〇：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activity taking place within the host system.

Virtual firewalls can be bridge-mode products that monitor individual communication links between virtual machines. They can also be integrated within a hypervisor in a virtual environment. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of guest system software. When a firewall is embedded within the hypervisor, it can monitor all activities that occur within the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual network links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is incorrect because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links between hosts and not network links. Hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activities taking place within the guest system rather than the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is wrong because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links, and the hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, but not the guest system. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of the guest system software. A firewall, when embedded within the hypervisor, can monitor all activities taking place within the system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual guest systems, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the network system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic between guest systems, and a hypervisor integrated allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, not the network system, so Wrong.

〇：Keys are generated from a master key.

To generate a composite key, a master key is created and a symmetric key (subkey) is generated. The key derivation function generates the encryption key from the secret value. The secret value can be a master key, passphrase, or password. The key derivation function (KDF) generates a key for symmetric key ciphers from a given password.

×：Session keys are generated from each other.

Session keys are generated from each other, not from the master key, which is incorrect.

×：Asymmetric ciphers are used to encrypt symmetric keys.

It is incorrect because key encryption is not even related to the key derivation function (KDF).

×：The master key is generated from the session key.

Reverse, incorrect. Session keys are generally generated from master keys.

〇：Data Encryption

The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a data encryption standard developed to improve upon the previous de facto standard, Data Encryption Standard (DES). As a symmetric algorithm, AES is used to encrypt data. Therefore, the correct answer is “data encryption.

There are other situations where AES is used in the other choices, but encrypting data is the most focused or better answer. Thus, there are cases where all of the choices are correct.

×：Data integrity

This is a characteristic of digital signatures.

×：Key recovery

It is a property of decryption and key escrow.

×：Symmetric key distribution

Using symmetric keys for AES distribution lowers the key delivery problem.

〇：Execution Domain Switching

Execution domain switching occurs when the CPU needs to move between executing instructions for a more trusted process versus a less trusted process. Trusted Computing Base (TCB) allows processes to switch domains in a secure manner to access different levels of information based on sensitivity. Execution domain switching occurs when a process needs to invoke a process in a higher protection ring. The CPU executes the user-mode instruction back into privileged mode.

At first glance, this is a geeky problem that does not make sense. But don’t give up. Since there is no such thing as skipping, you can only get a right or wrong answer when the question is posed, so it is preferable to answer the question with some degree of prediction.

From this point on, let’s consider how to answer the questions. If you look at the question text and read it to the point where it reads, “You moved from one area to the other, and that was a security breach?” If you can read to that point, then you have two choices: deny or “stop the process,” or change or “switch the domain of execution. Next, the question text reads “if you need to access it,” which is asking how to accomplish this objective, not whether or not you should.

×：Execution of I/O operations

This is incorrect because input/output (I/O) operations are not initiated to ensure security when a process in one domain needs to access another domain in order to retrieve sensitive information. I/O operations are performed when input devices (such as a mouse or keyboard) and output devices (such as a monitor or printer, etc.) interact with an application or applications.

×：Stopping a Process

A process deactivation is one that occurs when a process instruction is fully executed by the CPU or when another process with a higher priority calls the CPU, which is incorrect. When a process is deactivated, new information about the new requesting process must be written to a register in the CPU. The TCB component must ensure that this is done, since the data replaced in the registers may be confidential.

×：Mapping from virtual memory to real memory

Incorrect because memory mapping occurs when a process needs its instructions and data processed by the CPU. The memory manager maps logical addresses to physical addresses so that the CPU knows where to place the data. This is the responsibility of the operating system’s memory manager.

〇：Increased Processing Power

The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.

×：Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming

This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.

×：Dual-mode computation

The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.

×：Direct Memory Access I/O

Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.

〇：TOC/TOU

Certain attacks can take advantage of the way a system processes requests and performs tasks. A TOC/TOU attack handles a series of steps that the system uses to complete a task. This type of attack takes advantage of the reliance on the timing of events occurring in a multitasking operating system; TOC/TOU is a software vulnerability that allows the use of condition checking (i.e., credential verification) and the results from that condition checking function. In the scenario in this question, the fact that the web application is likely correctly configured indicates that the programming code of this application has this type of vulnerability embedded in the code itself.

