〇：The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.

Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.

There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer

×：The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.

IaaS Description.

×：The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.

This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.

×：The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.

SaaS Description.

〇：The expiration date should be set short.

Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.

×：Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.

This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.

×：Keys must not be made public.

Of course. It is a key.

×：Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.

Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.

〇：The most common method used is to change the most significant bit.

Steganography is a method of hiding data in other media types. One of the most common ways to embed messages in some types of media is using the least significant bit (LSB). This is because many types of files are modified and this is where sensitive data can be made visible and hidden without modifying the file. the LSB approach has been successful in hiding information within the graphics of high-resolution or sound-heavy audio files (high bit rate).

×：Hiding by abstraction.

Steganography is incorrect because it is concealment by abstraction. Security by obscurity means that someone uses secrecy as a way to protect an asset, rather than actually using the measure to secure something.

×：Just as encryption does, steganography is not a front for the existence of the sensitive data itself.

It is true that steganography does not draw attention to itself as does encryption. In other words, it is concealment by abstraction.

×：Media files are ideal for steganographic transmissions that are large in size.

This is incorrect because it is true that larger media files are ideal for steganographic transmissions because everyone needs to privately use multiple bits to manipulate with low likelihood of noticing.

〇：OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.

×：CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.

CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.

×：OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.

OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.

×：CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.

Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.

〇：Primary entry doors should have controlled access via swipe card or cryptographic locks. Secondary doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry. 

Data centers, server rooms, and wiring closets should be located in the core areas of the facility, near wiring distribution centers. Strict access control mechanisms and procedures should be implemented for these areas. Access control mechanisms can lock smart card readers, biometric readers, or a combination of these. These restricted areas should have only one access door, but fire code requirements typically dictate that there must be at least two doors in most data centers and server rooms. Only one door should be used for daily entry and exit and the other door should be used only in case of an emergency, i.e., if a fire breaks out in a data center or server room, the door should be locked. This second door should not be an access door, meaning people should not be able to come through this door. It should be locked, but should have a panic bar that will release the lock if it is used as an exit, pushed from the inside.

×：The primary and secondary entry doors must have control access via swipe cards or cryptographic locks.  

This is incorrect because even two entry doors should not be allowed to pass through with the identification, authentication, and authorization process. There should only be one entry point into the server room. No other door should provide an entry point, but can be used for an emergency exit. Therefore, secondary doors should be protected from the inside to prevent intrusion.

×：The primary entry door should have controlled access via a guard. Two doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.

The main entry door to the server room is incorrect as it requires an identification, authentication, and authorization process to be performed. Swipe cards and cryptographic locks perform these functions. Server rooms should ideally not be directly accessible from public areas such as stairways, hallways, loading docks, elevators, and restrooms. This helps prevent foot traffic from casual passersby. Those who are by the door to the area to be secured should have a legitimate reason for being there, as opposed to those on the way to the meeting room, for example.

×：The main entry door must have controlled access via swipe card or crypto lock. Two doors must have security guards.  

Two doors should not have security guards, because it is wrong. The door should be protected from the inside simply so it cannot be used as an entry. Two-door must function as an emergency exit.

〇：Execution Domain Switching

Execution domain switching occurs when the CPU needs to move between executing instructions for a more trusted process versus a less trusted process. Trusted Computing Base (TCB) allows processes to switch domains in a secure manner to access different levels of information based on sensitivity. Execution domain switching occurs when a process needs to invoke a process in a higher protection ring. The CPU executes the user-mode instruction back into privileged mode.

At first glance, this is a geeky problem that does not make sense. But don’t give up. Since there is no such thing as skipping, you can only get a right or wrong answer when the question is posed, so it is preferable to answer the question with some degree of prediction.

From this point on, let’s consider how to answer the questions. If you look at the question text and read it to the point where it reads, “You moved from one area to the other, and that was a security breach?” If you can read to that point, then you have two choices: deny or “stop the process,” or change or “switch the domain of execution. Next, the question text reads “if you need to access it,” which is asking how to accomplish this objective, not whether or not you should.

×：Execution of I/O operations

This is incorrect because input/output (I/O) operations are not initiated to ensure security when a process in one domain needs to access another domain in order to retrieve sensitive information. I/O operations are performed when input devices (such as a mouse or keyboard) and output devices (such as a monitor or printer, etc.) interact with an application or applications.

