Practice Test(DOMAIN3)

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Domain 3 Exam.

A minimum of 70% is required to pass.

 

Results

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#1. Which microprocessor technology has also been linked to facilitating certain attacks?

〇:Increased Processing Power

The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.

 

×:Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming

This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.

 

×:Dual-mode computation

The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.

 

×:Direct Memory Access I/O

Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.

#2. You have been instructed to report to the Board of Directors with a vendor-neutral enterprise architecture framework that will help reduce fragmentation due to inconsistencies between IT and business processes. Which of the following frameworks should you propose?

〇:TOGAF

The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) is a vendor-independent platform for the development and implementation of enterprise architecture. It focuses on the effective management of enterprise data using metamodels and service-oriented architectures (SOA). Proficient implementations of TOGAF aim to reduce fragmentation caused by inconsistencies between traditional IT systems and actual business processes. It also coordinates new changes and functionality so that new changes can be easily integrated into the enterprise platform.

 

×:Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DoDAF)

In accordance with the guidelines for the organization of the enterprise architecture of the U.S. Department of Defense systems, this is incorrect. It is also suitable for large, complex integrated systems in the military, civilian, and public sectors.

 

×:Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) during software development.

It is inappropriate because it is a framework for the purpose of designing and further improving software. CMMI provides a standard for software development processes that can measure the maturity of the development process.

 

×:ISO/IEC 42010

Incorrect because it consists of recommended practices to simplify the design and conception of software-intensive system architectures. This standard provides a kind of language (terminology) to describe the different components of software architecture and how to integrate it into the development life cycle.

#3. Which of the following is the most difficult to discover keys among known-plaintext attacks, selective-plaintext attacks, and adaptive-selective-plaintext attacks?

〇:Known Plaintext Attacks

A known-plaintext attack is a situation in which a decryptor can obtain plaintext indiscriminately. A ciphertext-alone attack is a situation where a decryptor can acquire ciphertext indiscriminately. A known-plaintext attack acquires the plaintext but does not know what ciphertext it is paired with, meaning that decryption is attempted with only two random ciphertexts. In this situation, it is difficult to decrypt. Therefore, the correct answer is “known-plaintext attack.

 

×:Selective Plaintext Attack

A choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose the plaintext to acquire and obtain the ciphertext.

 

×:Adaptive Choice Plaintext Attack

An adaptive choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose which plaintext to acquire and acquire the ciphertext, and can repeat the acquisition again after seeing the result.

 

×:None of the above

It is rare for the answer to be “none of the above” when the choice is “most of the above.

#4. Which of the following is an axiom of access control to ensure that rewriting a supervisor’s document does not release incorrect information to the supervisor?

〇:* (star) Integrity Property

The Biba model defines a model with completeness as having two axioms. The * (star) Integrity Property is that the subordinate’s document is to be seen and there is no Read Down. The * (star) Integrity Property is that there is no Write Up, that is, no rewriting of the supervisor’s document. If the Simple Integrity Axiom is not followed, the subordinate’s document will be seen and may absorb unclassified and incorrect information at a lower level. If the * (star) Integrity Property is not followed, a supervisor’s document will be rewritten, which will release incorrect information to the supervisor who sees it. Therefore, both are integrity conditions.

 

×:Simple Integrity Property

The Simple Integrity Property is a constraint on Read Down.

 

×:Strong Tranquillity Axiom

The Strong Tranquillity Axiom is the constraint not to change permissions while the system is running.

 

×:Weak Tranquillity Axiom

Weak Tranquillity Axiom means do not change privileges until the attribute is inconsistent.

#5. TLS is a protocol used to protect transactions that occur over an untrusted network. Which of the following is an appropriate description of what takes place during the setup process of a TLS connection?

〇:The client generates a session key and encrypts it with a public key.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses public key cryptography to provide data encryption, server authentication, message integrity, and optionally client authentication. When a client accesses a cryptographically protected page, the web server initiates TLS and begins the process of securing subsequent communications. The server performs a three-handshake to establish a secure session. After that, client authentication with a digital certificate, as the case may be, comes in. The client then generates a session key, encrypts it with the server’s public key, and shares it. This session key is used as the symmetric key for encrypting the data to be transmitted thereafter. Thus, the correct answer is: “The client generates a session key and encrypts it with the public key.” will be

 

×:The server generates the session key and encrypts it with the public key.