×：Buffer overflow

When too much data is accepted as input to a particular process, a buffer overflow occurs. This is incorrect because it does not match the event in the problem statement. A buffer is an allocated segment of memory. A buffer can overflow arbitrarily with too much data, but to be used by an attacker, the code inserted into the buffer must be of a specific length and require a command to be executed by the attacker. These types of attacks are usually exceptional in that the fault is segmented, or sensitive data is provided to the attacker.

×：Blind SQL Injection

Blind SQL injection attacks are wrong because they are a type of SQL injection attack that sends true or false questions to the database. In a basic SQL injection, the attacker sends specific instructions in SQL format to query the associated database. In a blind SQL attack, the attacker is limited to sending a series of true-false questions to the database in order to analyze the database responses and gather sensitive information.

×：Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is incorrect because it is an attack type that attempts to trick the victim into loading a web page containing malicious requests or operations. The attack operation is performed within the context of the victim’s access rights. The request inherits the victim’s identity and performs undesirable functions for the victim. In this type of attack, the attacker can cause the victim’s system to perform unintended actions such as changing account information, retrieving account data, or logging out. This type of attack could be related to the scenario described in this question, but focuses on how the user can bypass the locking mechanism built into the web application. The logic in the programming code is incorrectly developed and the locking function is bypassed because a rigorous series of checks and usage sequences are not performed correctly.

〇：CA signs certificates.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.

×：RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.

Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.

×：RA signs certificates.

The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.

×：The user signs the certificate.

Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.

〇：One-time pad

Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.

×：AES

AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.

×：Block ciphers

Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.

×：RSA

RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.

〇：The expiration date should be set short.

Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.

×：Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.

This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.

×：Keys must not be made public.

Of course. It is a key.

×：Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.

Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.

〇：Well-Formed Transaction

In the Clark-Wilson model, subjects cannot access objects without going through some type of application or program that controls how this access is done. The subject (usually the user) can access the required object based on access rules within the application software, defined as “Well-Formed Transaction,” in conjunction with the application.

×：Childwall model

This is incorrect because it is another name for the Brewer Nash model created to provide access control that can be dynamically modified according to the user’s previous behavior. It is shaped by access attempts and conflicts of interest and does not allow information to flow between subjects and objects. In this model, a subject can only write to an object if the subject cannot read another object in a different data set.

×：Access tuples

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it uses access triples instead of access tuples. The access triple is the subject program object. This ensures that the subject can only access the object through the authorized program.

×：Write Up and Write Down

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because there is no Write Up and Write Down. These rules relate to the Bell-LaPadula and Biba models. The Bell-LaPadula model contains a simple security rule that has not been read and a star property rule that has not been written down. The Biba model contains an unread simple completeness axiom and an unwritten star completeness axiom.

〇：Primary entry doors should have controlled access via swipe card or cryptographic locks. Secondary doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry. 

Data centers, server rooms, and wiring closets should be located in the core areas of the facility, near wiring distribution centers. Strict access control mechanisms and procedures should be implemented for these areas. Access control mechanisms can lock smart card readers, biometric readers, or a combination of these. These restricted areas should have only one access door, but fire code requirements typically dictate that there must be at least two doors in most data centers and server rooms. Only one door should be used for daily entry and exit and the other door should be used only in case of an emergency, i.e., if a fire breaks out in a data center or server room, the door should be locked. This second door should not be an access door, meaning people should not be able to come through this door. It should be locked, but should have a panic bar that will release the lock if it is used as an exit, pushed from the inside.

×：The primary and secondary entry doors must have control access via swipe cards or cryptographic locks.  

This is incorrect because even two entry doors should not be allowed to pass through with the identification, authentication, and authorization process. There should only be one entry point into the server room. No other door should provide an entry point, but can be used for an emergency exit. Therefore, secondary doors should be protected from the inside to prevent intrusion.

×：The primary entry door should have controlled access via a guard. Two doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.

