Practice Test(ALL DOMAINS)

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All Domains Exam.

A minimum of 70% is required to pass.

 
QUIZ START

Results

Some people regret not studying, but no one regrets studying too much.

#1. IP telephony networks require the same security measures as those implemented on IP data networks. Which of the following is a feature unique to IP telephony?

〇:IP Session Restriction via Media Gateway

The VoIP Media Gateway translates Internet Protocol (VoIP) voice over time division multiplexing (TDM) voice to and from. As a security measure, the number of calls through the Media Gateway should be limited. The Media Gateway is vulnerable to denial-of-service attacks, hijacking, and other types of attacks.

 

×:Identification of Rogue Devices  

Incorrect, as rogue devices on both IP telephony and data networks need to be identified.

 

×:Implementation of Authentication

Incorrect because authentication is recommended for both data and voice networks.

 

×:Encryption of packets containing sensitive information

Incorrect because sensitive data can be transmitted over either voice or data networks and must be encrypted in both cases. Eavesdropping is a very real threat for VoIP networks.

#2. Jill has established a company-wide sales program that requires user groups with different privileges in accessing information on a centralized database. What database should the security manager secure?

〇:Increasing database security controls and providing more granularity.

The best approach to protecting the database in this situation would be to increase controls and assign detailed permissions. These measures would ensure that users cannot abuse their permissions and that the confidentiality of the information is maintained. The granularity of permissions would give network administrators and security professionals additional control over the resources they are charged with protecting, and the granular level would allow them to give individuals just the exact level of access they need.

 

×:Implement an access control where each user’s privileges are displayed each time they access the database.

Implementing an access control that displays each user’s permissions is incorrect because they are an example of one control each time they access the database. This is not the overall way of dealing with user access to a database full of information. This may be an example of better database security control, but it needs to be limited to the right places.

 

×:Change the classification label of the database to a higher security status.

The classification level of the information in the database should previously be determined based on its level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This option implies that a higher level of authorization should be given, but there is no indication in the question text that the security level is inappropriate.

 

×:Reduce security. Allow all users to access information as needed.

The answer to reduce security is incorrect.

#3. Which of the following is an attack that accesses an internal IP address as the source from the outside and aims for internal access by means of a response request?

〇:LAND attack

A LAND attack is an attack that penetrates firewalls that block bad requests; it is similar to the Fraggle attack, but it sends a request to the firewall with the sender as the target of the attack. This is a blind spot because the firewall, which is supposed to protect the inside of the system, is used for the attack.

 

×:Teardrop

Teardrop is an attack that halts the system by forging the offset of IP packets before they are split.

 

×:Christmas Tree Attack

A Christmas tree attack is an attack in which a packet is sent with a number of flags (URG, ACK, PSH, RST, SYN, FIN) and the response is observed.

 

×:CHARGEN attack

CHARGEN (port 19) is a protocol that returns an appropriate string.

#4. Which of the following is at the top of the security documentation?

A security document documents the security to be achieved.” To achieve “strong security” a clear definition is needed. Since the definition varies from organization to organization, it is necessary to put it in writing. There are five documents, with policy at the top, each of which is mandatory or optional.

#5. Which project management methodology is based on each phase leading to the next phase and not returning to the previous phase?

〇:Waterfall

Waterfall is very unidirectional and each phase leads directly to the next phase. In a pure waterfall model, there is no way to return to the previous phase.

 

×:Agile

Agile is the idea that system development should be done flexibly. It is a trial-and-error development method that emphasizes adaptive planning, evolutionary development, early delivery, and continuous improvement. Agile differs from the traditional approach of modeling a process, where principles and claims are shared by the entire team and an attempt is made to adapt to every situation.

 

×:SASHIMI

The SASHIMI model is a model of the system development process that allows the end and beginning points of each phase to run concurrently. In many cases, a waterfall model is used, where the next phase is moved to the next phase with the submission and review of deliverables. This is also great, but in practice, there are times when the delivery is made but modified due to changing requirements.

 

×:Spiral

The spiral model is a method of development that iterates from design to testing for each function. It is a method in which a series of processes consisting of planning, analysis, design, implementation, testing, and evaluation are repeated many times within a single project to gradually increase the degree of completion. In a software project, these phases are repeated.

#6. What is the IPSec SA value?

Each IPSec VPN device will have at least one security association (SA) for each secure connection it uses; the SA, which is critical to the IPSec architecture, is the device’s need to support IPSec connections over VPN connections This is a record of the configuration that needs to be in place.

#7. Which of the following are threats to layers 5-7 of the OSI reference model?

Computer worms are standalone malware computer programs that replicate themselves and spread to other computers. They typically operate at OSI reference layers 5-7.

#8. We would like to use Ethernet for a bus type network configuration. The service requirements are a communication speed of 5 M and a distance of 200 m. Which standard should we use?

Ethernet is a way of communication used for local area networks; LANs and such communicate over Ethernet. In other words, most communication is now done over Ethernet.

Name Type Speed Max Distance
10Base2 ‘Thinnet’
Bus
10Mbit
185meters
10Base5 ‘Thicknet’
Bus
10Mbit
500meters
10BaseT
Star
10Mbit
100meters
100Mbit
Star
100BaseT
100meters
1000BaseT
Star
1000Mbit
100meters

#9. Which of the following problems are caused by the hash collision phenomenon?

A collision is when the hash value of two different data from one hash function is the same. Hashing is one-way cryptography, which means that the original plaintext is no longer known to be one or the other.

#10. Which of the following backup types does NOT clear the archive bit of the Windows system?

Archive bits are those that have been updated since the previous backup point in time. Full backups are full backups, so there is no need to be aware of where changes have occurred. Incremental backups also do not require awareness of change points because the backup portion is predetermined. Therefore, both clear the archive bit. However, differential backups do not clear the archive bit because only the changed part is known to be backed up.

#11. The operations team is responsible for ensuring that data is backed up at a regular frequency. Which of the following backs up files that have changed since the last time all data was backed up?

〇:Differential Backup

Backups can be taken in full, differential, or incremental. Most files are not changed daily to save very much time and resources, and it is better to develop a backup plan that does not back up for data that is not continually changing. In backup software, when a file is modified or created, the file system sets the archive bit and the backup software determines if that file should be backed up. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup.

 

×:Incremental Backup

An incremental backup backs up all data that has changed since the last backup.

 

×:Full Backup

A full backup backs up the entire database or the entire system.

 

×:Partial Backup

Not in the backup category.

#12. Drive mirroring is the ability to write data to two drives simultaneously for redundancy. What type of technology is used for this?

〇:Disk Redundancy

Information that is required to be available at all times must be mirrored or duplexed. In both mirroring (also called RAID 1) and duplexing, all data write operations are performed simultaneously or nearly simultaneously at multiple physical locations.

 

×:Direct Access Storage

Direct access storage is incorrect because it is a general term for magnetic disk storage devices traditionally used in mainframe and minicomputer (midrange computer) environments. RAID is a type of direct access storage device (DASD).

 

×:Striping

Incorrect because the technique of striping is used when data is written to all drives. This activity splits the data and writes it to multiple drives. Write performance is not affected, but read performance is greatly improved because multiple heads are getting data at the same time. Parity information is used to reconstruct lost or corrupted data. Striping simply means data; parity information may be written to multiple disks.

 

×:Parallel Processing

Parallel processing is incorrect because a computer has multiple processing units built into it to execute multiple streams of instructions simultaneously. While mirroring may be used to implement this type of processing, it is not a requirement.

#13. Which is the first step in a business impact analysis?

〇:Creating Data Collection Techniques

Of the steps listed, the first step in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to create a data collection technique. The BCP committee will use questionnaires, surveys, and interviews to collect key person information on how different tasks are accomplished within the organization, along with any relevant dependencies of processes, transactions, or services. Process flow diagrams should be created from this data and used throughout the BIA and planning and development phases.

 

×:Risk calculations for each different business function

This is incorrect because the risk for each business function is calculated after the business function has been identified. And before that happens, the BCP team needs to collect data from key personnel. To calculate the risk for each business function, qualitative and quantitative impact information must be collected, properly analyzed, and interpreted. Once the data analysis is complete, it should be reviewed with the most knowledgeable people in the company to ensure that the results are relevant and to explain the actual risks and impacts facing the organization. This will flush out any additional data points that were not captured initially and allow for a full understanding of all possible business impacts.

 

×:Identifying Critical Business Functions

Image B is incorrect because the identification of critical business functions is done after the BCP committee has learned about the business functions that exist by interviewing and surveying key individuals. Once the data collection phase is complete, the BCP committee conducts an analysis to determine which processes, devices, or business activities are critical. If a system stands on its own, does not affect other systems, and is less critical, it can be classified as a Tier 2 or Tier 3 recovery step. In other words, these resources are not processed in the recovery phase until the most critical (Tier 1) resources are up and running.

 

×:Vulnerability and Threat Identification to Business Functions

This is not the first step and is incorrect because it identifies vulnerabilities and threats to business functions toward the end of the business impact analysis. It is the last of the steps listed in the answer. Threats can be man-made, natural, or technical. It is important to identify all possible threats and estimate their likelihood of occurring. When developing these plans, some issues may not be immediately apparent. These issues are best addressed by groups conducting scenario-based exercises. This ensures that when the threat becomes reality, the plan will have an impact on all business tasks, departments, and critical operations. The more issues that are planned for, the better prepared you will be should these events occur.

#14. It appears that this organization is abusing its authority. Which approach would clarify the what, how, where, who, when, and why of each ex officio?