The server does not encrypt with the public key.

 

×:The server generates a session key and encrypts it with the private key.

Even if encryption is performed from the server side, it can be decrypted with the public key, so it is not structurally possible.

 

×:The client generates a session key and encrypts it with its private key.

The client side does not have the private key.

#6. Sally has performed software analysis against her company’s proprietary applications. She has found that it is possible to force an authentication step to take place before the attacker has successfully completed the authentication procedure. What could be the cause?

〇:Conflict condition

A race condition is present when a process performs a task on a shared resource and the sequence could be in the wrong order. 2 or more processes can have a race condition if they use a shared resource, like data in a variable. It is important that processes perform their functions in the correct sequence.

 

×:Backdoors

Backdoors are incorrect because they are “listening” services on certain ports. Backdoors are implemented by attackers to allow easy access to the system without authenticating as a normal system user.

 

×:Maintenance Hooks

Maintenance hooks are specific software codes that allow easy and unauthorized access to sensitive parts of a software product. Software programmers use maintenance hooks to allow them to get quick access to the code so that they can make fixes in immediate, but this is dangerous.

 

×:Data validation errors

Data validation errors are wrong because an attacker cannot operate on the process execution sequence.

#7. Which of the following events occurs in a PKI environment?

〇:CA signs certificates.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.

 

×:RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.

Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.

 

×:RA signs certificates.

The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.

 

×:The user signs the certificate.

Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.

#8. David is preparing the server room for the new branch office. He wants to know what locking mechanism should be used for the primary and secondary server room entry doors?

〇:Primary entry doors should have controlled access via swipe card or cryptographic locks. Secondary doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry. 

Data centers, server rooms, and wiring closets should be located in the core areas of the facility, near wiring distribution centers. Strict access control mechanisms and procedures should be implemented for these areas. Access control mechanisms can lock smart card readers, biometric readers, or a combination of these. These restricted areas should have only one access door, but fire code requirements typically dictate that there must be at least two doors in most data centers and server rooms. Only one door should be used for daily entry and exit and the other door should be used only in case of an emergency, i.e., if a fire breaks out in a data center or server room, the door should be locked. This second door should not be an access door, meaning people should not be able to come through this door. It should be locked, but should have a panic bar that will release the lock if it is used as an exit, pushed from the inside.

 

×:The primary and secondary entry doors must have control access via swipe cards or cryptographic locks.  

This is incorrect because even two entry doors should not be allowed to pass through with the identification, authentication, and authorization process. There should only be one entry point into the server room. No other door should provide an entry point, but can be used for an emergency exit. Therefore, secondary doors should be protected from the inside to prevent intrusion.

 

×:The primary entry door should have controlled access via a guard. Two doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.

The main entry door to the server room is incorrect as it requires an identification, authentication, and authorization process to be performed. Swipe cards and cryptographic locks perform these functions. Server rooms should ideally not be directly accessible from public areas such as stairways, hallways, loading docks, elevators, and restrooms. This helps prevent foot traffic from casual passersby. Those who are by the door to the area to be secured should have a legitimate reason for being there, as opposed to those on the way to the meeting room, for example.

 

×:The main entry door must have controlled access via swipe card or crypto lock. Two doors must have security guards.  

Two doors should not have security guards, because it is wrong. The door should be protected from the inside simply so it cannot be used as an entry. Two-door must function as an emergency exit.

#9. We are looking to move to a cloud-based solution to eliminate the increasing cost of maintaining our own server network environment. Which of the following is the correct definition and mapping of a typical cloud-based solution to choose?

〇:The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.

Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.

There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer

 

×:The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.

IaaS Description.

 

×:The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.

This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.

 

×:The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.

SaaS Description.

#10. According to the Kerckhoffs’s principle, which of the following should not leak?

The Kerckhoffs’s principle is the idea that cryptography should be secure even if everything but the private key is known. When encrypting data, one decides on a private key and how to encrypt it using that private key. Kerckhoffs says that even if it is known how it is encrypted, it should not be deciphered as long as the secret key is not discovered. Encryption has been with the history of human warfare. The main purpose is to communicate a strategy to one’s allies without being discovered by the enemy. In battle, its designs and encryption devices may be stolen by spies. Therefore, the encryption must be such that it cannot be solved without the key, no matter how much is known about how it works.