The main entry door to the server room is incorrect as it requires an identification, authentication, and authorization process to be performed. Swipe cards and cryptographic locks perform these functions. Server rooms should ideally not be directly accessible from public areas such as stairways, hallways, loading docks, elevators, and restrooms. This helps prevent foot traffic from casual passersby. Those who are by the door to the area to be secured should have a legitimate reason for being there, as opposed to those on the way to the meeting room, for example.

×：The main entry door must have controlled access via swipe card or crypto lock. Two doors must have security guards.  

Two doors should not have security guards, because it is wrong. The door should be protected from the inside simply so it cannot be used as an entry. Two-door must function as an emergency exit.

〇：Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED)

Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED) is a method by which crime can be reduced through proper design of the physical environment. It provides guidance on appropriate facility construction and environmental elements and crime prevention. It is used to guide the physical environment to behavioral effects that reduce crime.

×：Multi-layered defense model  

The multi-layered defense model is incorrect because it is a hierarchical architecture of physical, logical, and administrative security controls. The concept is that if one layer fails, the asset is protected by other layers. Layers should be moved from the perimeter toward the asset and implemented.

×：Hiding by Ambiguity

Concealment by ambiguity is a technique of concealment secured by concealment of information and is incorrect. Basically, it is better not to consider something to be a true secret if it is logically reachable, even if it is not public.

×：Access Control

Access control is incorrect because it is guidance by the placement of doors, fences, lighting, and landscaping as people enter. It is an abstract concept and would not fit into a concrete definition that combines sociology.

〇：Run an algorithm that identifies unused committed memory and informs the operating system that memory is available.

This answer describes the function of the garbage collector, not the memory manager. The garbage collector is a countermeasure against memory leaks. It is software that runs an algorithm to identify unused committed memory and tells the operating system to mark that memory as “available. Different types of garbage collectors work with different operating systems, programming languages, and algorithms.

In some cases, a four-choice question can be answered without knowing the exact answer; since there is only one correct answer in a four-choice question, the answers can be grouped together to reduce it to “since they are saying the same thing, it is not right that only one of them is correct, therefore they are both wrong.

There are two answers to the effect of controlling the process to handle memory appropriately, but if the memory manager does not have that functionality, both would be correct, and therefore can be eliminated from the choices in the first place.

×：If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, use complex controls to guarantee integrity and confidentiality.

If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, the memory manager uses complex controls to ensure integrity and confidentiality. This is important to protect memory and the data in it, since two or more processes can share access to the same segment with potentially different access rights. The memory manager also allows many users with different levels of access rights to interact with the same application running on a single memory segment.

×：Restrict processes to interact only with the memory segments allocated to them.

The memory manager is responsible for limiting the interaction of processes to only those memory segments allocated to them. This responsibility falls under the protection category and helps prevent processes from accessing segments to which they are not allowed. Another protection responsibility of the memory manager is to provide access control to memory segments.

×：Swap contents from RAM to hard drive as needed.

This is incorrect because swapping contents from RAM to hard drive as needed is the role of memory managers in the relocation category. When RAM and secondary storage are combined, they become virtual memory. The system uses the hard drive space to extend the RAM memory space. Another relocation responsibility is to provide pointers for applications when instructions and memory segments are moved to another location in main memory.

In an asymmetric algorithm, every user must have at least one key pair (private and public key). In a public key system, each entity has a separate key. The formula for determining the number of keys needed in this environment is by the number N × 2, where N is the number of people to distribute. In other words, 260 x 2 = 520. Therefore, the correct answer is 520.

〇：The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.

Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.

There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer

×：The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.

IaaS Description.

×：The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.

This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.

×：The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.

SaaS Description.

〇：All failed access attempts should be logged and reviewed.

The physical access control system may use software and auditing capabilities to generate an audit trail or access log associated with access attempts. The date and time of the entry point when access was attempted, the user ID used when access was attempted, and any failed access attempts, among others, should be recorded.

×：Failed access attempts are recorded and only security personnel are entitled to review them.

Unless someone actually reviews them, the access logs are as useless as the audit logs generated by the computer. Security guards should review these logs, but security professionals and facility managers should review these logs on a regular basis. The administrator must know the existence and location of entry points into the facility.

×：Only successful access attempts should be logged and reviewed.

