is incorrectly developed and the locking function is bypassed because a rigorous series of checks and usage sequences are not performed correctly.
#8. Lacy’s manager assigned her to research intrusion detection systems for the new dispatching center. Lacey identifies the top five products and compares their ratings. Which of the following is the most used evaluation criteria framework today for this purpose?
〇:Common Criteria
Common Criteria was created in the early 1990s as a way to combine the strengths of both the Trustworthy Computer Systems Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) and eliminate their weaknesses. Common Criteria is more flexible than TCSEC and easier than ITSEC. Common Criteria is recognized worldwide and assists consumers by reducing the complexity of assessments and eliminating the need to understand the definitions and meanings of different assessments in different assessment schemes. This also helps manufacturers because they can now build a specific set of requirements when they want to market their products internationally, rather than having to meet several different evaluation criteria under different rules and requirements.
×:ITSEC
This is incorrect because it is not the most widely used information technology security evaluation standard. ITSEC was the first attempt to establish a single standard for evaluating the security attributes of computer systems and products in many European countries. In addition, ITSEC separates functionality and assurance in its evaluations, giving each a separate rating. It was developed to provide greater flexibility than TCSEC and addresses integrity, availability, and confidentiality in networked systems. The goal of ITSEC was to become the global standard for product evaluation, but it failed to achieve that goal and was replaced by Common Criteria.
×:Red Book
Wrong, as it is a U.S. government publication that addresses the topic of security evaluation of networks and network components. Formally titled Trusted Network Interpretation, it provides a framework for protecting different types of networks. Subjects accessing objects on the network must be controlled, monitored, and audited.
×:Orange Book
Incorrect as this is a U.S. Government publication that addresses government and military requirements and expectations for operating systems. The Orange Book is used to evaluate whether a product is suitable for the security characteristics and specific applications or functions required by the vendor. The Orange Book is used to review the functionality, effectiveness, and assurance of the product under evaluation, using classes designed to address typical patterns of security requirements. It provides a broad framework for building and evaluating trusted systems, with an emphasis on controlling which users have access to the system. We call it the Orange Book, but another name for it is Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC).
#9. TLS is a protocol used to protect transactions that occur over an untrusted network. Which of the following is an appropriate description of what takes place during the setup process of a TLS connection?
〇:The client generates a session key and encrypts it with a public key.
Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses public key cryptography to provide data encryption, server authentication, message integrity, and optionally client authentication. When a client accesses a cryptographically protected page, the web server initiates TLS and begins the process of securing subsequent communications. The server performs a three-handshake to establish a secure session. After that, client authentication with a digital certificate, as the case may be, comes in. The client then generates a session key, encrypts it with the server’s public key, and shares it. This session key is used as the symmetric key for encrypting the data to be transmitted thereafter. Thus, the correct answer is: “The client generates a session key and encrypts it with the public key.” will be
×:The server generates the session key and encrypts it with the public key.
The server does not encrypt with the public key.
×:The server generates a session key and encrypts it with the private key.
Even if encryption is performed from the server side, it can be decrypted with the public key, so it is not structurally possible.
×:The client generates a session key and encrypts it with its private key.
The client side does not have the private key.
#10. Which of the following is the most difficult to discover keys among known-plaintext attacks, selective-plaintext attacks, and adaptive-selective-plaintext attacks?
〇:Known Plaintext Attacks
A known-plaintext attack is a situation in which a decryptor can obtain plaintext indiscriminately. A ciphertext-alone attack is a situation where a decryptor can acquire ciphertext indiscriminately. A known-plaintext attack acquires the plaintext but does not know what ciphertext it is paired with, meaning that decryption is attempted with only two random ciphertexts. In this situation, it is difficult to decrypt. Therefore, the correct answer is “known-plaintext attack.
×:Selective Plaintext Attack
A choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose the plaintext to acquire and obtain the ciphertext.
×:Adaptive Choice Plaintext Attack
An adaptive choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose which plaintext to acquire and acquire the ciphertext, and can repeat the acquisition again after seeing the result.
×:None of the above
It is rare for the answer to be “none of the above” when the choice is “most of the above.
#11. Insider trading can occur through the unintentional transmission of information. Which of the following access control models is most appropriate to prepare for such an eventuality?
〇:Brewer-Nash Model
The Chinese Wall Model is a security model that focuses on the flow of information within an organization, such as insider trading. Insider trading occurs when inside information leaks to the outside world. In reality, information can spread to unexpected places as it is passed on orally to unrelated parties. In order to take such information flow into account, access privileges are determined in a simulation-like manner. Therefore, the correct answer is the “Chinese Wall Model (Brewer-Nash Model).
×:Lattice-based Access Control
Lattice-based access control is to assume that a single entity can have multiple access rights and to consider access control as all possible relationships under a certain condition.
×:Biba Model
The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.
×:Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman Model
The Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman model is a model that aggregates the eight rules of the Graham-Denning model into six rules using an access control matrix.
#12. Which of the following comes closest to defining a virtual machine?
#13. We are looking to move to a cloud-based solution to eliminate the increasing cost of maintaining our own server network environment. Which of the following is the correct definition and mapping of a typical cloud-based solution to choose?
〇:The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.
Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.
There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer
×:The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.
IaaS Description.
×:The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.
This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.
×:The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.
SaaS Description.