#11. Sally is responsible for managing the keys in her organization. Which of the following is incorrect as secure key management?

〇:The expiration date should be set short.

Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.

 

×:Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.

This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.

 

×:Keys must not be made public.

Of course. It is a key.

 

×:Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.

Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.

#12. Which of the following is an incorrect description of steganography?

〇:The most common method used is to change the most significant bit.

Steganography is a method of hiding data in other media types. One of the most common ways to embed messages in some types of media is using the least significant bit (LSB). This is because many types of files are modified and this is where sensitive data can be made visible and hidden without modifying the file. the LSB approach has been successful in hiding information within the graphics of high-resolution or sound-heavy audio files (high bit rate).

 

×:Hiding by abstraction.

Steganography is incorrect because it is concealment by abstraction. Security by obscurity means that someone uses secrecy as a way to protect an asset, rather than actually using the measure to secure something.

 

×:Just as encryption does, steganography is not a front for the existence of the sensitive data itself.

It is true that steganography does not draw attention to itself as does encryption. In other words, it is concealment by abstraction.

 

×:Media files are ideal for steganographic transmissions that are large in size.

This is incorrect because it is true that larger media files are ideal for steganographic transmissions because everyone needs to privately use multiple bits to manipulate with low likelihood of noticing.

#13. Which security architecture model defines how to securely develop access rights between subjects and objects?

〇:Graham-Denning Model

The Graham-Denning model addresses how access rights between subjects and objects are defined, developed, and integrated. It defines a basic set of rights in terms of the commands that a particular subject can execute on an object. The model has eight basic protective rights or rules on how to safely perform these types of functions

 

×:Brewer-Nash Model

It is incorrect because its purpose is to provide access control that can be changed dynamically according to the user’s previous actions. The main purpose is to protect against conflicts of interest due to user access attempts. For example, if a large marketing firm provides marketing promotions and materials for two banks, the employee responsible for the Bank A project should not be able to see information about Bank B, the marketing firm’s other bank customer. A conflict of interest could arise because the banks are competitors. If the project manager of the marketing firm’s Project A can see information about Bank B’s new marketing campaign, he may attempt to execute it rather than promote it to please more direct customers. Marketing firms have a bad reputation when internal employees can act irresponsibly.

 

×:Clark-Wilson Model

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it is implemented to protect data integrity and ensure that transactions are properly formatted within the application. Subjects can only access objects through authorized programs. Segregation of duties is enforced. Auditing is required. The Clark-Wilson model addresses three integrity goals: preventing changes by unauthorized users, preventing inappropriate changes by unauthorized users, and maintaining internal and external consistency.

 

×:Bell-LaPadula Model

This model was developed to address concerns about the security of U.S. military systems and the leakage of classified information, and is incorrect. The primary goal of the model is to prevent unauthorized access to classified information. It is a state machine model that enforces the confidentiality aspect of access control. Matrices and security levels are used to determine if a subject has access to different objects. Specific rules are applied to control how objects interact with each other compared to the subject’s object classification.

#14. Several steps must be taken before an effective physical security program can be rolled out. Which of the following steps comes first in the process of rolling out a security program?

〇:Conduct a risk analysis.

The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.

 

×:Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.  

The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.

 

×:Design program.  

Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.

 

×:Implement countermeasures.  

Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.

#15. What should I use for streaming ciphers?

〇:One-time pad

Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.

 

×:AES

AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.

 

×:Block ciphers

Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.

 

×:RSA

RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.

#16. The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) ensures security within the system when a process in one domain needs to access another domain to obtain sensitive information. What functions does the TCB perform to ensure this is done in a secure manner?

〇:Execution Domain Switching

Execution domain switching occurs when the CPU needs to move between executing instructions for a more trusted process versus a less trusted process. Trusted Computing Base (TCB) allows processes to switch domains in a secure manner to access different levels of information based on sensitivity. Execution domain switching occurs when a process needs to invoke a process in a higher protection ring. The CPU executes the user-mode instruction back into privileged mode.

At first glance, this is a geeky problem that does not make sense. But don’t give up. Since there is no such thing as skipping, you can only get a right or wrong answer when the question is posed, so it is preferable to answer the question with some degree of prediction.