Wrong, as unsuccessful access attempts should be logged and reviewed. Audit should be able to alert you to suspicious activity even though you are denying an entity access to a network, computer, or location.

×：Failed access attempts outside of business hours should be logged and reviewed.

Incorrect, as all unauthorized access attempts should be logged and reviewed regardless. Unauthorized access can occur at any time.

〇：OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.

×：CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.

CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.

×：OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.

OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.

×：CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.

Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.

〇：Common Criteria

Common Criteria was created in the early 1990s as a way to combine the strengths of both the Trustworthy Computer Systems Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) and eliminate their weaknesses. Common Criteria is more flexible than TCSEC and easier than ITSEC. Common Criteria is recognized worldwide and assists consumers by reducing the complexity of assessments and eliminating the need to understand the definitions and meanings of different assessments in different assessment schemes. This also helps manufacturers because they can now build a specific set of requirements when they want to market their products internationally, rather than having to meet several different evaluation criteria under different rules and requirements.

×：ITSEC

This is incorrect because it is not the most widely used information technology security evaluation standard. ITSEC was the first attempt to establish a single standard for evaluating the security attributes of computer systems and products in many European countries. In addition, ITSEC separates functionality and assurance in its evaluations, giving each a separate rating. It was developed to provide greater flexibility than TCSEC and addresses integrity, availability, and confidentiality in networked systems. The goal of ITSEC was to become the global standard for product evaluation, but it failed to achieve that goal and was replaced by Common Criteria.

×：Red Book

Wrong, as it is a U.S. government publication that addresses the topic of security evaluation of networks and network components. Formally titled Trusted Network Interpretation, it provides a framework for protecting different types of networks. Subjects accessing objects on the network must be controlled, monitored, and audited.

×：Orange Book

Incorrect as this is a U.S. Government publication that addresses government and military requirements and expectations for operating systems. The Orange Book is used to evaluate whether a product is suitable for the security characteristics and specific applications or functions required by the vendor. The Orange Book is used to review the functionality, effectiveness, and assurance of the product under evaluation, using classes designed to address typical patterns of security requirements. It provides a broad framework for building and evaluating trusted systems, with an emphasis on controlling which users have access to the system. We call it the Orange Book, but another name for it is Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC).

〇：TOGAF

The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) is a vendor-independent platform for the development and implementation of enterprise architecture. It focuses on the effective management of enterprise data using metamodels and service-oriented architectures (SOA). Proficient implementations of TOGAF aim to reduce fragmentation caused by inconsistencies between traditional IT systems and actual business processes. It also coordinates new changes and functionality so that new changes can be easily integrated into the enterprise platform.

×：Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DoDAF)

In accordance with the guidelines for the organization of the enterprise architecture of the U.S. Department of Defense systems, this is incorrect. It is also suitable for large, complex integrated systems in the military, civilian, and public sectors.

×：Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) during software development.

It is inappropriate because it is a framework for the purpose of designing and further improving software. CMMI provides a standard for software development processes that can measure the maturity of the development process.

×：ISO/IEC 42010

Incorrect because it consists of recommended practices to simplify the design and conception of software-intensive system architectures. This standard provides a kind of language (terminology) to describe the different components of software architecture and how to integrate it into the development life cycle.

〇：Statistically predictable

The two main types of symmetric algorithms are block ciphers and stream ciphers. Block ciphers perform a mathematical function on a block of bits at a time. Stream ciphers do not divide the message into blocks. Instead, a stream cipher treats the message as a stream of bits and performs the mathematical function on each bit individually. If it were statistically predictable, it would not be a practical encryption technique in the first place.

×：Statistically Fair Keystreams

Statistically fair keystreams are an element of good stream ciphers. Therefore, it is incorrect. Another way to say a statistically unbiased keystream is that it is a highly random keystream that is difficult to predict.

×：The repetitive pattern of bit strings treated in a keystream is long.

Another way to say the randomness of a keystream is that it is highly random, with long repetitions = rarely repeated = highly random.

×：The keystream is irrelevant to the key.

A keystream that is not related to a key is an element of a good stream cipher. Therefore, it is incorrect. This is important because the key provides the randomness of the encryption process.