〇：Waterfall

Waterfall is very unidirectional and each phase leads directly to the next phase. In a pure waterfall model, there is no way to return to the previous phase.

×：Agile

Agile is the idea that system development should be done flexibly. It is a trial-and-error development method that emphasizes adaptive planning, evolutionary development, early delivery, and continuous improvement. Agile differs from the traditional approach of modeling a process, where principles and claims are shared by the entire team and an attempt is made to adapt to every situation.

×：SASHIMI

The SASHIMI model is a model of the system development process that allows the end and beginning points of each phase to run concurrently. In many cases, a waterfall model is used, where the next phase is moved to the next phase with the submission and review of deliverables. This is also great, but in practice, there are times when the delivery is made but modified due to changing requirements.

×：Spiral

The spiral model is a method of development that iterates from design to testing for each function. It is a method in which a series of processes consisting of planning, analysis, design, implementation, testing, and evaluation are repeated many times within a single project to gradually increase the degree of completion. In a software project, these phases are repeated.

〇：Entity integrity

Entity integrity ensures that a tuple is uniquely identified by its primary key value. A tuple is a row in a two-dimensional database. The primary key is the corresponding column value that makes each row unique. For entity integrity, every tuple must contain one primary key. If a tuple does not have a primary key, the tuple will not be referenced by the database.

×：Concurrent Maintainability

Concurrent integrity is not a formal term in database software and is therefore incorrect. There are three main types of integrity services: semantic, reference, and entity. Concurrency is software that is accessed by multiple users or applications simultaneously. Without controls in place, two users can access and modify the same data at the same time.

×：Referential Integrity

Referential integrity is incorrect because it references all foreign keys that refer to an existing primary key. There must be a mechanism to ensure that foreign keys do not contain references to non-existent records or null-valued primary keys. This type of integrity control allows relationships between different tables to work properly and communicate properly with each other.

×：Semantic Integrity

The semantic integrity mechanism is incorrect because it ensures that the structural and semantic rules of the database are in place. These rules concern data types, boolean values, uniqueness constraints, and operations that may adversely affect the structure of the database.

〇：Time-Based Synchronous Dynamic Token

A synchronous token device synchronizes with the authentication service using time or a counter as a core part of the authentication process. When synchronization is time-based, the token device and authentication service must maintain the same time within their internal clocks. The time values of the token device and private key are used to generate a one-time password that is displayed to the user. The user then passes this value and user ID to the server running the authentication service and enters this value and user ID into the computer. The authentication service decrypts this value and compares it to the expected value. If both match, the user is authenticated and allowed to use the computer and resources.

×：Counter-Based Synchronous Dynamic Token

If the token device and authentication service use counter synchronization, it is incorrect because it is not based on time. When using a counter-synchronized token device, the user must initiate the creation of a one-time password by pressing a button on the token device. This causes the token device and authentication service to proceed to the next authentication value. This value, the base secret, is hashed and displayed to the user. The user enters this resulting value along with the user ID to be authenticated. For either time or counter-based synchronization, the token device and authentication service must share the same secret base key used for encryption and decryption.

×：Asynchronous Tokens

Asynchronous token generation methods are incorrect because they use a challenge/response method for the token device to authenticate the user. Instead of using synchronization, this technique does not use separate steps in the authentication process.

×：Mandatory Tokens

Wrong because there is no such thing as a mandatory token. This is an incorrect answer.

〇：Conduct a risk analysis.

The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.

×：Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.  

The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.

×：Design program.  

Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.

×：Implement countermeasures.  

Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.

〇：SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms.

Email spoofing is easy to perform if the SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms. An attacker can spoof the sender address of an e-mail by sending a Telnet command to port 25 of the mail server. The spammer uses e-mail spoofing to prevent himself from being identified.

×：The administrator forgot to configure a setting that prevents inbound SMTP connections for non-functioning domains.

If it is spoofed, the email sender is also spoofed. This can happen even if you prevent inbound SMTP connections for a domain.

×：Technically abolished by keyword filtering.

Filtering is not very effective against spoofing. Therefore, even if it is technically obsolete, it is unlikely to be the cause.

×：The blacklist function is not technically reliable.

If an email is spoofed, the sender of the email is also spoofed. This can happen even if the filtering function is not reliable.

〇：Restore the virus unpatched file version from the backup media.

The best practice is to install an unpatched, uninfected version of the file from the backup media. It is important to restore files that are known to be clean, as attempts to remove the files may corrupt them. The most important thing is not to spread the impact, but attempting to unilaterally delete files may make them unavailable for later investigation.

×：Replace the file with the file saved the previous day.

The file saved the previous day may also contain the virus.

×：Delete the file and contact the vendor.