×：Stopping a Process

A process deactivation is one that occurs when a process instruction is fully executed by the CPU or when another process with a higher priority calls the CPU, which is incorrect. When a process is deactivated, new information about the new requesting process must be written to a register in the CPU. The TCB component must ensure that this is done, since the data replaced in the registers may be confidential.

×：Mapping from virtual memory to real memory

Incorrect because memory mapping occurs when a process needs its instructions and data processed by the CPU. The memory manager maps logical addresses to physical addresses so that the CPU knows where to place the data. This is the responsibility of the operating system’s memory manager.

〇：Public key infrastructure is a mechanism configuration for public key cryptographic distribution, and public key cryptography is another name for asymmetric encryption.

Public key cryptography is asymmetric cryptography. The terms are used interchangeably. Public key cryptography is a concept within the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which consists of various parts such as Certificate Authorities, Registration Authorities, certificates, keys, programs, and users. Public Key Infrastructure is used to identify and create users, distribute and maintain certificates, revoke and distribute certificates, maintain encryption keys, and for the purpose of encrypted communication and authentication.

×：Public key infrastructure uses symmetric algorithms and public key cryptography uses asymmetric algorithms.

This is incorrect because the public key infrastructure uses a hybrid system of symmetric and asymmetric key algorithms and methods. Public key cryptography is to use asymmetric algorithms. Therefore, asymmetric and public key cryptography are interchangeable, meaning they are the same. Examples of asymmetric algorithms are RSA, elliptic curve cryptography (ECC), Diffie-Hellman, and El Gamal.

×：Public key infrastructure is used to perform key exchange, while public key cryptography is used to create public/private key pairs.

This is incorrect because public key cryptography is the use of asymmetric algorithms used to create public/private key pairs, perform key exchange, and generate and verify digital signatures.

×：Public key infrastructure provides confidentiality and integrity, while public key cryptography provides authentication and non-repudiation.

Incorrect because the public key infrastructure itself does not provide authentication, non-repudiation, confidentiality, or integrity.

〇：* (star) Integrity Property

The Biba model defines a model with completeness as having two axioms. The * (star) Integrity Property is that the subordinate’s document is to be seen and there is no Read Down. The * (star) Integrity Property is that there is no Write Up, that is, no rewriting of the supervisor’s document. If the Simple Integrity Axiom is not followed, the subordinate’s document will be seen and may absorb unclassified and incorrect information at a lower level. If the * (star) Integrity Property is not followed, a supervisor’s document will be rewritten, which will release incorrect information to the supervisor who sees it. Therefore, both are integrity conditions.

×：Simple Integrity Property

The Simple Integrity Property is a constraint on Read Down.

×：Strong Tranquillity Axiom

The Strong Tranquillity Axiom is the constraint not to change permissions while the system is running.

×：Weak Tranquillity Axiom

Weak Tranquillity Axiom means do not change privileges until the attribute is inconsistent.

〇：Multiple processes are using the same resources.

The system uses hard drive space (called swap space) that is reserved to expand RAM memory space. When the system fills up volatile memory space, data is written from memory to the hard drive. When a program requests access to this data, it is returned from the hard drive to memory in specific units called page frames. Accessing data stored on hard drive pages takes longer than accessing data stored in memory because it requires read/write access to the physical disk. A security issue with using virtual swap space is that two or more processes can use the same resources and corrupt or damage data.

×：Allowing cookies to remain persistent in memory

This is incorrect because virtual storage is not associated with cookies. Virtual storage uses hard drive space to extend RAM memory space. Cookies are small text files used primarily by web browsers. Cookies can contain credentials for web sites, site preferences, and shopping history. Cookies are also commonly used to maintain web server-based sessions.

×：Side-channel attacks are possible.

Side-channel attacks are incorrect because they are physical attacks. This type of attack gathers information about how a mechanism (e.g., smart card or encryption processor) works from abandoned radiation, time spent processing, power consumed to perform a task, etc. Using the information, reverse engineer the mechanism to reveal how it performs its security task. This is not related to virtual storage.

×：Two processes can perform a denial of service attack.

The biggest threat within a system where resources are shared between processes is that one process can adversely affect the resources of another process, since the operating system requires memory to be shared among all resources. This is especially true in the case of memory. It is possible for two processes to work together to perform a denial of service attack, but this is only one of the attacks that can be performed with or without the use of virtual storage.

