Domain 3 Exam.
A minimum of 70% is required to pass.
#1. Virtual storage combines RAM for system memory and secondary storage. Which of the following is a security concern regarding virtual storage?
〇:Multiple processes are using the same resources.
The system uses hard drive space (called swap space) that is reserved to expand RAM memory space. When the system fills up volatile memory space, data is written from memory to the hard drive. When a program requests access to this data, it is returned from the hard drive to memory in specific units called page frames. Accessing data stored on hard drive pages takes longer than accessing data stored in memory because it requires read/write access to the physical disk. A security issue with using virtual swap space is that two or more processes can use the same resources and corrupt or damage data.
×:Allowing cookies to remain persistent in memory
This is incorrect because virtual storage is not associated with cookies. Virtual storage uses hard drive space to extend RAM memory space. Cookies are small text files used primarily by web browsers. Cookies can contain credentials for web sites, site preferences, and shopping history. Cookies are also commonly used to maintain web server-based sessions.
×:Side-channel attacks are possible.
Side-channel attacks are incorrect because they are physical attacks. This type of attack gathers information about how a mechanism (e.g., smart card or encryption processor) works from abandoned radiation, time spent processing, power consumed to perform a task, etc. Using the information, reverse engineer the mechanism to reveal how it performs its security task. This is not related to virtual storage.
×:Two processes can perform a denial of service attack.
The biggest threat within a system where resources are shared between processes is that one process can adversely affect the resources of another process, since the operating system requires memory to be shared among all resources. This is especially true in the case of memory. It is possible for two processes to work together to perform a denial of service attack, but this is only one of the attacks that can be performed with or without the use of virtual storage.
#2. Which of the following is an incorrect description of steganography?
〇:The most common method used is to change the most significant bit.
Steganography is a method of hiding data in other media types. One of the most common ways to embed messages in some types of media is using the least significant bit (LSB). This is because many types of files are modified and this is where sensitive data can be made visible and hidden without modifying the file. the LSB approach has been successful in hiding information within the graphics of high-resolution or sound-heavy audio files (high bit rate).
×:Hiding by abstraction.
Steganography is incorrect because it is concealment by abstraction. Security by obscurity means that someone uses secrecy as a way to protect an asset, rather than actually using the measure to secure something.
×:Just as encryption does, steganography is not a front for the existence of the sensitive data itself.
It is true that steganography does not draw attention to itself as does encryption. In other words, it is concealment by abstraction.
×:Media files are ideal for steganographic transmissions that are large in size.
This is incorrect because it is true that larger media files are ideal for steganographic transmissions because everyone needs to privately use multiple bits to manipulate with low likelihood of noticing.
#3. TLS is a protocol used to protect transactions that occur over an untrusted network. Which of the following is an appropriate description of what takes place during the setup process of a TLS connection?
〇:The client generates a session key and encrypts it with a public key.
Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses public key cryptography to provide data encryption, server authentication, message integrity, and optionally client authentication. When a client accesses a cryptographically protected page, the web server initiates TLS and begins the process of securing subsequent communications. The server performs a three-handshake to establish a secure session. After that, client authentication with a digital certificate, as the case may be, comes in. The client then generates a session key, encrypts it with the server’s public key, and shares it. This session key is used as the symmetric key for encrypting the data to be transmitted thereafter. Thus, the correct answer is: “The client generates a session key and encrypts it with the public key.” will be
×:The server generates the session key and encrypts it with the public key.
The server does not encrypt with the public key.
×:The server generates a session key and encrypts it with the private key.
Even if encryption is performed from the server side, it can be decrypted with the public key, so it is not structurally possible.
×:The client generates a session key and encrypts it with its private key.
The client side does not have the private key.
#4. The CA is responsible for revoking the required certificates. Which of the following adequately describes CRLs and OCSPs?
〇:OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.
A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.
×:CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.
CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.
×:OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.
OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.
×:CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.
Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.
#5. What is the AES algorithm used for?
〇:Data Encryption
The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a data encryption standard developed to improve upon the previous de facto standard, Data Encryption Standard (DES). As a symmetric algorithm, AES is used to encrypt data. Therefore, the correct answer is “data encryption.
There are other situations where AES is used in the other choices, but encrypting data is the most focused or better answer. Thus, there are cases where all of the choices are correct.