#14. Which microprocessor technology has also been linked to facilitating certain attacks?
〇:Increased Processing Power
The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.
×:Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming
This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.
×:Dual-mode computation
The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.
×:Direct Memory Access I/O
Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.
#15. Which of the following is a drawback of the symmetric key system?
〇:Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.
For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.
×:Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.
That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.
×:Much faster operation than asymmetric systems
Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.
×:Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed
Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.
#16. Jeff would like to incorporate encryption technology into the new product. He is considering encryption methods available on the Internet. What advice should we give him?
Cryptographic algorithms refer to the calculations to be encrypted, and even if the cryptographic algorithms were publicly available, it would take an enormous amount of effort to decipher them. cryptographic algorithms that provide modern cryptography, such as AES, are publicly available. On the other hand, in-house development is not recommended because, although it has the security of concealment, it requires a great deal of resources to be allocated.
#17. You have been instructed to report to the Board of Directors with a vendor-neutral enterprise architecture framework that will help reduce fragmentation due to inconsistencies between IT and business processes. Which of the following frameworks should you propose?
〇:TOGAF
The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) is a vendor-independent platform for the development and implementation of enterprise architecture. It focuses on the effective management of enterprise data using metamodels and service-oriented architectures (SOA). Proficient implementations of TOGAF aim to reduce fragmentation caused by inconsistencies between traditional IT systems and actual business processes. It also coordinates new changes and functionality so that new changes can be easily integrated into the enterprise platform.
×:Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DoDAF)
In accordance with the guidelines for the organization of the enterprise architecture of the U.S. Department of Defense systems, this is incorrect. It is also suitable for large, complex integrated systems in the military, civilian, and public sectors.
×:Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) during software development.
It is inappropriate because it is a framework for the purpose of designing and further improving software. CMMI provides a standard for software development processes that can measure the maturity of the development process.
×:ISO/IEC 42010
Incorrect because it consists of recommended practices to simplify the design and conception of software-intensive system architectures. This standard provides a kind of language (terminology) to describe the different components of software architecture and how to integrate it into the development life cycle.
#18. Which of the following is true about the key derivation function (KDF)?
〇:Keys are generated from a master key.
To generate a composite key, a master key is created and a symmetric key (subkey) is generated. The key derivation function generates the encryption key from the secret value. The secret value can be a master key, passphrase, or password. The key derivation function (KDF) generates a key for symmetric key ciphers from a given password.
×:Session keys are generated from each other.
Session keys are generated from each other, not from the master key, which is incorrect.
×:Asymmetric ciphers are used to encrypt symmetric keys.
It is incorrect because key encryption is not even related to the key derivation function (KDF).
×:The master key is generated from the session key.
Reverse, incorrect. Session keys are generally generated from master keys.
#19. Which security architecture model defines how to securely develop access rights between subjects and objects?
〇:Graham-Denning Model
The Graham-Denning model addresses how access rights between subjects and objects are defined, developed, and integrated. It defines a basic set of rights in terms of the commands that a particular subject can execute on an object. The model has eight basic protective rights or rules on how to safely perform these types of functions
×:Brewer-Nash Model
It is incorrect because its purpose is to provide access control that can be changed dynamically according to the user’s previous actions. The main purpose is to protect against conflicts of interest due to user access attempts. For example, if a large marketing firm provides marketing promotions and materials for two banks, the employee responsible for the Bank A project should not be able to see information about Bank B, the marketing firm’s other bank customer. A conflict of interest could arise because the banks are competitors. If the project manager of the marketing firm’s Project A can see information about Bank B’s new marketing campaign, he may attempt to execute it rather than promote it to please more direct customers. Marketing firms have a bad reputation when internal employees can act irresponsibly.
×:Clark-Wilson Model
The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it is implemented to protect data integrity and ensure that transactions are properly formatted within the application. Subjects can only access objects through authorized programs. Segregation of duties is enforced. Auditing is required. The Clark-Wilson model addresses three integrity goals: preventing changes by unauthorized users, preventing inappropriate changes by unauthorized users, and maintaining internal and external consistency.
×:Bell-LaPadula Model
This model was developed to address concerns about the security of U.S. military systems and the leakage of classified information, and is incorrect. The primary goal of the model is to prevent unauthorized access to classified information. It is a state machine model that enforces the confidentiality aspect of access control. Matrices and security levels are used to determine if a subject has access to different objects. Specific rules are applied to control how objects interact with each other compared to the subject’s object classification.
#20. Marge uses her private key to create a digital signature for messages sent to George, but she does not show or share her private key with George. Which of the following illustrates this situation?
〇:Zero Knowledge Proof
Zero Knowledge Proof means that someone can tell you something without telling you more information than you need to know. In cryptography, it means proving that you have a certain key without sharing that key or showing it to anyone. Zero knowledge proof (usually mathematical) is an interactive way for one party to prove to another that something is true without revealing anything sensitive.
×:Key Clustering
Key clustering is the phenomenon of encrypting the same plaintext with different keys, but with the same ciphertext.
×:Avoiding Birthday Attacks
An attacker can attempt to force a collision, called a birthday attack. This attack is based on the mathematical birthday paradox present in standard statistics. This is a cryptographic attack that uses probability theory to exploit the mathematics behind the birthday problem.
×:Provides data confidentiality
Provided via encryption when data is encrypted with a key, which is incorrect.