〇：Operating system patching is easier.

This is an incorrect choice question. Virtualization does not simplify operating system patching. In fact, it complicates it by adding at least one additional operating system. Each operating system differs from the typical version configuration, adding to the complexity of patching. The server’s own operating system runs as a guest within the host environment. In addition to patching and maintaining the traditional server operating system, the virtualization software itself must be patched and maintained.

For this question, we do not require an understanding of all the technical systems of virtualization. What is required here is a selection of answers based on a process of elimination.

×：I can build a secure computing platform.

Building a secure computing platform may not be a feature of virtualization per se. However, can we build a secure environment? This is not a false choice because it cannot be ruled out.

×：It can provide fault and error containment.

Virtualization can be host independent. In terms of containment, it can be interpreted as being able to provide fault and error containment through independence from physical servers. Therefore, it cannot be denied and is therefore not an incorrect choice.

×：It can provide powerful debugging capabilities.

Virtualization can reproduce a unique environment, not just put up a clean virtual host. Therefore, it is undeniable and therefore out of the wrong choice.

〇：Conduct a risk analysis.

The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.

×：Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.  

The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.

×：Design program.  

Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.

×：Implement countermeasures.  

Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.

〇：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with a public key.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses public key cryptography to provide data encryption, server authentication, message integrity, and optionally client authentication. When a client accesses a cryptographically protected page, the web server initiates TLS and begins the process of securing subsequent communications. The server performs a three-handshake to establish a secure session. After that, client authentication with a digital certificate, as the case may be, comes in. The client then generates a session key, encrypts it with the server’s public key, and shares it. This session key is used as the symmetric key for encrypting the data to be transmitted thereafter. Thus, the correct answer is: “The client generates a session key and encrypts it with the public key.” will be

×：The server generates the session key and encrypts it with the public key.

The server does not encrypt with the public key.

×：The server generates a session key and encrypts it with the private key.

Even if encryption is performed from the server side, it can be decrypted with the public key, so it is not structurally possible.

×：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with its private key.

The client side does not have the private key.

〇：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activity taking place within the host system.

Virtual firewalls can be bridge-mode products that monitor individual communication links between virtual machines. They can also be integrated within a hypervisor in a virtual environment. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of guest system software. When a firewall is embedded within the hypervisor, it can monitor all activities that occur within the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual network links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is incorrect because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links between hosts and not network links. Hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activities taking place within the guest system rather than the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is wrong because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links, and the hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, but not the guest system. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of the guest system software. A firewall, when embedded within the hypervisor, can monitor all activities taking place within the system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual guest systems, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the network system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic between guest systems, and a hypervisor integrated allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, not the network system, so Wrong.

〇：TOGAF

The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) is a vendor-independent platform for the development and implementation of enterprise architecture. It focuses on the effective management of enterprise data using metamodels and service-oriented architectures (SOA). Proficient implementations of TOGAF aim to reduce fragmentation caused by inconsistencies between traditional IT systems and actual business processes. It also coordinates new changes and functionality so that new changes can be easily integrated into the enterprise platform.

×：Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DoDAF)

In accordance with the guidelines for the organization of the enterprise architecture of the U.S. Department of Defense systems, this is incorrect. It is also suitable for large, complex integrated systems in the military, civilian, and public sectors.

×：Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) during software development.

It is inappropriate because it is a framework for the purpose of designing and further improving software. CMMI provides a standard for software development processes that can measure the maturity of the development process.

×：ISO/IEC 42010

Incorrect because it consists of recommended practices to simplify the design and conception of software-intensive system architectures. This standard provides a kind of language (terminology) to describe the different components of software architecture and how to integrate it into the development life cycle.

〇：Known Plaintext Attacks

A known-plaintext attack is a situation in which a decryptor can obtain plaintext indiscriminately. A ciphertext-alone attack is a situation where a decryptor can acquire ciphertext indiscriminately. A known-plaintext attack acquires the plaintext but does not know what ciphertext it is paired with, meaning that decryption is attempted with only two random ciphertexts. In this situation, it is difficult to decrypt. Therefore, the correct answer is “known-plaintext attack.

×：Selective Plaintext Attack

A choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose the plaintext to acquire and obtain the ciphertext.