This is an incorrect answer because the condition of this question is that if the file is deleted, the normal file content itself may be damaged.

×：Back up the data and delete the file.

This is an incorrect answer because backing up the data that contains the virus and deleting the file does not result in a clean situation.

〇：The attacker knows nothing about the organization other than the information that is publicly available.

In black box testing (zero-knowledge), the attacker has no knowledge about the organization other than the publicly available information. The focus is on what the external attacker does. Therefore, the correct answer is “knows nothing about the organization other than the information that is publicly available.” The result will be

×：I know everything.

White box testing is testing to verify the operation of a program, which is done after knowing what is in the program.

×：I keep the product manual and retain privileged access.

A gray box test is a test that is performed by a pen tester to some extent, with the attacker having only limited knowledge of the program.

This is a white box test or gray box test.

×：The vendor retains an accessible level of information.

In a black box test, the attacker has no information in principle.

〇：Conflict condition

A race condition is present when a process performs a task on a shared resource and the sequence could be in the wrong order. 2 or more processes can have a race condition if they use a shared resource, like data in a variable. It is important that processes perform their functions in the correct sequence.

×：Backdoors

Backdoors are incorrect because they are “listening” services on certain ports. Backdoors are implemented by attackers to allow easy access to the system without authenticating as a normal system user.

×：Maintenance Hooks

Maintenance hooks are specific software codes that allow easy and unauthorized access to sensitive parts of a software product. Software programmers use maintenance hooks to allow them to get quick access to the code so that they can make fixes in immediate, but this is dangerous.

×：Data validation errors

Data validation errors are wrong because an attacker cannot operate on the process execution sequence.

Circuit switching is a dedicated communication channel through a network. The circuit guarantees full bandwidth. The circuit functions as if the nodes were physically connected by cables.

Web access management (WAM) software controls what users can access when interacting with Web-based corporate assets using a Web browser. This type of technology is continually becoming more robust and experiencing increased deployment. This is due to the increased use of e-commerce, online banking, content delivery, and Web services. The basic components and activities of the Web access control management process are

• The user submits credentials to the web server.
• The web server requests the WAM platform to authenticate the user. WAM authenticates to the LDAP directory and obtains credentials from the policy database.
• The user requests access to a resource (object).
• The web server verifies that object access is allowed and grants access to the requested resource.

When the complicated term WAM is mentioned, the journey begins to search for a definition of WAM that may be at the end of one’s brain. But as these thoughts begin, you will want the hard answers, like the X.500 database. But if you don’t know, it is straightforward to interpret and answer to the best of your understanding; if you interpret WAM as software that controls access to a Web server, then the question is, “Which is the correct definition of WAM?” Rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does?” rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does? However, it is still tempting to factor in the possibility that WAM is a solution that uses a specific technology that may be unfamiliar to you.

Copyright applies to books, art, music, software, etc. It is granted automatically and is valid for 70 years after the creator’s death and 95 years after creation. Therefore, the correct answer is “70 years”.

Archive bits are those that have been updated since the previous backup point in time. Full backups are full backups, so there is no need to be aware of where changes have occurred. Incremental backups also do not require awareness of change points because the backup portion is predetermined. Therefore, both clear the archive bit. However, differential backups do not clear the archive bit because only the changed part is known to be backed up.

〇：Ensure that some systems are executed at the alternate site.

Parallel testing compares how some systems run at the alternate site and how the results are processed at the primary site. This is to assure that systems run at the alternate site and does not affect service productivity.

×：All departments will be sent a copy of the disaster recovery plan for completeness.

This alternative is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

×：Representatives from each department meet to validate the plan.

This option is incorrect because it describes a structured walk-through test.

×：The normal operation system is taken down.

This option is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

Student numbers, which are left to the control of each school, cannot be considered privacy information because they are not sufficient information to identify an individual.

A well-known port is a port number from 0 to 1023 that is reserved for standard services. There are three port number combinations. Well-known port numbers (0-1023) are port numbers officially registered with IANA. Registered port numbers (1024-49151) are port numbers that are officially registered with IANA. A dynamic/private port number (49152-65535) is a port number that is not officially registered with IANA.

〇：Trojan Horse

A Trojan horse is a seemingly harmless piece of malware that is contagious. Have you ever downloaded a nasty image and suddenly your computer stopped working?

×：Spyware

Spyware is malware that looks harmless when it does its evil. It secretly takes information from your computer to the outside.

×：Virus

Viruses are malware that can spread without user intervention and attach itself to other programs. It looks harmless but does not match in that it downloads applications.

×：Data diddlers

A data diddler is malware that gradually changes data over time.

〇：Lock out the account for a certain period of time after reaching the clipping level.

