Domain 3 Exam.
A minimum of 70% is required to pass.
#1. We are looking to move to a cloud-based solution to eliminate the increasing cost of maintaining our own server network environment. Which of the following is the correct definition and mapping of a typical cloud-based solution to choose?
〇:The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.
Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.
There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer
×:The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.
IaaS Description.
×:The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.
This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.
×:The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.
SaaS Description.
#2. Insider trading can occur through the unintentional transmission of information. Which of the following access control models is most appropriate to prepare for such an eventuality?
〇:Brewer-Nash Model
The Chinese Wall Model is a security model that focuses on the flow of information within an organization, such as insider trading. Insider trading occurs when inside information leaks to the outside world. In reality, information can spread to unexpected places as it is passed on orally to unrelated parties. In order to take such information flow into account, access privileges are determined in a simulation-like manner. Therefore, the correct answer is the “Chinese Wall Model (Brewer-Nash Model).
×:Lattice-based Access Control
Lattice-based access control is to assume that a single entity can have multiple access rights and to consider access control as all possible relationships under a certain condition.
×:Biba Model
The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.
×:Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman Model
The Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman model is a model that aggregates the eight rules of the Graham-Denning model into six rules using an access control matrix.
#3. Which of the following is a drawback of the symmetric key system?
〇:Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.
For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.
×:Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.
That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.
×:Much faster operation than asymmetric systems
Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.
×:Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed
Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.
#4. Elliptic curve cryptography is an asymmetric algorithm. What are its advantages over other asymmetric algorithms?
〇:Encryption and decryption are more efficient.
Elliptic curves are rich mathematical structures that have shown usefulness in many different types of applications. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) differs from other asymmetric algorithms because of its efficiency; ECC is efficient because it is computationally less expensive than other asymmetric algorithms. In most cases, the longer the key, the more bloated the computation to secure it, but ECC can provide the same level of protection with a shorter key size than RSA requires.
×:Provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption.
ECC is wrong because it is not the only asymmetric algorithm that provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption provided by other asymmetric algorithms such as RSA.
×:Calculated in finite discrete logarithms.
Wrong because Diffie-Hellman and El-Gamal compute with finite discrete logarithms.
×:Uses a large percentage of resources to perform the encryption.
Incorrect because ECC when compared to other asymmetric algorithms uses much less resources. Some devices, such as wireless devices and cell phones, have limited processing power, storage, power, and bandwidth. Resource utilization efficiency is very important for the encryption methods used in this type.
#5. Which of the following is a common association of the Clark-Wilson access model?
〇:Well-Formed Transaction
In the Clark-Wilson model, subjects cannot access objects without going through some type of application or program that controls how this access is done. The subject (usually the user) can access the required object based on access rules within the application software, defined as “Well-Formed Transaction,” in conjunction with the application.
×:Childwall model
This is incorrect because it is another name for the Brewer Nash model created to provide access control that can be dynamically modified according to the user’s previous behavior. It is shaped by access attempts and conflicts of interest and does not allow information to flow between subjects and objects. In this model, a subject can only write to an object if the subject cannot read another object in a different data set.
×:Access tuples
The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it uses access triples instead of access tuples. The access triple is the subject program object. This ensures that the subject can only access the object through the authorized program.
×:Write Up and Write Down
The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because there is no Write Up and Write Down. These rules relate to the Bell-LaPadula and Biba models. The Bell-LaPadula model contains a simple security rule that has not been read and a star property rule that has not been written down. The Biba model contains an unread simple completeness axiom and an unwritten star completeness axiom.
#6. Which of the following comes closest to defining a virtual machine?
#7. Which of the following is an axiom of access control to ensure that rewriting a supervisor’s document does not release incorrect information to the supervisor?
〇:* (star) Integrity Property
The Biba model defines a model with completeness as having two axioms. The * (star) Integrity Property is that the subordinate’s document is to be seen and there is no Read Down. The * (star) Integrity Property is that there is no Write Up, that is, no rewriting of the supervisor’s document. If the Simple Integrity Axiom is not followed, the subordinate’s document will be seen and may absorb unclassified and incorrect information at a lower level. If the * (star) Integrity Property is not followed, a supervisor’s document will be rewritten, which will release incorrect information to the supervisor who sees it. Therefore, both are integrity conditions.
×:Simple Integrity Property
The Simple Integrity Property is a constraint on Read Down.
×:Strong Tranquillity Axiom
The Strong Tranquillity Axiom is the constraint not to change permissions while the system is running.
×:Weak Tranquillity Axiom
Weak Tranquillity Axiom means do not change privileges until the attribute is inconsistent.