From this point on, let’s consider how to answer the questions. If you look at the question text and read it to the point where it reads, “You moved from one area to the other, and that was a security breach?” If you can read to that point, then you have two choices: deny or “stop the process,” or change or “switch the domain of execution. Next, the question text reads “if you need to access it,” which is asking how to accomplish this objective, not whether or not you should.

 

×:Execution of I/O operations

This is incorrect because input/output (I/O) operations are not initiated to ensure security when a process in one domain needs to access another domain in order to retrieve sensitive information. I/O operations are performed when input devices (such as a mouse or keyboard) and output devices (such as a monitor or printer, etc.) interact with an application or applications.

 

×:Stopping a Process

A process deactivation is one that occurs when a process instruction is fully executed by the CPU or when another process with a higher priority calls the CPU, which is incorrect. When a process is deactivated, new information about the new requesting process must be written to a register in the CPU. The TCB component must ensure that this is done, since the data replaced in the registers may be confidential.

 

×:Mapping from virtual memory to real memory

Incorrect because memory mapping occurs when a process needs its instructions and data processed by the CPU. The memory manager maps logical addresses to physical addresses so that the CPU knows where to place the data. This is the responsibility of the operating system’s memory manager.

#17. Which of the following physical environment designs combines sociology to reduce crime rates and fear of crime?

〇:Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED)

Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED) is a method by which crime can be reduced through proper design of the physical environment. It provides guidance on appropriate facility construction and environmental elements and crime prevention. It is used to guide the physical environment to behavioral effects that reduce crime.

 

×:Multi-layered defense model  

The multi-layered defense model is incorrect because it is a hierarchical architecture of physical, logical, and administrative security controls. The concept is that if one layer fails, the asset is protected by other layers. Layers should be moved from the perimeter toward the asset and implemented.

 

×:Hiding by Ambiguity

Concealment by ambiguity is a technique of concealment secured by concealment of information and is incorrect. Basically, it is better not to consider something to be a true secret if it is logically reachable, even if it is not public.

 

×:Access Control

Access control is incorrect because it is guidance by the placement of doors, fences, lighting, and landscaping as people enter. It is an abstract concept and would not fit into a concrete definition that combines sociology.

#18. The CA is responsible for revoking the required certificates. Which of the following adequately describes CRLs and OCSPs?

〇:OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.

 

×:CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.

CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.

 

×:OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.

OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.

 

×:CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.

Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.

#19. I saw a news report about encryption technology being deciphered by the development of quantum computers. What do you call the phenomenon of existing encryption being deciphered as the computational power of computers improves?

Compromise is when what used to be secure encryption becomes insecure due to the evolution of computers. Cryptography is based on the sharing of a single answer, a key, among those communicating. The key is generated by computer calculations, and a third party must solve a difficult problem that would take several years to derive. However, as the computational power of computers has evolved, it is now possible to solve difficult problems that could not be solved before. In this case, encryption is meaningless. This is the compromise caused by evolution. Therefore, the correct answer is “Compromise.

#20. It appears that this organization is abusing its authority. Which approach would clarify the what, how, where, who, when, and why of each ex officio?

〇:Zachman Framework

The Zachman Framework is an enterprise architecture that determines the what, how, where, who, when, and why for each mandate. Enterprise architecture is to create a management structure to achieve business goals. We create an organization to achieve business goals, and basically, the larger the business goals, the larger the organization. If the structure of the organization is not in place, the organization will not run efficiently, as there may be residual work that needs to be done, or there may be friction between jobs due to authority that is covered by others. Therefore, it is necessary to clarify the scope of each job authority in order to put the organization in order. The job authority here is different from the perspectives of human resources or sales. It is easier to think of them as hierarchically separated to achieve business goals. Clarify the scope in Executive, Business Management, Architecture, Engineers, Subcontractors, and Stakeholders, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Zachman Framework.

 

×:SABSA

SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework to ensure that security measures are working properly in achieving business goals. Unlike the Zachman Framework, the tasks to be organized are hierarchical elements. Business Requirements > Conceptual Architecture > Logical Service Architecture > Physical Infrastructure Architecture > Technology and Products, each with a 5W1H practice.

 

×:Five-W method

There is no such term. If there is, it is a term coined to make it easier to interpret.

 

×:Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

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