Brute force attack is an attack that continuously tries different inputs to achieve a predefined goal that can then be used to qualify for unauthorized access. A brute force attack to discover the password means that the intruder is trying all possible sequences of characters to reveal the correct password. This proves to be a good countermeasure if the account will be disabled (or locked out) after this type of attack attempt is made.

×：Increase the clipping level.

Clipping levels are wrong because they need to be implemented to establish a baseline of user activity and acceptable error. Entities attempting to log into an account after the clipping level is met should be locked out. A high clipping level gives the attacker more attempts during a warning or lockout. Lowering the clipping level is a good countermeasure.

×：After the threshold for failed login attempts is met, the administrator should physically lock out the account.

This is incorrect because it is impractical to have an administrator physically lock out an account. This type of activity can easily be taken care of through automated software mechanisms. Accounts should be automatically locked out for a certain amount of time after a threshold of failed login attempts is met.

×：Encrypt password files and choose a weaker algorithm.

Encrypting passwords and/or password files and using a weaker algorithm is incorrect as it increases the likelihood of a successful brute force attack.

〇：Central Control Systems

The most common types of industrial control systems (ICS) are distributed control systems (DCS), programmable logic controllers (PLC), and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems. Although these systems provide a type of central control function, central control systems are not considered a common type of ICS because these systems are inherently distributed. DCSs are used to control product systems for industries such as water, electricity, and refineries. A DCS connects controllers that are distributed across geographic locations using a centralized supervisory control loop. This supervisory controller requests status data from field controllers and feeds this information back to a central interface for monitoring. Status data retrieved from sensors can be used in failover situations. The DCS can provide redundant protection in a modular fashion. This reduces the impact of a single failure. In other words, if a part of the system goes down, the entire system does not go down.

×：Programmable Logic Controllers

A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a common industrial control system (ICS) used to connect sensors throughout a utility network and convert this sensor signal data into digital data that can be processed by software monitoring and management. Originally created to perform simplified logic functions within basic hardware, PLCs have evolved into powerful controllers used in both SCADA and DCS systems. In SCADA systems, PLCs are most commonly used to communicate with remote field devices, while in DCS systems they are used as local controllers in supervisory control schemes. PLCs provide an application programming interface that allows communication with engineering control software applications.

×：Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) is used to refer to computerized systems used to collect and process data and apply operational control to components that make up a utility-based environment. This is a common type of ICS. SCADA control centers allow centralized monitoring and control of field sites (e.g., power grid, water supply systems). Field sites have remote station control devices (field devices) that provide data to the central control center. Based on the data sent from the field device, an automated process or operator can control the remote device to solve a problem or send commands to change the configuration for operational needs. This is a difficult environment to work within because the hardware and software is usually proprietary to a particular industry. It is privately owned and operated. Communication can be via telecommunication links, satellites, and microwave-based systems.

×：Distributed Control Systems

This is incorrect because Distributed Control Systems (DCS) are a common type of ICS. In a DCS, control elements are not centralized. The control elements are distributed throughout the system and managed by one or more computers. SCADA systems, DCSs, and PLCs are used in industrial sectors such as water, oil and gas, electrical, and transportation. These systems are considered “critical infrastructure” and are highly interconnected and dependent systems. Until now, these critical infrastructure environments have not used the same types of technologies and protocols as the Internet, making them very difficult to attack in isolation. Over time, these proprietary environments were converted to IP-based environments using IP-based workstations connected to networking devices. While this transition allows for centralized management and control, it also creates a type of cyber attack that is always vulnerable to the computer industry.

〇：All security activities shall be conducted within the security department.

When all security activities are performed within the security department, security functions within a silo and is not integrated throughout the organization. In companies that have a security governance program in place, security responsibilities are pervasive throughout the organization, from senior management down the chain of command. A common scenario is executive management with the executive director of operations responsible for risk management activities for a particular business unit. Additionally, employees are responsible for malicious or accidental security breaches.

×：Officers will be updated quarterly on the company’s security status.

Incorrect. Security governance is providing strategic guidance, ensuring that goals are being met, risks are properly managed, and resources are used responsibly. Organizations with a security governance program have a board of directors that understands the importance of security and is aware of the organization’s security performance and breaches.

×：Deploy security products, services, and consultants in an informed manner.

Security governance is incorrect because it is a cohesive system of integrated security components that includes products, people, training, and processes. Therefore, organizations that have a security governance program in place will assist consultants with security products, management services, and consultants in an informed manner. They are also constantly reviewed to ensure they are cost effective.

×：The organization establishes metrics and goals for improving security.

inaccurate because security governance requires performance measurement and oversight mechanisms. Organizations that have a security governance program in place are continually reviewing their processes, including security, with the goal of continuous improvement. On the other hand, an organization lacking a security governance program may proceed without analyzing its performance, thus repeating the same mistakes.