〇:Zachman Framework

The Zachman Framework is an enterprise architecture that determines the what, how, where, who, when, and why for each mandate. Enterprise architecture is to create a management structure to achieve business goals. We create an organization to achieve business goals, and basically, the larger the business goals, the larger the organization. If the structure of the organization is not in place, the organization will not run efficiently, as there may be residual work that needs to be done, or there may be friction between jobs due to authority that is covered by others. Therefore, it is necessary to clarify the scope of each job authority in order to put the organization in order. The job authority here is different from the perspectives of human resources or sales. It is easier to think of them as hierarchically separated to achieve business goals. Clarify the scope in Executive, Business Management, Architecture, Engineers, Subcontractors, and Stakeholders, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Zachman Framework.

 

×:SABSA

SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework to ensure that security measures are working properly in achieving business goals. Unlike the Zachman Framework, the tasks to be organized are hierarchical elements. Business Requirements > Conceptual Architecture > Logical Service Architecture > Physical Infrastructure Architecture > Technology and Products, each with a 5W1H practice.

 

×:Five-W method

There is no such term. If there is, it is a term coined to make it easier to interpret.

 

×:Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

#15. Which is the difference between public key cryptography and public key infrastructure?

〇:Public key infrastructure is a mechanism configuration for public key cryptographic distribution, and public key cryptography is another name for asymmetric encryption.

Public key cryptography is asymmetric cryptography. The terms are used interchangeably. Public key cryptography is a concept within the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which consists of various parts such as Certificate Authorities, Registration Authorities, certificates, keys, programs, and users. Public Key Infrastructure is used to identify and create users, distribute and maintain certificates, revoke and distribute certificates, maintain encryption keys, and for the purpose of encrypted communication and authentication.

 

×:Public key infrastructure uses symmetric algorithms and public key cryptography uses asymmetric algorithms.

This is incorrect because the public key infrastructure uses a hybrid system of symmetric and asymmetric key algorithms and methods. Public key cryptography is to use asymmetric algorithms. Therefore, asymmetric and public key cryptography are interchangeable, meaning they are the same. Examples of asymmetric algorithms are RSA, elliptic curve cryptography (ECC), Diffie-Hellman, and El Gamal.

 

×:Public key infrastructure is used to perform key exchange, while public key cryptography is used to create public/private key pairs.

This is incorrect because public key cryptography is the use of asymmetric algorithms used to create public/private key pairs, perform key exchange, and generate and verify digital signatures.

 

×:Public key infrastructure provides confidentiality and integrity, while public key cryptography provides authentication and non-repudiation.

Incorrect because the public key infrastructure itself does not provide authentication, non-repudiation, confidentiality, or integrity.

#16. Robert is responsible for implementing a common architecture for accessing sensitive information over an Internet connection. Which of the following best describes this type of architecture?

〇:3-tier architecture

The 3-tier architecture clearly distinguishes the three layers: the client has the user interface responsible for input and displaying results, and the server has the functional process logic responsible for data processing and data storage for accessing the database. The user interface role is generally handled by the front-end web server with which the user interacts. It can handle both static and cached dynamic content. The functional process logic is where requests are reformatted and processed. It is typically a dynamic content processing and generation level application server. Data storage is where sensitive data is held. It is the back-end database and holds both the data and the database management system software used to manage and provide access to the data.

 

×:2-tier architecture

Two-tier, or client/server, is incorrect because it describes an architecture in which a server serves one or more clients that request those services.

 

×:Screened Subnets

A screen-subnet architecture is for one firewall to protect one server (basically a one-tier architecture). The external, public-side firewall monitors requests from untrusted networks like the Internet. If one layer, the only firewall, is compromised, an attacker can access sensitive data residing on the server with relative ease.

 

×:Public and Private DNS Zones

Separating DNS servers into public and private servers provides protection, but this is not the actual architecture.

#17. Which of the following would not be considered an attack motivated by gaining money?

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks usually do not provide financial gain to the attacker. Often, the motivation is revenge, disagreement with the organization’s policy decisions, or the attacker proving the extent of his or her animosity toward the organization. Certainly, it can be used to bloat the cost of a pay-as-you-go cloud service by causing it to consume more resources than expected by accessing it in large volumes, but it is a mistake in that it is not the financial objective of the parties involved.

#18. Which option incorrectly describes SOAP and remote procedure calls?

〇:SOAP allows Remote Procedure Calls to be used to exchange information between applications over the Internet.

To allow applications to exchange information over the Internet, the Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) was created to be used instead of Remote Procedure Call (RPC). SOAP is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web service setting. It allows programs running on different operating systems to communicate using Web-based communication methods.

 

×:SOAP is designed to overcome compatibility and security issues associated with remote procedure calls.

Attempting to allow communication between objects of different applications over the Internet is incorrect because SOAP was created to overcome the compatibility and security issues introduced by RPC. SOAP is designed to work with multiple operating system platforms, browsers, and servers.

 

×:SOAP and remote procedure calls were created to enable application layer communication.

This is incorrect because both SOAP and RPC were created to enable application layer communication. SOAP is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web service setting. Therefore, if a Windows client needs to access a Windows server that provides a particular web service, programs on both systems can communicate using SOAP without running into interoperability problems.

 

×:HTTP is not designed to work with remote procedure calls, but SOAP is designed to work with HTTP.

HTTP is not designed to work with RPC, but SOAP is designed to work with HTTP. SOAP actually defines the structure of the XML schema or communication mechanism. The SOAP XML schema defines how objects communicate directly with each other. One of the advantages of SOAP is that program calls most likely get through firewalls, since HTTP communication is generally allowed. This ensures that the client/server model is not broken by getting denied by firewalls during the communication entity.

#19. Which of the following is not an official risk methodology created for the purpose of analyzing security risks?

〇:AS / NZS 4360

AS / NZS 4360 can be used for security risk analysis, but it was not created for that purpose. It takes a much broader approach to risk management than other risk assessment methods, such as NIST or OCTAVE, which focus on IT threats and information security risks. AS / NZS 4360 can be used to understand a firm’s financial, capital, personnel safety, and business decision-making risks.

 

×:FAP

Incorrect as there is no formal FAP risk analysis methodology.

 

×:OCTAVE

Image B is incorrect because it focuses on IT threats and information security risks. OCTAVE is intended for use in situations that manage and direct information security risk assessments within an organization. Employees of an organization are empowered to determine the best way to assess security.

 

×:NIST SP 800-30

Wrong because it is specific to IT threats and how they relate to information threats. Focus is primarily on systems. Data is collected from network and security practices assessments and from people within the organization. Data is used as input values for the risk analysis steps outlined in the 800-30 document.

#20. What role does the Internet Architecture Committee play with respect to technology and ethics?

〇:To issue ethics-related statements on the use of the Internet.

The Internet Architecture Board (IAB) is the coordinating committee for the design, engineering, and management of the Internet. It is responsible for monitoring and appealing Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) activities, the Internet standards process, and the architecture of Request for Comments (RFC) editors. The IAB issues ethics-related statements on the use of the Internet. The Internet is a resource that depends on availability and accessibility and is considered useful to a wide range of people. Primarily, irresponsible behavior on the Internet may threaten its existence or adversely affect others.

 

×:Develop guidelines for criminal sentencing.

The IAB is incorrect because it has nothing to do with the Federal Court Guidelines, which are the rules judges use in determining the appropriate punitive sentence for certain felonies or misdemeanors committed by individuals or businesses. The Guidelines serve as the uniform sentencing policy for entities committing felonies and/or gross misdemeanors in the U.S. federal court system.

 

×:Edit RFC.

The Internet Architecture Board is responsible for editing RFCs (Request for Comments), which is incorrect because this task is not ethics-related. This answer is a distraction.

 

×:Maintain the Ten Commandments of Computer Ethics.

This is incorrect because the Institute for Computer Ethics, not the IAB, develops and maintains the Ten Commandments of Computer Ethics. The Institute for Computer Ethics is a non-profit organization that works to advance technology through ethical means.

#21. You are implementing Quality of Service (QoS) in your network; which is one of the main benefits of QoS?

#22. According to the Kerckhoffs’s principle, which of the following should not leak?

The Kerckhoffs’s principle is the idea that cryptography should be secure even if everything but the private key is known. When encrypting data, one decides on a private key and how to encrypt it using that private key. Kerckhoffs says that even if it is known how it is encrypted, it should not be deciphered as long as the secret key is not discovered. Encryption has been with the history of human warfare. The main purpose is to communicate a strategy to one’s allies without being discovered by the enemy. In battle, its designs and encryption devices may be stolen by spies. Therefore, the encryption must be such that it cannot be solved without the key, no matter how much is known about how it works.

#23. If you set a password with the string “password”, what kind of threats will you be the target of?

〇:Dictionary attack

There is a limit to the complexity that humans can remember. Consciously, we treat words and character strings we already know as passwords. To address such vulnerabilities, the act of cracking passwords by guessing passwords based on existing words or character strings is called a dictionary attack.

 

×:Typical Sentence attack

There is no such attack named as such yet.

 

×:Brute force attack

Brute force is an unauthorized login in which the user tries to guess a password at random.

 

×:Birthday attack

A birthday attack is an efficient method of unauthorized login by taking advantage of encryption collisions heightened by at least one overlapping probability theory.

#24. The U.S. National Security Agency (NSA) wanted to incorporate a clipper chip into every motherboard. Which encryption algorithm did this chip use?

The Clipper chip is a chipset developed by the National Security Agency (NSA) and implemented as an encryption device that protects “voice and data messages” as an embedded backdoor. It used SkipJack, a block cipher.

#25. Which of the following comes closest to defining a virtual machine?