×:Data integrity
This is a characteristic of digital signatures.
×:Key recovery
It is a property of decryption and key escrow.
×:Symmetric key distribution
Using symmetric keys for AES distribution lowers the key delivery problem.
#6. Encryption provides different security depending on the procedure and & algorithm. Which of the following provides authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity?
〇:Digital Signature
A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of signing means encrypting a hash value of a message with a private key. A message can be digitally signed, providing authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The hash function guarantees the integrity of the message, and the signature of the hash value provides authentication and non-repudiation.
×:Encryption Algorithms
Encryption algorithms are wrong because they provide confidentiality. Encryption is most commonly performed using symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity as well as confidentiality.
×:Hash Algorithms
Hash algorithms are wrong because they provide data integrity. Hash algorithms generate a message digest, which detects whether modifications have been made (also called a hash value). The sender and receiver individually generate their own digests, and the receiver compares these values. If they differ, the receiver can know the message has been modified. Hash algorithms cannot provide authentication or non-repudiation.
×:Encryption paired with digital signatures
This is incorrect because encryption and digital signatures provide confidentiality, authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. Encryption alone provides confidentiality. And digital signatures provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The question requires that it can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. It is a nasty question.
#7. Marge uses her private key to create a digital signature for messages sent to George, but she does not show or share her private key with George. Which of the following illustrates this situation?
〇:Zero Knowledge Proof
Zero Knowledge Proof means that someone can tell you something without telling you more information than you need to know. In cryptography, it means proving that you have a certain key without sharing that key or showing it to anyone. Zero knowledge proof (usually mathematical) is an interactive way for one party to prove to another that something is true without revealing anything sensitive.
×:Key Clustering
Key clustering is the phenomenon of encrypting the same plaintext with different keys, but with the same ciphertext.
×:Avoiding Birthday Attacks
An attacker can attempt to force a collision, called a birthday attack. This attack is based on the mathematical birthday paradox present in standard statistics. This is a cryptographic attack that uses probability theory to exploit the mathematics behind the birthday problem.
×:Provides data confidentiality
Provided via encryption when data is encrypted with a key, which is incorrect.
#8. Which of the following is the most difficult to discover keys among known-plaintext attacks, selective-plaintext attacks, and adaptive-selective-plaintext attacks?
〇:Known Plaintext Attacks
A known-plaintext attack is a situation in which a decryptor can obtain plaintext indiscriminately. A ciphertext-alone attack is a situation where a decryptor can acquire ciphertext indiscriminately. A known-plaintext attack acquires the plaintext but does not know what ciphertext it is paired with, meaning that decryption is attempted with only two random ciphertexts. In this situation, it is difficult to decrypt. Therefore, the correct answer is “known-plaintext attack.
×:Selective Plaintext Attack
A choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose the plaintext to acquire and obtain the ciphertext.
×:Adaptive Choice Plaintext Attack
An adaptive choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose which plaintext to acquire and acquire the ciphertext, and can repeat the acquisition again after seeing the result.
×:None of the above
It is rare for the answer to be “none of the above” when the choice is “most of the above.
#9. Which of the following is the appropriate method of creating a digital signature?
〇:The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.
A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of digitally signing means encrypting the hash value of the message with his/her private key. The sender would encrypt that hash value using her private key. When the recipient receives the message, she performs a hash function on the message and generates the hash value herself. She then decrypts the hash value (digital signature) sent with the sender’s public key. The receiver compares the two values and, if they are the same, can verify that the message was not altered during transmission.
×:The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.
The sender is wrong because if the message encrypts the digest with his/her public key, the recipient cannot decrypt it. The recipient needs access to the sender’s private key, which must not occur. The private key must always be kept secret.
×:The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.
The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.
×:The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.
The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.
#10. According to the Kerckhoffs’s principle, which of the following should not leak?
The Kerckhoffs’s principle is the idea that cryptography should be secure even if everything but the private key is known. When encrypting data, one decides on a private key and how to encrypt it using that private key. Kerckhoffs says that even if it is known how it is encrypted, it should not be deciphered as long as the secret key is not discovered. Encryption has been with the history of human warfare. The main purpose is to communicate a strategy to one’s allies without being discovered by the enemy. In battle, its designs and encryption devices may be stolen by spies. Therefore, the encryption must be such that it cannot be solved without the key, no matter how much is known about how it works.