×：Adaptive Choice Plaintext Attack

An adaptive choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose which plaintext to acquire and acquire the ciphertext, and can repeat the acquisition again after seeing the result.

×：None of the above

It is rare for the answer to be “none of the above” when the choice is “most of the above.

〇：TOC/TOU

Certain attacks can take advantage of the way a system processes requests and performs tasks. A TOC/TOU attack handles a series of steps that the system uses to complete a task. This type of attack takes advantage of the reliance on the timing of events occurring in a multitasking operating system; TOC/TOU is a software vulnerability that allows the use of condition checking (i.e., credential verification) and the results from that condition checking function. In the scenario in this question, the fact that the web application is likely correctly configured indicates that the programming code of this application has this type of vulnerability embedded in the code itself.

×：Buffer overflow

When too much data is accepted as input to a particular process, a buffer overflow occurs. This is incorrect because it does not match the event in the problem statement. A buffer is an allocated segment of memory. A buffer can overflow arbitrarily with too much data, but to be used by an attacker, the code inserted into the buffer must be of a specific length and require a command to be executed by the attacker. These types of attacks are usually exceptional in that the fault is segmented, or sensitive data is provided to the attacker.

×：Blind SQL Injection

Blind SQL injection attacks are wrong because they are a type of SQL injection attack that sends true or false questions to the database. In a basic SQL injection, the attacker sends specific instructions in SQL format to query the associated database. In a blind SQL attack, the attacker is limited to sending a series of true-false questions to the database in order to analyze the database responses and gather sensitive information.

×：Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is incorrect because it is an attack type that attempts to trick the victim into loading a web page containing malicious requests or operations. The attack operation is performed within the context of the victim’s access rights. The request inherits the victim’s identity and performs undesirable functions for the victim. In this type of attack, the attacker can cause the victim’s system to perform unintended actions such as changing account information, retrieving account data, or logging out. This type of attack could be related to the scenario described in this question, but focuses on how the user can bypass the locking mechanism built into the web application. The logic in the programming code is incorrectly developed and the locking function is bypassed because a rigorous series of checks and usage sequences are not performed correctly.

〇：Common Criteria

Common Criteria was created in the early 1990s as a way to combine the strengths of both the Trustworthy Computer Systems Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) and eliminate their weaknesses. Common Criteria is more flexible than TCSEC and easier than ITSEC. Common Criteria is recognized worldwide and assists consumers by reducing the complexity of assessments and eliminating the need to understand the definitions and meanings of different assessments in different assessment schemes. This also helps manufacturers because they can now build a specific set of requirements when they want to market their products internationally, rather than having to meet several different evaluation criteria under different rules and requirements.

×：ITSEC

This is incorrect because it is not the most widely used information technology security evaluation standard. ITSEC was the first attempt to establish a single standard for evaluating the security attributes of computer systems and products in many European countries. In addition, ITSEC separates functionality and assurance in its evaluations, giving each a separate rating. It was developed to provide greater flexibility than TCSEC and addresses integrity, availability, and confidentiality in networked systems. The goal of ITSEC was to become the global standard for product evaluation, but it failed to achieve that goal and was replaced by Common Criteria.

×：Red Book

Wrong, as it is a U.S. government publication that addresses the topic of security evaluation of networks and network components. Formally titled Trusted Network Interpretation, it provides a framework for protecting different types of networks. Subjects accessing objects on the network must be controlled, monitored, and audited.

×：Orange Book

Incorrect as this is a U.S. Government publication that addresses government and military requirements and expectations for operating systems. The Orange Book is used to evaluate whether a product is suitable for the security characteristics and specific applications or functions required by the vendor. The Orange Book is used to review the functionality, effectiveness, and assurance of the product under evaluation, using classes designed to address typical patterns of security requirements. It provides a broad framework for building and evaluating trusted systems, with an emphasis on controlling which users have access to the system. We call it the Orange Book, but another name for it is Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC).

In an asymmetric algorithm, every user must have at least one key pair (private and public key). In a public key system, each entity has a separate key. The formula for determining the number of keys needed in this environment is by the number N × 2, where N is the number of people to distribute. In other words, 260 x 2 = 520. Therefore, the correct answer is 520.

〇：Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.

For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.

×：Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.

That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.

×：Much faster operation than asymmetric systems

Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.

×：Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed

Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.