〇:A virtual instance of an operating system
A virtual machine is a virtual instance of an operating system. A virtual machine, also called a guest, runs in a host environment. Multiple guests can run simultaneously in the host environment. Virtual machines pool resources such as RAM, processors, and storage from the host environment. This has many benefits, including increased processing efficiency. Other benefits include the ability to run legacy applications. For example, an organization may choose to run legacy applications on Windows 7 instances (virtual machines) after Windows 7 is rolled out.
×:Hardware running multiple operating system environments simultaneously.
This is incorrect because virtual machines are not hardware. A virtual machine is an instance of an operating system running on hardware. A host can run multiple virtual machines. That is, you can have essentially one computer running different operating systems simultaneously. With virtual machines, the workloads of several unused servers can be consolidated into one host, saving hardware and administrative management efforts.
×:Physical environment for multiple guests
Incorrect because the virtual machine serves and functions within a software emulation. The host provides resources such as memory, processors, buses, RAM, and storage for the virtual machines. Virtual machines share these resources, but do not have direct access to them. The host environment, which is responsible for managing system resources, acts as an intermediary between the resources and the virtual machines.
×:Environments with full access to legacy applications
Many legacy applications are incorrect because they are not compatible with certain hardware and newer operating systems. As a result, applications generally do not fully utilize server software and components. Virtual machines emulate an environment that allows legacy applications and other applications to fully utilize available resources. This is the reason for using virtual machines, but the benefits and definitions are different.

#26. Which of the following is a drawback of the symmetric key system?

〇:Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.

For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.

 

×:Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.

That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.

 

×:Much faster operation than asymmetric systems

Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.

 

×:Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed

Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.

#27. Which of the following is the most appropriate relationship between SSL and TLS?

〇:TLS is an open community version of SSL.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are cryptographic protocols used to protect communications by encrypting segments of a network connection. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol.

 

×:TLS is an open community version of SSL. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol. x: The SSL protocol can be modified by developers to extend its capabilities.

This is incorrect because SSL is a proprietary protocol developed by Netscape. This means that the technical community cannot easily interoperate and extend SSL to extend to its functionality.

 

×:SSL is an open community protocol while TLS is a proprietary protocol.

The meaning and matching are reversed.

 

×:SSL is an extended version and backward compatible with TLS.

Wrong, since TLS is actually more extensible than SSL and is not backward compatible with SSL.

#28. Which of the following are effective measures against rainbow tables?

〇:Salt

A rainbow table is a pre-built list of ciphertexts that match plaintext and have hashes that match passwords. The table can contain millions of pairs. Salting is random data used as additional input to a one-way function that “hashes” a password or passphrase. The primary function of a salting is to protect against dictionary or compiled rainbow table attacks.

 

×:Login Attempt Restrictions

Effective against all unauthorized login methods, but not a direct or effective countermeasure against rainbow tables.

 

×:Key stretching

Replacing passwords with longer, random strings for encryption purposes.

 

×:Hashing

Password hashing is a fixed-length cipher (hash) statement for secure password storage.

#29. What will be performed in regression testing as part of software testing?

〇:Check for errors caused by principal code modifications.

Regression testing finds defects after code changes have occurred. It looks for reduced or lost functionality, including old bugs. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Check for errors due to changes in the main code.” will be.

 

×:Install the developed software on the customer’s hardware.

This is not a test, but part of the release.

 

×:Checking the detection and processing when faced with a failure.

This is so-called troubleshooting and is accomplished by handing over the operational plan and procedures to the operations team.

 

×:Checking the interfaces of software components.

This is testing against the interface and is performed as part of the test items for internal and external coupling tests.

#30. Would it make sense to measure marketing metrics from a security perspective?

〇:Yes. The same goal should be held because there is security in achieving corporate goals.

There are KPIs and other marketin indicators to achieve organizational goals. Developing a security function in the organization also exists to achieve these goals.

 

×:Yes. Marketing in the security industry is allowed to be risk-off.

By “marketing in the security industry,” I do not mean aligning the security function within the organization.

 

×:No. The division of labor should be strictly enforced and left to specialists.

While the division of labor in an organization is certainly important, all members of the organization need to be security conscious.

 

×:No. Security has nothing to do with confidential information that would be an executive decision.

Security should be addressed by the entire organization. It is not irrelevant.

#31. Follow the guidelines to enable secure remote management. Which of the following is NOT one of those guidelines?

〇:Telnet must be used to send commands and data.

Telnet sends all data, including administrator credentials, in plain text and should not be allowed for remote administration. This type of communication should be via a more secure protocol, such as SSH.

 

×:Only a small number of administrators should be allowed to perform remote functions.

Wrong, as it is true that only a few administrators should be able to perform remote functions. This minimizes the risk to the network.

 

×:Critical systems should be managed locally, not remotely.

Wrong because it is true that critical systems need to be managed locally, not remotely. It is safer to send management commands on an internal private network than over a public network.

 

×:Strong authentication is required.

Wrong because it is true that strong authentication is required for any management activity. Anything weaker than strong authentication, such as a password, is easy for an attacker to break in and gain administrative access.

#32. Formac is considering a design that requires users to authenticate properly when developing mobile apps. which of the following is not two-factor authentication and does not provide enhanced security?

〇:Password authentication and secret questions

Passwords are a memory-based authentication method. The secret question is also a memory-based authentication method, and is not a combination of two-factor authentication methods. Therefore, the correct answer is “password authentication and secret question.

 

×:Password authentication and fingerprint authentication

It is memory authentication information x body authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

 

×:Password authentication and one-time password authentication using a token machine.

This is memory authentication information x possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

 

×:Password authentication and IC card authentication

This is memory authentication information × possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

#33. Which of the following attacks aims to bring down equipment by means of packets whose offsets have been tampered with?

〇:Teardrop

Teardrop is an attack to bring a system to a halt by forging the offset of IP packets when they are returned before splitting.

 

×:Fraggle attack

Fraggle attack is an attack that uses the CHARGEN function to generate an appropriate string.

 

×:CHARGEN attack

There is no attack with such a name.

 

×:War Driving

Wardriving is the act of driving around a city looking for vulnerable wireless LAN access points.

#34. Which international organizations are in place to help address the economic, social, and governance challenges of a globalized economy?

〇:Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

Almost every country has its own set of rules regarding what constitutes private data and how it should be protected. With the advent of the digital and information age, these different laws have begun to adversely affect business and international trade. Thus, the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) created guidelines for different countries to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone follows the same rules.

 

×:COSO

An organization that studies fraudulent financial reporting and which elements lead to them is fraudulent because the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) was established in 1985. The acronym COSO refers to a model of corporate governance that addresses IT at the strategic level, corporate culture, and financial accounting principles.

 

×:COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology)

Incorrect, as this framework defines control objectives to ensure that IT is properly managed and that IT is responsive to business needs. It is an international open standard that provides control and security requirements for sensitive data and reference frameworks.

 

×:International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

Incorrect because it is an international standards organization composed of representatives of national standards bodies. Its purpose is to establish global standardization. But its standardization goes beyond the privacy of data moving across international borders. For example, some standards address quality control; others address assurance and security.

#35. Which of the following markup languages is used to allow sharing of application security policies and ensure that all applications follow the same security rules?

〇:XACML

XACML allows two or more companies to have a trust model set up to share identity, authentication, and authorization methods. This means that when you authenticate against your own software, you can pass the authentication parameters to your partner. This allows them to interact with their partner’s software without having to authenticate more than once. This is done via XACML (Extensible Access Control Markup Language), which allows multiple organizations to share application security policies based on a trust model XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML. It declares access control policies and describes how to interpret access control policies.

 

×:XML (Extensible Markup Language)

XML (Extensible Markup Language) is incorrect because it is a way to electronically code documents and represent data structures such as web services. XML is not used to share security information. XML is an open standard that is more robust than traditional HTML. In addition to serving as a markup language, XML also serves as the foundation for other industry-specific XML standards. With XML, companies can communicate with each other while using a markup language that meets their specific needs.

 

×:SPML

Service Provisioning Markup Language (SPML) is incorrect because it is used by companies to exchange user, resource, and service provisioning information rather than application security information. SPML is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS that allows enterprise platforms, such as web portals and application servers, to provision requests to multiple companies for the purpose of securely and quickly setting up web services and applications. It is intended to enable the generation of.

 

×:GML

Incorrect because GML (Generalized Markup Language) is a method created by IBM for document formatting. It describes a document in terms of parts (chapters, paragraphs, lists, etc.) and their relationships (heading levels). GML was the predecessor of SGML (Standard Generalized Markup Language) and HTML (Hypertext Markup Language).

#36. Which microprocessor technology has also been linked to facilitating certain attacks?

〇:Increased Processing Power

The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.

 

×:Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming

This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.

 

×:Dual-mode computation

The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.

 

×:Direct Memory Access I/O

Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.

#37. Which of the following adequately describes parallel testing in disaster recovery testing?

〇:Ensure that some systems are executed at the alternate site.

Parallel testing compares how some systems run at the alternate site and how the results are processed at the primary site. This is to assure that systems run at the alternate site and does not affect service productivity.

 

×:All departments will be sent a copy of the disaster recovery plan for completeness.

This alternative is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

 

×:Representatives from each department meet to validate the plan.

This option is incorrect because it describes a structured walk-through test.

 

×:The normal operation system is taken down.

This option is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

#38. Brian has been asked to create a virtual directory for the company’s new identity management system. Which of the following best describes the virtual directory?

〇:Virtual Container for Data from Multiple Sources
Network directories are containers for users and network resources. Because one directory does not contain all the users and resources in an enterprise, a collection of directories must be used. A virtual directory collects the necessary information used from sources scattered throughout the network and stores it in a central virtual directory (virtual container). This provides a unified view of digital identity information for all users across the enterprise. The virtual directory is regularly synchronized with all identity stores (individual network directories) to ensure that up-to-date information is being used by all applications and identity management components in the enterprise.