#8. Marge uses her private key to create a digital signature for messages sent to George, but she does not show or share her private key with George. Which of the following illustrates this situation?
〇:Zero Knowledge Proof
Zero Knowledge Proof means that someone can tell you something without telling you more information than you need to know. In cryptography, it means proving that you have a certain key without sharing that key or showing it to anyone. Zero knowledge proof (usually mathematical) is an interactive way for one party to prove to another that something is true without revealing anything sensitive.
×:Key Clustering
Key clustering is the phenomenon of encrypting the same plaintext with different keys, but with the same ciphertext.
×:Avoiding Birthday Attacks
An attacker can attempt to force a collision, called a birthday attack. This attack is based on the mathematical birthday paradox present in standard statistics. This is a cryptographic attack that uses probability theory to exploit the mathematics behind the birthday problem.
×:Provides data confidentiality
Provided via encryption when data is encrypted with a key, which is incorrect.
#9. Sally has performed software analysis against her company’s proprietary applications. She has found that it is possible to force an authentication step to take place before the attacker has successfully completed the authentication procedure. What could be the cause?
〇:Conflict condition
A race condition is present when a process performs a task on a shared resource and the sequence could be in the wrong order. 2 or more processes can have a race condition if they use a shared resource, like data in a variable. It is important that processes perform their functions in the correct sequence.
×:Backdoors
Backdoors are incorrect because they are “listening” services on certain ports. Backdoors are implemented by attackers to allow easy access to the system without authenticating as a normal system user.
×:Maintenance Hooks
Maintenance hooks are specific software codes that allow easy and unauthorized access to sensitive parts of a software product. Software programmers use maintenance hooks to allow them to get quick access to the code so that they can make fixes in immediate, but this is dangerous.
×:Data validation errors
Data validation errors are wrong because an attacker cannot operate on the process execution sequence.
#10. Sally is responsible for managing the keys in her organization. Which of the following is incorrect as secure key management?
〇:The expiration date should be set short.
Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.
×:Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.
This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.
×:Keys must not be made public.
Of course. It is a key.
×:Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.
Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.
#11. Which of the following events occurs in a PKI environment?
〇:CA signs certificates.
A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.
×:RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.
Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.
×:RA signs certificates.
The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.
×:The user signs the certificate.
Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.
#12. Which microprocessor technology has also been linked to facilitating certain attacks?
〇:Increased Processing Power
The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.
×:Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming
This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.
×:Dual-mode computation
The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.
×:Direct Memory Access I/O
Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.
#13. Several steps must be taken before an effective physical security program can be rolled out. Which of the following steps comes first in the process of rolling out a security program?
〇:Conduct a risk analysis.
The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.
×:Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.
The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.
×:Design program.
Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.
×:Implement countermeasures.
Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.
#14. David is preparing the server room for the new branch office. He wants to know what locking mechanism should be used for the primary and secondary server room entry doors?
〇:Primary entry doors should have controlled access via swipe card or cryptographic locks. Secondary doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.
Data centers, server rooms, and wiring closets should be located in the core areas of the facility, near wiring distribution centers. Strict access control mechanisms and procedures should be implemented for these areas. Access control mechanisms can lock smart card readers, biometric readers, or a combination of these. These restricted areas should have only one access door, but fire code requirements typically dictate that there must be at least two doors in most data centers and server rooms. Only one door should be used for daily entry and exit and the other door should be used only in case of an emergency, i.e., if a fire breaks out in a data center or server room, the door should be locked. This second door should not be an access door, meaning people should not be able to come through this door. It should be locked, but should have a panic bar that will release the lock if it is used as an exit, pushed from the inside.
×:The primary and secondary entry doors must have control access via swipe cards or cryptographic locks.
This is incorrect because even two entry doors should not be allowed to pass through with the identification, authentication, and authorization process. There should only be one entry point into the server room. No other door should provide an entry point, but can be used for an emergency exit. Therefore, secondary doors should be protected from the inside to prevent intrusion.
×:The primary entry door should have controlled access via a guard. Two doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.
The main entry door to the server room is incorrect as it requires an identification, authentication, and authorization process to be performed. Swipe cards and cryptographic locks perform these functions. Server rooms should ideally not be directly accessible from public areas such as stairways, hallways, loading docks, elevators, and restrooms. This helps prevent foot traffic from casual passersby. Those who are by the door to the area to be secured should have a legitimate reason for being there, as opposed to those on the way to the meeting room, for example.
×:The main entry door must have controlled access via swipe card or crypto lock. Two doors must have security guards.
Two doors should not have security guards, because it is wrong. The door should be protected from the inside simply so it cannot be used as an entry. Two-door must function as an emergency exit.