#11. Which of the following problems are caused by the hash collision phenomenon?
A collision is when the hash value of two different data from one hash function is the same. Hashing is one-way cryptography, which means that the original plaintext is no longer known to be one or the other.
#12. It appears that this organization is abusing its authority. Which approach would clarify the what, how, where, who, when, and why of each ex officio?
〇:Zachman Framework
The Zachman Framework is an enterprise architecture that determines the what, how, where, who, when, and why for each mandate. Enterprise architecture is to create a management structure to achieve business goals. We create an organization to achieve business goals, and basically, the larger the business goals, the larger the organization. If the structure of the organization is not in place, the organization will not run efficiently, as there may be residual work that needs to be done, or there may be friction between jobs due to authority that is covered by others. Therefore, it is necessary to clarify the scope of each job authority in order to put the organization in order. The job authority here is different from the perspectives of human resources or sales. It is easier to think of them as hierarchically separated to achieve business goals. Clarify the scope in Executive, Business Management, Architecture, Engineers, Subcontractors, and Stakeholders, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Zachman Framework.
×:SABSA
SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework to ensure that security measures are working properly in achieving business goals. Unlike the Zachman Framework, the tasks to be organized are hierarchical elements. Business Requirements > Conceptual Architecture > Logical Service Architecture > Physical Infrastructure Architecture > Technology and Products, each with a 5W1H practice.
×:Five-W method
There is no such term. If there is, it is a term coined to make it easier to interpret.
×:Biba Model
The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.
#13. Which security architecture model defines how to securely develop access rights between subjects and objects?
〇:Graham-Denning Model
The Graham-Denning model addresses how access rights between subjects and objects are defined, developed, and integrated. It defines a basic set of rights in terms of the commands that a particular subject can execute on an object. The model has eight basic protective rights or rules on how to safely perform these types of functions
×:Brewer-Nash Model
It is incorrect because its purpose is to provide access control that can be changed dynamically according to the user’s previous actions. The main purpose is to protect against conflicts of interest due to user access attempts. For example, if a large marketing firm provides marketing promotions and materials for two banks, the employee responsible for the Bank A project should not be able to see information about Bank B, the marketing firm’s other bank customer. A conflict of interest could arise because the banks are competitors. If the project manager of the marketing firm’s Project A can see information about Bank B’s new marketing campaign, he may attempt to execute it rather than promote it to please more direct customers. Marketing firms have a bad reputation when internal employees can act irresponsibly.
×:Clark-Wilson Model
The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it is implemented to protect data integrity and ensure that transactions are properly formatted within the application. Subjects can only access objects through authorized programs. Segregation of duties is enforced. Auditing is required. The Clark-Wilson model addresses three integrity goals: preventing changes by unauthorized users, preventing inappropriate changes by unauthorized users, and maintaining internal and external consistency.
×:Bell-LaPadula Model
This model was developed to address concerns about the security of U.S. military systems and the leakage of classified information, and is incorrect. The primary goal of the model is to prevent unauthorized access to classified information. It is a state machine model that enforces the confidentiality aspect of access control. Matrices and security levels are used to determine if a subject has access to different objects. Specific rules are applied to control how objects interact with each other compared to the subject’s object classification.
#14. Which of the following is a drawback of the symmetric key system?
〇:Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.
For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.
×:Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.
That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.
×:Much faster operation than asymmetric systems
Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.
×:Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed
Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.
#15. Lacy’s manager assigned her to research intrusion detection systems for the new dispatching center. Lacey identifies the top five products and compares their ratings. Which of the following is the most used evaluation criteria framework today for this purpose?
〇:Common Criteria
Common Criteria was created in the early 1990s as a way to combine the strengths of both the Trustworthy Computer Systems Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) and eliminate their weaknesses. Common Criteria is more flexible than TCSEC and easier than ITSEC. Common Criteria is recognized worldwide and assists consumers by reducing the complexity of assessments and eliminating the need to understand the definitions and meanings of different assessments in different assessment schemes. This also helps manufacturers because they can now build a specific set of requirements when they want to market their products internationally, rather than having to meet several different evaluation criteria under different rules and requirements.