 

×:Metadirectory

Virtual directories are similar to metadirectories, but incorrect because metadirectories work with one directory and virtual directories work with multiple data sources. When the Identity Management component calls the virtual directory, it can scan different directories across the enterprise, but the metadirectory only has the ability to scan one directory it is associated with.

 

×:User attribute information stored in the HR database

Incorrect because it describes an identity store. Much of the information stored in identity management directories is scattered throughout the enterprise. User attribute information (employee status, job description, department, etc.) is typically stored in the HR database. Authentication information can be stored in a Kerberos server, and resource-oriented authentication information can be stored in the domain controller’s Active Directory. These are commonly referred to as identity stores and are located elsewhere on the network. Many identity management products use virtual directories to call up the data in these identity stores.

 

×:Services that allow administrators to configure and manage the way identities are

This is incorrect because it describes a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage how identification, authentication, permissions, and access control are performed within a network. It uses namespaces to manage objects in the directory and enforces security policies configured by performing access control and identity management functions.

#39. Which DNS extension provides authentication of the origin of DNS data to DNS clients (resolvers) that can reduce DNS poisoning, spoofing, and other attacks?

〇:DNSSEC

DNSSEC is a set of extensions to the DNS that provide DNS clients (resolvers) with authentication of the origin of DNS data to reduce the threat of DNS poisoning, spoofing, and similar attack types. It is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) specification for securing services.

 

×:Resource Record

DNS servers contain records that map hostnames to IP addresses, called resource records. The answer is incorrect. When a user’s computer needs to resolve a hostname to an IP address, it looks in its network configuration to find its DNS server. The computer then sends a request containing the hostname to the DNS server for resolution; the DNS server looks at its resource records, finds a record with this particular hostname, retrieves the address, and responds to the computer with the corresponding IP address.

 

×:Zone Transfer

Primary and secondary DNS servers synchronize their information via zone transfers. The answer is incorrect. After changes are made to the primary DNS server, these changes must be replicated to the secondary DNS server. It is important to configure the DNS servers so that zone transfers can take place between specific servers.

 

×:Resource Transfer

Equivalent to transferring DNS resource records, but the answer is incorrect.

#40. Which method is most appropriate when making a final decision on whether or not a particular security control measure should be implemented?

〇:Cost-benefit analysis

To require that controls be put in place to reduce risk within acceptable limits, measures need to be selected that are identified as realistic, sufficiently likely, and sufficiently impactful. Simply analyzing the costs and benefits of possible measures will help determine what measures should be taken.

 

×:Risk Analysis

This is incorrect because risk determination is only the first step in identifying what may be needed to control risk within acceptable thresholds.

 

×:ALE Consequences

Wrong because ALE informs the firm of what it could lose if a particular threat becomes real. The value of the ALE goes into the cost-benefit analysis, but the ALE does not address the costs of the countermeasure and the benefits of the countermeasure.

 

×:Identifying vulnerabilities and threats that pose a risk

This is incorrect because although the vulnerability and threat assessments make the need for countermeasures known, the assessments alone do not determine what the cost-effectiveness of the competing countermeasures is expected to be.

#41. Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating the expected annual loss (ALE)?

The expected annual loss amount is the value of losses that could occur in the future, equalized on an annual basis based on the frequency of occurrence. Therefore, it is the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the annual frequency of occurrence (ALO).

#42. Symmetric ciphers include stream ciphers and block ciphers. Which of the following is not a suitable characteristic of stream ciphers?

〇:Statistically predictable

The two main types of symmetric algorithms are block ciphers and stream ciphers. Block ciphers perform a mathematical function on a block of bits at a time. Stream ciphers do not divide the message into blocks. Instead, a stream cipher treats the message as a stream of bits and performs the mathematical function on each bit individually. If it were statistically predictable, it would not be a practical encryption technique in the first place.

 

×:Statistically Fair Keystreams

Statistically fair keystreams are an element of good stream ciphers. Therefore, it is incorrect. Another way to say a statistically unbiased keystream is that it is a highly random keystream that is difficult to predict.

 

×:The repetitive pattern of bit strings treated in a keystream is long.

Another way to say the randomness of a keystream is that it is highly random, with long repetitions = rarely repeated = highly random.

 

×:The keystream is irrelevant to the key.

A keystream that is not related to a key is an element of a good stream cipher. Therefore, it is incorrect. This is important because the key provides the randomness of the encryption process.

#43. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate reason to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan?

〇:To create an overview of business functions and systems

Outlining business functions and systems is not a reason to create and execute a disaster recovery plan. While these tasks are likely to be accomplished as a result of the disaster recovery plan, they are not a valid reason to implement the plan compared to other answers to the question. Usually occurring during the planning process, simply outlining business functions and systems is not enough to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan.

 

×:To create post-disaster recovery procedures

It is not correct to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan because providing post-disaster recovery procedures is a good reason to do so. In fact, this is exactly what a disaster recovery plan provides. The goal of disaster recovery is to take the necessary steps to minimize the impact of a disaster and ensure that resources, personnel, and business processes can resume operations in a timely manner. The goal of a disaster recovery plan is to handle the disaster and its consequences in the immediate aftermath.

 

×:To back up data and create backup operating procedures

Inappropriate, because not only backing up data but also extending backup operations is a good way to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan. When considering a disaster recovery plan, some companies focus primarily on backing up data and providing redundant hardware. While these items are very important, they are only a small part of a company’s overall operations. Hardware and computers need people to configure and operate them, and data is usually not useful unless it can be accessed by other systems or outside entities. All of these may require backups as well as data.

 

×:To establish emergency response procedures

This is incorrect because there are good reasons to establish and implement a disaster recovery plan, and providing emergency response procedures is a valid reason. Disaster recovery plans are implemented when everything is in emergency mode and everyone is scrambling to get all critical systems back online. Carefully written procedures will make this entire process much more effective.

Translated with www.DeepL.com/Translator (free version)

#44. Which formulas are used in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) assessment?

#45. Sally is responsible for managing the keys in her organization. Which of the following is incorrect as secure key management?

〇:The expiration date should be set short.

Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.

 

×:Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.

This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.

 

×:Keys must not be made public.

Of course. It is a key.

 

×:Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.

Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.

#46. Which functional table was the table based primarily on?

〇:Subject

The functionality table identifies the access rights that a particular subject owns with respect to a particular object. Each subject is mapped for a function (capability) such as read or write perform. Therefore, the subject is the one that seems to fit in the choices.

 

×:Objects

Incorrect because the Object is bound to an Access Control List (ACL), not a functional component.

 

×:Product

Product is incorrect because it is just an example to implement a subject, object, or feature table.

 

×:Application

Application is incorrect because it is just a concrete example of an object.

#47. Which is the appropriate period of time to use maintenance hooks?

〇:Only during code development.

Maintenance hoc refers to functions and tools that are temporarily used by the developer for testing purposes. In fact, in system development, tools are provided to assist in confirming that individual functions are working properly. However, if maintenance hocks are left in the production environment, they may be used by attackers and must be removed.

 

×:Maintenance hooks should not be used.

The use of maintenance hooks can make the work more efficient.

 

×:When you want to make the software available to administrators in a simplified manner.

In some cases, attackers can exploit tools that were supposed to be available only to administrators.

 

×:When you want users to be able to use the software in a simplified manner.

After the actual release of the software, maintenance hooks are not made available to users.

#48. Which of the following is NOT a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?

There are many different types of distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks; there is no IPSec flood; UDP flood, SYN flood, and MAC flood are all distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

#49. Elliptic curve cryptography is an asymmetric algorithm. What are its advantages over other asymmetric algorithms?

〇:Encryption and decryption are more efficient.

Elliptic curves are rich mathematical structures that have shown usefulness in many different types of applications. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) differs from other asymmetric algorithms because of its efficiency; ECC is efficient because it is computationally less expensive than other asymmetric algorithms. In most cases, the longer the key, the more bloated the computation to secure it, but ECC can provide the same level of protection with a shorter key size than RSA requires.

 

×:Provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption.

ECC is wrong because it is not the only asymmetric algorithm that provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption provided by other asymmetric algorithms such as RSA.

 

×:Calculated in finite discrete logarithms.

Wrong because Diffie-Hellman and El-Gamal compute with finite discrete logarithms.

 

×:Uses a large percentage of resources to perform the encryption.

Incorrect because ECC when compared to other asymmetric algorithms uses much less resources. Some devices, such as wireless devices and cell phones, have limited processing power, storage, power, and bandwidth. Resource utilization efficiency is very important for the encryption methods used in this type.

#50. Which is a common data classification in the military?

Within the U.S. military complex and national security apparatus, the most common names for data classification become unclassified and classified. “Classified” information includes classified, critical secret, and top secret (Top Secret). Classified data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could harm national security. Top Secret data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could cause “serious” harm to national security. Finally, Top Secret data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could cause “serious” harm to national security.

#51. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the Disaster Recovery Planning life cycle?

Disaster Recovery Planning includes the Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery life cycles.

  • Mitigation: Reduces the impact and likelihood of a disaster.
  • Prepare: Create programs, procedures, and tools for response.
  • Response: follow procedures and how to respond to a disaster.
  • Recovery: re-establish basic functionality and return to a full production environment.

#52. Which of the following is NOT an effective countermeasure against spam mail?

〇:Make the mail relay server available to everyone.

This is a question of choosing the “ineffective” one. An open mail relay server is not an effective countermeasure against spam. In fact, spammers often use spammers to distribute spam, because the attackers can hide their identities. An open mail relay server is an SMTP server configured to allow inbound SMTP connections from anyone on the Internet, and many relays are properly configured to prevent attackers from distributing spam and pornography. Thus, the correct answer is “have an email relay server available to everyone.” will be.