#15. You have been instructed to report to the Board of Directors with a vendor-neutral enterprise architecture framework that will help reduce fragmentation due to inconsistencies between IT and business processes. Which of the following frameworks should you propose?
〇:TOGAF
The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) is a vendor-independent platform for the development and implementation of enterprise architecture. It focuses on the effective management of enterprise data using metamodels and service-oriented architectures (SOA). Proficient implementations of TOGAF aim to reduce fragmentation caused by inconsistencies between traditional IT systems and actual business processes. It also coordinates new changes and functionality so that new changes can be easily integrated into the enterprise platform.
×:Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DoDAF)
In accordance with the guidelines for the organization of the enterprise architecture of the U.S. Department of Defense systems, this is incorrect. It is also suitable for large, complex integrated systems in the military, civilian, and public sectors.
×:Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) during software development.
It is inappropriate because it is a framework for the purpose of designing and further improving software. CMMI provides a standard for software development processes that can measure the maturity of the development process.
×:ISO/IEC 42010
Incorrect because it consists of recommended practices to simplify the design and conception of software-intensive system architectures. This standard provides a kind of language (terminology) to describe the different components of software architecture and how to integrate it into the development life cycle.
#16. The CA is responsible for revoking the required certificates. Which of the following adequately describes CRLs and OCSPs?
〇:OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.
A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.
×:CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.
CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.
×:OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.
OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.
×:CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.
Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.
#17. Encryption provides different security depending on the procedure and & algorithm. Which of the following provides authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity?
〇:Digital Signature
A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of signing means encrypting a hash value of a message with a private key. A message can be digitally signed, providing authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The hash function guarantees the integrity of the message, and the signature of the hash value provides authentication and non-repudiation.
×:Encryption Algorithms
Encryption algorithms are wrong because they provide confidentiality. Encryption is most commonly performed using symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity as well as confidentiality.
×:Hash Algorithms
Hash algorithms are wrong because they provide data integrity. Hash algorithms generate a message digest, which detects whether modifications have been made (also called a hash value). The sender and receiver individually generate their own digests, and the receiver compares these values. If they differ, the receiver can know the message has been modified. Hash algorithms cannot provide authentication or non-repudiation.
×:Encryption paired with digital signatures
This is incorrect because encryption and digital signatures provide confidentiality, authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. Encryption alone provides confidentiality. And digital signatures provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The question requires that it can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. It is a nasty question.
#18. Jeff would like to incorporate encryption technology into the new product. He is considering encryption methods available on the Internet. What advice should we give him?
Cryptographic algorithms refer to the calculations to be encrypted, and even if the cryptographic algorithms were publicly available, it would take an enormous amount of effort to decipher them. cryptographic algorithms that provide modern cryptography, such as AES, are publicly available. On the other hand, in-house development is not recommended because, although it has the security of concealment, it requires a great deal of resources to be allocated.
#19. What should I use for streaming ciphers?
〇:One-time pad
Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.
×:AES
AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.
×:Block ciphers
Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.
×:RSA
RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.
#20. Virtual storage combines RAM for system memory and secondary storage. Which of the following is a security concern regarding virtual storage?
〇:Multiple processes are using the same resources.
The system uses hard drive space (called swap space) that is reserved to expand RAM memory space. When the system fills up volatile memory space, data is written from memory to the hard drive. When a program requests access to this data, it is returned from the hard drive to memory in specific units called page frames. Accessing data stored on hard drive pages takes longer than accessing data stored in memory because it requires read/write access to the physical disk. A security issue with using virtual swap space is that two or more processes can use the same resources and corrupt or damage data.
×:Allowing cookies to remain persistent in memory
This is incorrect because virtual storage is not associated with cookies. Virtual storage uses hard drive space to extend RAM memory space. Cookies are small text files used primarily by web browsers. Cookies can contain credentials for web sites, site preferences, and shopping history. Cookies are also commonly used to maintain web server-based sessions.
×:Side-channel attacks are possible.
Side-channel attacks are incorrect because they are physical attacks. This type of attack gathers information about how a mechanism (e.g., smart card or encryption processor) works from abandoned radiation, time spent processing, power consumed to perform a task, etc. Using the information, reverse engineer the mechanism to reveal how it performs its security task. This is not related to virtual storage.
×:Two processes can perform a denial of service attack.
The biggest threat within a system where resources are shared between processes is that one process can adversely affect the resources of another process, since the operating system requires memory to be shared among all resources. This is especially true in the case of memory. It is possible for two processes to work together to perform a denial of service attack, but this is only one of the attacks that can be performed with or without the use of virtual storage.