×:ITSEC
This is incorrect because it is not the most widely used information technology security evaluation standard. ITSEC was the first attempt to establish a single standard for evaluating the security attributes of computer systems and products in many European countries. In addition, ITSEC separates functionality and assurance in its evaluations, giving each a separate rating. It was developed to provide greater flexibility than TCSEC and addresses integrity, availability, and confidentiality in networked systems. The goal of ITSEC was to become the global standard for product evaluation, but it failed to achieve that goal and was replaced by Common Criteria.
×:Red Book
Wrong, as it is a U.S. government publication that addresses the topic of security evaluation of networks and network components. Formally titled Trusted Network Interpretation, it provides a framework for protecting different types of networks. Subjects accessing objects on the network must be controlled, monitored, and audited.
×:Orange Book
Incorrect as this is a U.S. Government publication that addresses government and military requirements and expectations for operating systems. The Orange Book is used to evaluate whether a product is suitable for the security characteristics and specific applications or functions required by the vendor. The Orange Book is used to review the functionality, effectiveness, and assurance of the product under evaluation, using classes designed to address typical patterns of security requirements. It provides a broad framework for building and evaluating trusted systems, with an emphasis on controlling which users have access to the system. We call it the Orange Book, but another name for it is Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC).
#16. I saw a news report about encryption technology being deciphered by the development of quantum computers. What do you call the phenomenon of existing encryption being deciphered as the computational power of computers improves?
Compromise is when what used to be secure encryption becomes insecure due to the evolution of computers. Cryptography is based on the sharing of a single answer, a key, among those communicating. The key is generated by computer calculations, and a third party must solve a difficult problem that would take several years to derive. However, as the computational power of computers has evolved, it is now possible to solve difficult problems that could not be solved before. In this case, encryption is meaningless. This is the compromise caused by evolution. Therefore, the correct answer is “Compromise.
#17. We are looking to move to a cloud-based solution to eliminate the increasing cost of maintaining our own server network environment. Which of the following is the correct definition and mapping of a typical cloud-based solution to choose?
〇:The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.
Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.
There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer
×:The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.
IaaS Description.
×:The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.
This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.
×:The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.
SaaS Description.
#18. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between the reference monitor and the security kernel?
〇:The security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor
The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is a complete combination of protection mechanisms for a system. These are in the form of hardware, software, and firmware. These same components also comprise the security kernel. Reference monitors are access control concepts implemented and enforced by the security kernel via hardware, software, and firmware. In doing so, it ensures that the security kernel, the subject, has the proper permissions to access the object it is requesting. The subject, be it a program, user, or process, cannot access the requesting file, program, or resource until it is proven that it has the proper access rights.
×:The reference monitor is the core of the Trusted Computing Base (TCP), which is comprised of the security kernel.
This is incorrect because the reference monitor is not the core of the TCB. The core of the TCB is the security kernel, and the security kernel implements the concepts of the reference monitor. The reference monitor is a concept about access control. It is often referred to as an “abstract machine” because it is not a physical component.
×:The reference monitor implements and executes the security kernel.
The reference monitor does not implement and execute the security kernel, which is incorrect. On the contrary, the security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor. The reference monitor is an abstract concept, while the security kernel is a combination of hardware, software, and firmware in a trusted computing base.
×:The security kernel, i.e., the abstract machine, implements the concept of a reference monitor.
This is incorrect because abstract machine is not another name for security kernel. Abstract machine is another name for the reference monitor. This concept ensures that the abstract machine acts as an intermediary between the subject and the object, ensuring that the subject has the necessary rights to access the object it is requesting and protecting the subject from unauthorized access and modification. The security kernel functions to perform these activities.
#19. Mandy needs to generate keys for 260 employees using the company’s asymmetric algorithm. How many keys will be needed?
In an asymmetric algorithm, every user must have at least one key pair (private and public key). In a public key system, each entity has a separate key. The formula for determining the number of keys needed in this environment is by the number N × 2, where N is the number of people to distribute. In other words, 260 x 2 = 520. Therefore, the correct answer is 520.
#20. What are the advantages of depositing cryptographic keys with another organization?
A key escrow system is one in which a third-party organization holds a copy of the public/private key pair. If the private key is stolen, all ciphers can be decrypted. Conversely, if it is lost, all ciphers cannot be decrypted. Therefore, you want to have a copy. However, if you have it yourself, it may be stolen if a break-in occurs, so you leave it with a third-party organization.