 

×:Build a properly configured mail relay server.

A properly configured mail relay server can also suppress spam mail.

 

×:Perform filtering at the e-mail gateway.

Filtering emails that are considered spam mail at the gateway will help to prevent spam mail.

 

×:Filtering at the client.

Filtering spam mail at the client, i.e., in a mailing application such as Outlook, is considered to be a countermeasure against spam mail.

#53. Robert is asked to increase the overall efficiency of the sales database by implementing procedures to structure the data to minimize duplication and inconsistencies. What procedure is that?

〇:Normalization

Normalization is the process of efficiently organizing data by eliminating redundancy, reducing the potential for anomalies during data manipulation, and improving data consistency within a database. It is a systematic method of ensuring that database structures are correctly designed so that undesirable characteristics (insert, update, and delete anomalies) do not occur and data integrity is lost.

 

×:Polymorphism

Polymorphism is incorrect because different objects are given the same input and react differently.

 

×:Database View Implementation

A database view is a logical access control, implemented so that one group or specific user can see certain information and another group is restricted from seeing it completely, which is incorrect. For example, a database view could be implemented so that middle management can see the profits and expenses of a department without seeing the profits of the entire enterprise. Database views do not minimize duplicate data. Rather, it manipulates how the data is displayed by a particular user/group.

 

×:Schema Construction

Schemas in database systems are incorrect because they are structures described in a formal language. In a relational database, a schema defines tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, procedures, queues, database links, directories, etc. A schema describes the database and its structure, but not the data that exists in the database itself.

#54. Is it an identity management technology that can be used across business boundaries?

〇:Federation Identity

A federation identity is a portable identity and associated credentials that can be used across business boundaries. It allows users to authenticate across multiple IT systems and across the enterprise. Federation Identity is based on linking otherwise distinct identities of users in two or more locations without the need to synchronize or consolidate directory information. Federated Identity is an important component of e-commerce, providing businesses and consumers with a more convenient way to access distributed resources.

 

×:User Provisioning

User provisioning is incorrect because it refers to the creation, maintenance, and deactivation of user objects and attributes.

 

×:Directory

While most companies have some type of directory that contains information about company network resources and users, generally these directories are not utilized as spread across different companies. It is true that nowadays, with open APIs and cloud computing, there is a trend to deploy services through a single directory, but the directory service itself does not include resource sharing implications. In other words, it is just used as a shared service.

 

×:Web Access Management

Web Access Management (WAM) software is incorrect because it controls what users can access when using a Web browser to interact with Web-based corporate assets.

#55. In computer programming, coupling and condensing degrees are used. Which of the following is the preferred combination of coupling and condensing degree?

It is a good thing for a module to have low coupling and high condensibility. The higher the degree of condensation, the easier it is to update and modify, and it does not affect other modules with which it interacts. This also means that modules are easier to reuse and maintain. Coupling degree is a measure of the amount of interaction a single module requires to perform its task. If a module’s coupling is low, it means that the module does not need to communicate with many other modules to perform its job. It is easier to understand and reuse than a module that depends on many other modules to perform its tasks. It will also be easier to modify modules without affecting the many modules around them. Therefore, the correct answer is “low-coupling, high-cohesion”.

#56. Which of the following is true about digital forensics?

〇:It encompasses network and code analysis and is sometimes referred to as electronic data discovery.

Forensics is the analysis of electronic data that may have been affected by technology, authentication, and criminal activity requiring special techniques to ensure the preservation of information. It comes together of computer science, information technology and engineering in the legal system. When discussing digital forensics with others, it may be described as computer forensics, network forensics, electronic data discovery, cyber forensics, etc.

 

×:The study of computer technology.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it involves information technology rather than research. It encompasses the study of information technology, but also includes collecting and protecting evidence and working within specific legal systems.

 

×:A set of hardware-specific processes that must be followed in order for evidence to be admissible in court.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it does not refer to hardware or software. It is a set of specific processes related to computer usage, examination of residual data, technical analysis and description of technical characteristics of the data, and reconstruction of the authentication of data by computer usage that must be followed for the evidence to be admissible in court.

 

×:Before an incident occurs, digital forensics roles and responsibilities should be assigned to network administrators.

This is wrong because digital forensics must be done by people with the proper training and skill set who could not possibly be administrators or network administrators. Digital forensics can be fragile and must have been worked on properly. If someone reboots an attacked system or inspects various files, it could corrupt and change executable evidence, key file timestamps, and erase any footprints the criminal may have left behind.

#57. Which of the following is a centralized access control protocol?

〇:Diameter

Diameter is an authentication, authorization, and audit (AAA) protocol that not only provides the same kind of functionality as RADIUS and TACACS, but also offers more flexibility and capabilities to meet the emerging demands of today’s complex and diverse networks. Once all remote communication is done via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) connections, users can authenticate themselves via Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) to authenticated. The technology has become much more complex and there are multiple devices and protocols to choose from over the ever increasing Diameter protocol, Mobile IP, PPP, Voice over IP (VoIP), and other over Ethernet, wireless devices, smart phones, and other devices can authenticate themselves to the network using roaming protocols.

 

×:Watchdog

Watchdog timers are wrong because such processes are generally used to detect software failures such as abnormal termination or hangs. The watchdog function sends out “heartbeat” packets to determine if the service is responding. If not, the process can be terminated or reset. These packets help prevent software deadlocks, infinite loops, and process prioritization problems. This feature can be used in the AAA protocol to determine if a packet needs to be retransmitted and if a problem occurs and the connection should be closed and reopened, but it is not in the access control protocol itself.

 

×:RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is wrong because it is a network protocol and provides client/server authentication, authorization, and auditing for remote users.

 

×:TACACS

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS ) is incorrect because it provides essentially the same functionality as RADIUS.

#58. Several steps must be taken before an effective physical security program can be rolled out. Which of the following steps comes first in the process of rolling out a security program?

〇:Conduct a risk analysis.

The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.

 

×:Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.  

The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.

 

×:Design program.  

Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.

 

×:Implement countermeasures.  

Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.

#59. You have been instructed to report to the Board of Directors with a vendor-neutral enterprise architecture framework that will help reduce fragmentation due to inconsistencies between IT and business processes. Which of the following frameworks should you propose?

〇:TOGAF

The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) is a vendor-independent platform for the development and implementation of enterprise architecture. It focuses on the effective management of enterprise data using metamodels and service-oriented architectures (SOA). Proficient implementations of TOGAF aim to reduce fragmentation caused by inconsistencies between traditional IT systems and actual business processes. It also coordinates new changes and functionality so that new changes can be easily integrated into the enterprise platform.

 

×:Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DoDAF)

In accordance with the guidelines for the organization of the enterprise architecture of the U.S. Department of Defense systems, this is incorrect. It is also suitable for large, complex integrated systems in the military, civilian, and public sectors.

 

×:Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) during software development.

It is inappropriate because it is a framework for the purpose of designing and further improving software. CMMI provides a standard for software development processes that can measure the maturity of the development process.

 

×:ISO/IEC 42010

Incorrect because it consists of recommended practices to simplify the design and conception of software-intensive system architectures. This standard provides a kind of language (terminology) to describe the different components of software architecture and how to integrate it into the development life cycle.

#60. Which of the following incorrectly describes a directory service?

〇:Conforms to the X.509 standard and assigns a namespace to each object accessed in the database by LDAP.

Most companies have directories that contain information about company network resources and users. Most directories use a hierarchical database format based on the X.500 standard (not X.509) and a type of protocol such as LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) that allows subjects and applications to interact with the directory The application can then use LDAP to access the directory. Applications can request information about a particular user by making an LDAP request to the directory, and users can request information about a particular resource using a similar request. The directory service assigns an Distinguished Name (DN) to each object in the database based on the X.500 standard to be accessed. Each distinguished name represents a set of attributes about a particular object and is stored as an entry in the directory.

 

×:Namespaces are used to manage objects in the directory.

This is incorrect because objects in a hierarchical database are managed by a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage identification, authentication, permissions, and access control for the network. Objects in the directory are labeled and identified by namespace, which is how the directory service keeps objects organized.

 

×:Enforce security policies by performing access control and identity management functions.

This is incorrect because directory services enforce the security policy set by performing access control and identity management functions. For example, when a user logs into a domain controller in a Windows environment, the directory service (Active Directory) determines which network resources are accessible and which are not.

 

×:Administrators can configure and manage how identification takes place within the network.

Directory service is incorrect because it allows the administrator to configure and manage identification within the network. It also allows for the configuration and management of authentication, authorization, and access control.

#61. Which RAID configuration always provides redundancy?

Disk mirroring means writing the same data to multiple hard disks; a RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) controller must write all data twice, requiring at least two disks. Disk striping can also be provided when parity is used, but disk striping alone cannot provide redundancy.

#62. Michael is to develop a data classification program. Which of the following is an appropriate first step?

There is an unfamiliar term: data classification program. This is not a dictionary definition of the term. You want to classify data, what do you do to do that? What is the first step in this process? Since you are being asked about the “first step” in doing this, you can answer by listing the options in order and choosing the first option. Do not search the dictionary in your mind for the word “data classification,” think of the process flow of data classification, and recall the name of the first process.

In order, you might go from understanding the level of protection you need to provide, to specifying the data classification criteria, to determining the protection mechanisms for each classification level, to identifying the data controller. Whatever you do, the first step should be research. Then the problem is defined and the best answer is derived, which is the general solution to the problem.

#63. We are looking to move to a cloud-based solution to eliminate the increasing cost of maintaining our own server network environment. Which of the following is the correct definition and mapping of a typical cloud-based solution to choose?

〇:The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.

Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.

There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer

 

×:The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.

IaaS Description.

 

×:The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.

This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.

 

×:The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.

SaaS Description.

#64. Brad wants to ban the use of instant messaging (IM) on corporate networks. Which of the following should NOT be included in his presentation?

〇:The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

 

×:Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

 

×:Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

 

×:A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

#65. Emily observes network traffic and retrieves passwords from them that are sent to the authentication server. She plans to use the passwords as part of a future attack. What type of attack is this?

〇:Replay attacks

Replay attacks occur when an intruder stores the acquired information and uses it to gain unauthorized access later. In this case, Emily uses a technique called electronic monitoring (sniffing) to retrieve passwords sent over the wire to an authentication server. She can later use the password to access network resources. Even if the password is encrypted, resending valid credentials can be enough to gain access.

 

×:Brute force attacks

Brute force attacks are incorrect because the cycle is done through many possible combinations of letters, numbers, and symbols, using tools to discover the password.

 

×:Dictionary attacks

Dictionary attacks are incorrect because they involve an automatic comparison of a user’s password to a file of thousands of words.

 

×:Social Engineering attack

A social engineering attack is incorrect because in a social engineering attack, the attacker mistakenly convinces an individual that she has the necessary permissions to access certain resources.

#66. Which of the following is a vulnerability in onion routing?

Onion routing is characterized by multiple layers of encryption because encryption is applied each time it passes through a router. However, there is no security feature at the final router because all encryption is decrypted at the final point of the router and becomes plaintext.

#67. What type of disaster is an earthquake classified as?

Disasters are classified by cause into natural, human, and environmental categories. Natural disasters are natural, human errors are human, and facilities and equipment are environmental.

#68. Which of the following is the best way to reduce brute force attacks that allow intruders to reveal user passwords?

〇:Lock out the account for a certain period of time after reaching the clipping level.

Brute force attack is an attack that continuously tries different inputs to achieve a predefined goal that can then be used to qualify for unauthorized access. A brute force attack to discover the password means that the intruder is trying all possible sequences of characters to reveal the correct password. This proves to be a good countermeasure if the account will be disabled (or locked out) after this type of attack attempt is made.

 

×:Increase the clipping level.

Clipping levels are wrong because they need to be implemented to establish a baseline of user activity and acceptable error. Entities attempting to log into an account after the clipping level is met should be locked out. A high clipping level gives the attacker more attempts during a warning or lockout. Lowering the clipping level is a good countermeasure.

 

×:After the threshold for failed login attempts is met, the administrator should physically lock out the account.

This is incorrect because it is impractical to have an administrator physically lock out an account. This type of activity can easily be taken care of through automated software mechanisms. Accounts should be automatically locked out for a certain amount of time after a threshold of failed login attempts is met.

 

×:Encrypt password files and choose a weaker algorithm.

Encrypting passwords and/or password files and using a weaker algorithm is incorrect as it increases the likelihood of a successful brute force attack.

#69. Which of the following is true about the key derivation function (KDF)?

〇:Keys are generated from a master key.

To generate a composite key, a master key is created and a symmetric key (subkey) is generated. The key derivation function generates the encryption key from the secret value. The secret value can be a master key, passphrase, or password. The key derivation function (KDF) generates a key for symmetric key ciphers from a given password.

 

×:Session keys are generated from each other.

Session keys are generated from each other, not from the master key, which is incorrect.

 

×:Asymmetric ciphers are used to encrypt symmetric keys.

It is incorrect because key encryption is not even related to the key derivation function (KDF).

 

×:The master key is generated from the session key.

Reverse, incorrect. Session keys are generally generated from master keys.

#70. A student is concerned about his future and wants to attack a political institution. What is this middle school student classified as an attacker?

〇:Hacktivist
A person who commits cracking acts for political purposes is called a hacktivist. Therefore, the correct answer is “hacktivist.
×: Hacker
A hacker is a person who is computer savvy.
×: Script kiddie
A script kiddie is a person who is not familiar with IT but uses tools to conduct cyber attacks. The phrase “junior high school student” is used, but this alone does not rule out a script kiddie.
×:Silent majority
The silent majority is the general public that does not actively engage in speech acts.

#71. Software-defined network (SDN) technology specifies which of the following?

〇:How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

 

×:Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

 

×:Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

 

×:A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

#72. Which of the following is a correct action-directed defense?

〇:Regular training to change employee attitudes

Behavior-directed controls are intended to direct the behavior required of employees as part of organizational management. Regular training that changes employee awareness falls under the action-directed type. Therefore, the correct answer is “Regular training to change employee attitudes”.

 

×:Remotely directed defenses using drone audits

This falls under reinforcing (compensating) defensive measures.

 

×:Defensive measures to be behavioral psychological barriers due to physical barriers

This is a physical (physically) defensive measure.

 

×:Developing recurrence prevention measures to review certain actions

This is a corrective measure.

#73. Lacy’s manager assigned her to research intrusion detection systems for the new dispatching center. Lacey identifies the top five products and compares their ratings. Which of the following is the most used evaluation criteria framework today for this purpose?

〇:Common Criteria

Common Criteria was created in the early 1990s as a way to combine the strengths of both the Trustworthy Computer Systems Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) and eliminate their weaknesses. Common Criteria is more flexible than TCSEC and easier than ITSEC. Common Criteria is recognized worldwide and assists consumers by reducing the complexity of assessments and eliminating the need to understand the definitions and meanings of different assessments in different assessment schemes. This also helps manufacturers because they can now build a specific set of requirements when they want to market their products internationally, rather than having to meet several different evaluation criteria under different rules and requirements.

 

×:ITSEC

This is incorrect because it is not the most widely used information technology security evaluation standard. ITSEC was the first attempt to establish a single standard for evaluating the security attributes of computer systems and products in many European countries. In addition, ITSEC separates functionality and assurance in its evaluations, giving each a separate rating. It was developed to provide greater flexibility than TCSEC and addresses integrity, availability, and confidentiality in networked systems. The goal of ITSEC was to become the global standard for product evaluation, but it failed to achieve that goal and was replaced by Common Criteria.

 

×:Red Book

Wrong, as it is a U.S. government publication that addresses the topic of security evaluation of networks and network components. Formally titled Trusted Network Interpretation, it provides a framework for protecting different types of networks. Subjects accessing objects on the network must be controlled, monitored, and audited.

 

×:Orange Book

Incorrect as this is a U.S. Government publication that addresses government and military requirements and expectations for operating systems. The Orange Book is used to evaluate whether a product is suitable for the security characteristics and specific applications or functions required by the vendor. The Orange Book is used to review the functionality, effectiveness, and assurance of the product under evaluation, using classes designed to address typical patterns of security requirements. It provides a broad framework for building and evaluating trusted systems, with an emphasis on controlling which users have access to the system. We call it the Orange Book, but another name for it is Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC).

#74. Jeff would like to incorporate encryption technology into the new product. He is considering encryption methods available on the Internet. What advice should we give him?

Cryptographic algorithms refer to the calculations to be encrypted, and even if the cryptographic algorithms were publicly available, it would take an enormous amount of effort to decipher them. cryptographic algorithms that provide modern cryptography, such as AES, are publicly available. On the other hand, in-house development is not recommended because, although it has the security of concealment, it requires a great deal of resources to be allocated.

#75. Which is the most correct use of a captive portal?

A captive portal is a mechanism that restricts communication with the outside world until user authentication, user registration, and user consent are performed when a terminal connects to the network.

#76. A company is looking to migrate to an original or new site. Which phase of business continuity planning do you proceed with?

〇:Reconfiguration Phase

When a firm returns to its original or new site, the firm is ready to enter the reconfiguration phase. The firm has not entered the emergency state until it is operating at the original primary site or until it returns to the new site that was built to replace the primary site. If a firm needs to return from the replacement site to the original site, a number of logistical issues must be considered. Some of these issues include ensuring employee safety, proper communication and connection methods are working, and properly testing the new environment.

The definition of a rebuilding phase needs to be imagined and answered in the question text. It will test your language skills to see how it reads semantically rather than lexically correct.

 

×:Recovery Phase

Incorrect because it involves preparing an off-site facility (if needed), rebuilding networks and systems, and organizing staff to move to the new facility. To get the company up and running as quickly as possible, the recovery process needs to be as structured as possible. Templates should be developed during the planning phase. It can be used by each team during the recovery phase to take the necessary steps and document the results. The template keeps the team on task and quickly communicates to the team leader about progress, obstacles, and potential recovery time.

 

×:Project Initiation Phase

This is incorrect because it is how the actual business continuity plan is initiated. It does not occur during the execution of the plan. The Project Initiation Phase includes obtaining administrative support, developing the scope of the plan, and securing funding and resources.

 

×:Damage Assessment Phase

Incorrect because it occurs at the start of the actual implementation of the business continuity procedures. The damage assessment helps determine if the business continuity plan should be implemented based on the activation criteria predefined by the BCP coordinator and team. After the damage assessment, the team will move into recovery mode if one or more of the situations listed in the criteria occur.

#77. Which of the following must be done before a penetration test is performed?

〇:Approval of the attack to the target organization

Permission must be obtained from the target organization for the attack during the planning phase. Even though it is a test, it takes an action that is similar to an attack. During the implementation, the target system cannot be updated, so approval must be obtained. We also need to understand the system to be penetrated in great detail, so that the information itself is not leaked to the outside world. Also, a successful intrusion will indicate that the system has been compromised. It is necessary to make an arrangement such as not waiting until a report is generated to inform the company of the situation. Therefore, the correct answer is “Approval of attack on the target organization.

 

×:Share the target organization’s design documents.

This is done as necessary. Although there are various design documents, detailed design documents such as detailed design documents and program design documents are generally not presented, but only the usage of the service and basic server configuration are generally shared.

 

×:Confirmation of OS version

As a rule, this is not done. Penetration testing is generally conducted from the investigation of the attack. In particular, there are few cases where the OS version is informed to the penetration tester.

 

×:Deployment of the attack tools to be used

It is not uncommon for attack tools to be deployed from the organization that possesses the system that is the target of the penetration. This in itself is an act of limiting the attack methods, as it does not constitute a realistic test.

#78. What are the advantages of depositing cryptographic keys with another organization?

A key escrow system is one in which a third-party organization holds a copy of the public/private key pair. If the private key is stolen, all ciphers can be decrypted. Conversely, if it is lost, all ciphers cannot be decrypted. Therefore, you want to have a copy. However, if you have it yourself, it may be stolen if a break-in occurs, so you leave it with a third-party organization.

#79. When attackers set up war dialing, what do they try to do?

War Dialing is the indiscriminate and repeated act of cracking dial-ups in search of dial-up lines, such as those for non-public internal networks. It automatically scans a list of telephone numbers, usually dialing all numbers in the local area code, and searches modems, computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.

#80. Which of the following is the most effective method of identifying backup strategies?

〇:Test the restore procedure.

The ability to successfully restore from a backup must be tested periodically. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test the restore procedure.” will be

 

×:Ensure that all user data is backed up.

Making copies of user data is important, but copies are useless unless it is ensured that the copies can be restored.

 

×:Back up the database management system (DBMS) to your own specifications.

While it is a good idea to use measures to meet the proprietary specifications of the DBMS to ensure that transactional copies are usable, those copies will not be trusted unless the restores are tested.

 

×:Ensure that the backup log files are complete.

Monitoring backup logs for completion is good operational practice, but it is wrong because it is no substitute for regular testing of the backups themselves and their ability to truly recover from data loss.

#81. A business impact analysis is considered a functional analysis. Which of the following is NOT performed during a Business Impact Analysis?

〇:Parallel testing or full interruption testing

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is considered a functional analysis where the team gathers data through interviews and documentation sources. Document business functions, activities, and transactions. Develop a hierarchy of business functions. Finally, a classification scheme is applied that indicates the level of importance of each individual function. Parallel and full interruption tests are not part of the BIA. These tests are performed to ensure the ongoing effectiveness of the business continuity plan to accommodate the constantly changing environment. While full interruption testing involves shutting down the original site and resuming operations and processing at an alternate site, parallel testing is performed to ensure that a particular system will actually function properly at the alternate off-site function.

 

×:Application of a classification scheme based on criticality levels.

This is incorrect because it is performed during a BIA. This is done by identifying a company’s critical assets and mapping them to characteristics such as maximum allowable downtime, operational disruption and productivity, financial considerations, regulatory liability, and reputation.

 

×:Gathering information through interviews

This is not correct as it is done during the BIA. The BCP committee does not truly understand all business processes, the steps to be taken, or the resources and supplies those processes require. Therefore, the committee should collect this information from people in the know, which are department heads and specific employees within the organization.

 

×:Document business functions

This is incorrect because the BCP committee makes this part of the BIA. Business activities and transactions must be documented. This information can come from department managers and specific employees who are interviewed or surveyed. Once the information is documented, the BCP committee can conduct an analysis to determine which processes, equipment, or operational activities are most critical.

#82. Sue is charged with implementing several security controls to protect the company’s e-mail system, including antivirus and antispam software. What approach does her company take to address the risks posed by its systems?

〇:Risk Mitigation

Risk can be addressed in four basic ways: transfer, avoidance, mitigation, and acceptance. Sue reduces the risk posed by her e-mail system by implementing security controls such as antivirus and anti-spam software. This is also referred to as risk mitigation, where risk is reduced to a level considered acceptable. Risk can be mitigated by improving procedures, changing the environment, erecting barriers to threats, and implementing early detection techniques to stop threats when they occur and reduce damage.

 

×:Risk Acceptance

This is inappropriate because risk acceptance does not involve spending on protection or countermeasures such as anti-virus software. When accepting a risk, one should be aware of the level of risk faced and the potential damage costs and decide to keep it without implementing countermeasures. If the cost/benefit ratio indicates that the cost of countermeasures exceeds the potential losses, many companies will accept the risk.

 

×:Risk Avoidance

Wrong because it would mean discontinuing the activity that is causing the risk. In this case, Sue’s firm decides to continue using e-mail. A company may choose to terminate an activity that introduces risk if the risk outweighs the business needs of the activity. For example, a company may choose to block social media websites in some departments because of the risk to employee productivity.

 

×:Risk Transfer

This is incorrect because it involves sharing risk with other entities, as in the purchase of insurance to transfer some of the risk to the insurance company. Many types of insurance are available to firms to protect their assets. If a company determines that its total or excess risk is too high to gamble, it can purchase insurance.

#83. What kind of person does the word sabotage, the root of the word sabotage, refer to?

Sabotage is an attack by an insider.

#84. You have developed an application using open source. How should you test it?

〇:Test with reference to OSSTMM.

OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) is an open source penetration testing standard. Open source is basically free and has many amazing features. Because it is free and anyone can use it, there is a view that trust is low. However, there is nothing like it if you properly understand the risks. That is why we are trying to create a testing standard for open source to ensure trust. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test with reference to OSSTMM.” will be “OSSTMM”.

 

×:Since open source is fully tested at the point of development, the testing process can be omitted.

Even if it is open source, you need to test it according to your own organization.

 

×:Secure contact information for the developer and conduct testing with both developers.

If you contact the open source developer, these responses will probably not go through.

Most open source developers are doing this in good faith and may be brazen about further pursuit from the organization.

 

×:Ask other organizations to share completed tests.

The process of getting test results that may be confidential from other organizations is unreasonable.

#85. Which of the following positions would be most desirable as the person who issues or is responsible for security measures?

〇:CEO

Security measures should be raised together with business strategy and should be issued from the top, the CEO. Therefore, the correct answer is “CEO.

 

×:CIO

Abbreviation for Chief Information Officer. Certainly, security measures may be issued by the CIO. However, the CIO is not the correct answer here, because it is “more desirable” to have the CEO, who is the top manager responsible for management, issue the security measures.

 

×:Site Manager

The person who issues or is responsible for security measures should be the person responsible for management. This is not the correct answer.

 

×:CTO

Abbreviation for Chief Technology Officer. The Chief Technology Officer’s main role is to promote and protect the organization’s research and technology. This is not the correct answer here, as the CEO is “more desirable” when security measures, including organizational management and governance, are issued.

#86. Mary is creating malicious code to steal user cookies by modifying client-side JavaScript. Which type of cross-site scripting vulnerability does she exploit?

〇:DOM-based

Mary exploits a cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerability called Document Object Model (DOM) Local Cross-Site Scripting.The DOM is a standard structural layout for representing HTML and XML documents in a browser. In such attacks, components of the document such as form fields and cookies can be referenced via JavaScript. The attacker uses the DOM environment to modify the client-side JavaScript. The result is to cause the victim’s browser to execute malicious JavaScript code. The most effective way to prevent these attacks is to disable scripting support in the browser.

 

×:Secondary

Secondary, or persistent XSS vulnerabilities are incorrect because they target websites that populate databases or data stored elsewhere, such as forums or message boards.

 

×:Persistent

Persistent XSS vulnerability is incorrect because it is simply another name for a secondary vulnerability.

 

×:Non-Persistent

A non-persistent XSS vulnerability, called a reflection vulnerability, is incorrect because it uses a malicious script to open a programmed URL in order to steal sensitive information from someone who holds cookies, etc. The principle behind this attack lies in the lack of proper input or output validation on dynamic websites.

#87. A new software development company was set up to develop mobile device applications for a variety of clients. The company employs talented software programmers, but has failed to implement a standardized development process that can be improved over time. Which of the following is the best approach this company would take to improve its software development process?

〇:Capability Maturity Model Integration

Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a comprehensive set of integration guidelines for developing products and software. It addresses the various phases of the software development life cycle, including concept definition, requirements analysis, design, development, integration, installation, operation, maintenance, and what should happen at each stage. The model describes the procedures, principles, and practices underlying the maturation of the software development process. It was developed to help software vendors improve their development processes. It will improve software quality, shorten the development life cycle, create and meet milestones in a timely manner, and adopt a proactive approach rather than a reactive approach that is less effective.

 

×:Software Development Life Cycle

Incorrect because the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) describes how a system should be developed and maintained throughout its life cycle and does not involve process improvement.

 

×:ISO/IEC 27002

Incorrect because ISO/IEC 27002 is an international standard that outlines how the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) create and maintain an organizational information security management system (ISMS). ISO/IEC 27002 has a section dealing with the acquisition, development, and maintenance of information systems, but does not provide a process improvement model for software development.

 

×:Certification and Accreditation Process

This is incorrect because the certification and accreditation (C&A) process handles testing and evaluation of systems against predefined criteria. This has nothing to do with improving the software development process.

#88. There are two main design philosophies for systems that implement access control: distributed or integrated. Which are the advantages of distributed access control?

〇:The ability to control access close to the resource.

Central access control has various advantages such as uniform rules and reduced operational burden. Distributed access control allows access control in close proximity to resources, thus protecting resources independently.

 

×:It should be possible to design a comprehensive

Distributed access control is not a comprehensive design because the authentication and authorization functions are distributed.

 

×:Relatively low cost.

Whether or not costs can be kept down cannot be determined by this design concept alone.

 

×:Logs from various devices make it easier to understand the current status.

Both central access control and distributed access control can acquire logs from various devices.

#89. It is not uncommon for business continuity plans to become outdated. What should you do to ensure that your plan does not become outdated?

〇:Business Continuity Processes Integrate Change Management Processes

Unfortunately, business continuity plans can quickly become outdated. An outdated BCP can give a company a false sense of security, which can be fatal if a disaster actually occurs. One of the simplest, most cost-effective, and process-efficient ways to keep your plan current is to incorporate it into your organization’s change management process. Are new applications, equipment, and services documented? Are updates and patches documented? The change management process should be updated to incorporate fields and triggers that alert the BCP team when significant changes occur and provide a means to update recovery documentation. Ensure that the BCP is kept up-to-date, and other measures include maintaining personnel evaluations of the plan and conducting regular training on using the plan, such as making business continuity part of all business decisions.

 

×:Update hardware, software, and application changes

Wrong because hardware, software, and application changes occur frequently; unless the BCP is part of a change management process, these changes are not included in the BCP. The BCP should be updated when changes to the environment occur. If it is not updated after a change, it is out of date.

 

×:Infrastructure and Environment Change Updates

Incorrect because infrastructure and environment changes occur frequently. Unless the BCP is part of a change management process, as with software, hardware, and application changes, infrastructure and environment changes are unlikely to result in a transition to the BCP.

 

×:Personnel changes

Incorrect, as the plan may become obsolete. It is not uncommon for BCPs to be abandoned when the person or persons responsible for maintenance leave the company. These responsibilities must be reassigned. To ensure this, maintenance responsibilities must be built into job descriptions and properly monitored.

#90. What should I use for streaming ciphers?

〇:One-time pad

Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.

 

×:AES

AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.

 

×:Block ciphers

Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.

 

×:RSA

RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.

#91. If the media contains sensitive information, purging must be performed at the end of the media lifecycle. Which of the following adequately describes purging?

〇:To make information physically unrecoverable by any special effort.

Purging is the removal of sensitive data from disk. Software deletion of files on disk does not actually erase the data, only disconnects it from the location of the on-disk data. This means that if the data on the disk containing sensitive information cannot be completely erased, physical destruction is also necessary.

 

×:To change the polarization of atoms on a medium.

This is not a description of purging.

 

×:Do not authorize the reuse of media in the same physical environment for the same purpose.

While such an approval process may exist in practice, it is not a description of purging as data deletion.

 

×:To make data on media unrecoverable by overwriting it.

Simply overwriting media with new information does not eliminate the possibility of recovering previously written information.

Therefore, it does not fit the description of purging.

#92. Which of the following is the most difficult to discover keys among known-plaintext attacks, selective-plaintext attacks, and adaptive-selective-plaintext attacks?

〇:Known Plaintext Attacks

A known-plaintext attack is a situation in which a decryptor can obtain plaintext indiscriminately. A ciphertext-alone attack is a situation where a decryptor can acquire ciphertext indiscriminately. A known-plaintext attack acquires the plaintext but does not know what ciphertext it is paired with, meaning that decryption is attempted with only two random ciphertexts. In this situation, it is difficult to decrypt. Therefore, the correct answer is “known-plaintext attack.

 

×:Selective Plaintext Attack

A choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose the plaintext to acquire and obtain the ciphertext.

 

×:Adaptive Choice Plaintext Attack

An adaptive choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose which plaintext to acquire and acquire the ciphertext, and can repeat the acquisition again after seeing the result.

 

×:None of the above

It is rare for the answer to be “none of the above” when the choice is “most of the above.

#93. What is the difference between awareness and trainning?

Awareness is to inform the organization’s members of the information they already have in order to make them more vigilant again. Tranning is the input of information that is unknown to the members of the organization. Therefore, the difference between awareness-raising and tranning is whether the target audience is already aware of the information.

#94. SElinux is set up. Which access control will be followed?

〇:Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an access control that enforces access privileges by pre-classifying resources into levels. There are several types of access rights to data files. There are several types of access rights to data files: the user of the data file, the owner who creates the data file, and the administrator who decides which owner can create the data. SELinux, TOMOYO Linux, Trusted BSD, and Trusted Solaris are methods used by MACs.

 

×:Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control method that allows the owner of an access target to change access privileges.

 

×:Role Access Control (RAC)

There is no such term. A close equivalent is role-based access control, which divides accounts by role and applies access control to those roles.

 

×:Voluntary Access Control (VAC)

There is no such term.

#95. At Sally’s company, when software programmers made changes to software components, they did not document those changes and uploaded them to the main software repository. This has caused some teams to use outdated versions of software. Which of the following would be the best solution for this situation?

〇:Software Configuration Management

Products that provide software configuration management (SCM) identify software attributes at various points in time and provide systematic control of change to maintain software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. It defines the need to track changes and provides the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the approved changes that are supposed to be included in the release. During a software development project, it is stored in a system that can be managed as a centralized code repository and perform SCM functions to track revisions made by multiple people to a single master set.

 

×:Software Change Control Management

This is incorrect as it is not an official term for this type of function. Software Change Control Management is only part of Software Configuration Management. Software configuration management systems provide concurrency management, version control, and synchronization.

 

×:Software Escrow

A software escrow framework in which a third party holds a copy of the source code that will be released to the customer in the event of certain circumstances, such as bankruptcy of the vendor who developed the code.

 

×:Software Configuration Management Escrow

Incorrect, as this is not an official term for this type of functionality.

#96. Which network line should be used to ensure that traffic always uses the same path?

Circuit switching is a dedicated communication channel through a network. The circuit guarantees full bandwidth. The circuit functions as if the nodes were physically connected by cables.

#97. Access control matrices are used in many operating systems and applications to control access between subjects and objects. What is this type of column called?

〇:ACL

Access Control List (ACL) A map value from the Access Control Matrix to an object; ACLs are used in several operating system, application, and router configurations. They are lists of items that are authorized to access a particular object and they define the level of authorization to be granted. Authorization can be specified to an individual or to a group. Therefore, ACLs are bound to an object and indicate which subjects can access it, and feature tables are bound to a subject and indicate which objects the subject can access.

 

×:Function table

The function table is a row in the access control matrix.

 

×:Constraint Interface

Constraint interfaces are wrong because they limit the user’s access ability by not allowing them to request certain functions or information or have access to certain system resources.

 

×:Role-based values

The role-based access control (RBAC) model, called non-discretionary access control, is wrong because it uses a centralized set of controls to determine how subjects and objects interact.

#98. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between the reference monitor and the security kernel?

〇:The security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor

The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is a complete combination of protection mechanisms for a system. These are in the form of hardware, software, and firmware. These same components also comprise the security kernel. Reference monitors are access control concepts implemented and enforced by the security kernel via hardware, software, and firmware. In doing so, it ensures that the security kernel, the subject, has the proper permissions to access the object it is requesting. The subject, be it a program, user, or process, cannot access the requesting file, program, or resource until it is proven that it has the proper access rights.

 

×:The reference monitor is the core of the Trusted Computing Base (TCP), which is comprised of the security kernel.

This is incorrect because the reference monitor is not the core of the TCB. The core of the TCB is the security kernel, and the security kernel implements the concepts of the reference monitor. The reference monitor is a concept about access control. It is often referred to as an “abstract machine” because it is not a physical component.

 

×:The reference monitor implements and executes the security kernel.

The reference monitor does not implement and execute the security kernel, which is incorrect. On the contrary, the security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor. The reference monitor is an abstract concept, while the security kernel is a combination of hardware, software, and firmware in a trusted computing base.

 

×:The security kernel, i.e., the abstract machine, implements the concept of a reference monitor.

This is incorrect because abstract machine is not another name for security kernel. Abstract machine is another name for the reference monitor. This concept ensures that the abstract machine acts as an intermediary between the subject and the object, ensuring that the subject has the necessary rights to access the object it is requesting and protecting the subject from unauthorized access and modification. The security kernel functions to perform these activities.

#99. I saw a news report about encryption technology being deciphered by the development of quantum computers. What do you call the phenomenon of existing encryption being deciphered as the computational power of computers improves?

Compromise is when what used to be secure encryption becomes insecure due to the evolution of computers. Cryptography is based on the sharing of a single answer, a key, among those communicating. The key is generated by computer calculations, and a third party must solve a difficult problem that would take several years to derive. However, as the computational power of computers has evolved, it is now possible to solve difficult problems that could not be solved before. In this case, encryption is meaningless. This is the compromise caused by evolution. Therefore, the correct answer is “Compromise.

#100. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a company with a security governance program?

〇:All security activities shall be conducted within the security department.

When all security activities are performed within the security department, security functions within a silo and is not integrated throughout the organization. In companies that have a security governance program in place, security responsibilities are pervasive throughout the organization, from senior management down the chain of command. A common scenario is executive management with the executive director of operations responsible for risk management activities for a particular business unit. Additionally, employees are responsible for malicious or accidental security breaches.

 

×:Officers will be updated quarterly on the company’s security status.

Incorrect. Security governance is providing strategic guidance, ensuring that goals are being met, risks are properly managed, and resources are used responsibly. Organizations with a security governance program have a board of directors that understands the importance of security and is aware of the organization’s security performance and breaches.

 

×:Deploy security products, services, and consultants in an informed manner.

Security governance is incorrect because it is a cohesive system of integrated security components that includes products, people, training, and processes. Therefore, organizations that have a security governance program in place will assist consultants with security products, management services, and consultants in an informed manner. They are also constantly reviewed to ensure they are cost effective.

 

×:The organization establishes metrics and goals for improving security.

inaccurate because security governance requires performance measurement and oversight mechanisms. Organizations that have a security governance program in place are continually reviewing their processes, including security, with the goal of continuous improvement. On the other hand, an organization lacking a security governance program may proceed without analyzing its performance, thus repeating the same mistakes.

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