Disasters are classified by cause into natural, human, and environmental categories. Natural disasters are natural, human errors are human, and facilities and equipment are environmental.

〇：Only during code development.

Maintenance hoc refers to functions and tools that are temporarily used by the developer for testing purposes. In fact, in system development, tools are provided to assist in confirming that individual functions are working properly. However, if maintenance hocks are left in the production environment, they may be used by attackers and must be removed.

×：Maintenance hooks should not be used.

The use of maintenance hooks can make the work more efficient.

×：When you want to make the software available to administrators in a simplified manner.

In some cases, attackers can exploit tools that were supposed to be available only to administrators.

×：When you want users to be able to use the software in a simplified manner.

After the actual release of the software, maintenance hooks are not made available to users.

〇：Due Care

Confidentiality means that the company does everything it could reasonably have done to prevent a security breach under the circumstances and takes appropriate control and action in the event of a security breach. In short, it means that the company is acting responsibly by practicing common sense and prudent management. If a company has a facility that is not fire-immune, its arsonist will be only a small part of this tragedy. The company is responsible for providing fire-resistant building materials, alarms, exits, fire extinguishers, and backup fire detection and suppression systems, all critical information specific areas that could be affected by a fire. If a fire were to burn the company’s building and all records (customer data, inventory records, and information needed to rebuild the business) were to disappear, the company would not take precautions to ensure that it is protected against that loss. For example, it would be possible to back up to an off-site location. In this case, employees, shareholders, customers, and anyone else affected could potentially sue the company. However, if the company has done all that is expected of it in terms of the points mentioned so far, it is difficult to sue without success if proper care (dee care) is not taken.

×：Downstream Liability

Is wrong because one firm’s activities (or lack thereof) may have a negative impact on other firms. If either company fails to provide the required level of protection and its negligence affects the partners with whom it cooperates, the affected company can sue the upstream company. For example, suppose Company A and Company B have built an extranet. Company A has not implemented controls to detect and address viruses. Company A is infected with a harmful virus, which infects Company B through the extranet. The virus destroys critical data and causes a major disruption to Company B’s production. Company B can therefore sue Company A for negligence. This is an example of downstream liability.

×：Liability

Incorrect, as it generally refers to the obligation and expected behavior or actions of a particular party. Obligations can have a defined set of specific actions required, which is a more general and open approach that allows parties to determine how to fulfill specific obligations.

×：Due diligence

A better answer to this question. Liability is not considered a legal term as with the other answers. Due diligence is because the firm has properly investigated all of its possible weaknesses and vulnerabilities. Before you can understand how to properly protect yourself, you need to know that you are protecting yourself. To understand the real level of risk, investigate and assess the real level of vulnerability. Even after these steps and assessments have been made, effective controls and protective measures can be identified and implemented. Due diligence means identifying all potential risks, but an appropriate response is one that actually mitigates the risk.

〇：Extraction of data from the database

In data classification, the data classification is used to specify which users have access to read and write data stored in the database, but it does not involve the extraction of data from the database. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data from the database.

What is this? This is a question that you may think “What is this?” but you need to calmly analyze the classification of data and the manipulation of data. The more time you spend, the more tempted you are to give a difficult answer, but keeping calm is important in solving abstract problems.

×：Grouping hierarchically classified information

This is the primary activity of data classification.

×：Ensuring that non-confidential data is not unnecessarily protected

It is written in a complicated way, but it says that what does not need to be protected does not need the ability to be protected either.

×：Understanding the impact of data leakage

Although not directly, we may check the impact of a data breach in order to understand its importance in classifying data. Ka.

Disaster Recovery Planning includes the Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery life cycles.

• Mitigation: Reduces the impact and likelihood of a disaster.
• Prepare: Create programs, procedures, and tools for response.
• Response: follow procedures and how to respond to a disaster.
• Recovery: re-establish basic functionality and return to a full production environment.

〇：Converts bytecode to machine-level code.

Java is an object-oriented, platform-independent programming language. It is used as a full-fledged programming language to write programs called applets that run in the user’s browser. java is platform independent because it creates intermediate code that is not processor-specific bytecode. java virtual machine (JVM) converts bytecode into machine-level code that can be understood by processors on a particular system.

×：Converts source code to bytecode and blocks the sandbox.

Incorrect because the Java Virtual Machine converts bytecode to machine-level code. The Java compiler does not convert source code to bytecode. The JVM also creates a virtual machine in an environment called the sandbox. This virtual machine is the enclosed environment in which the applet executes its activities. The applet is typically sent via HTTP within the requested web page and is executed as soon as the applet arrives. If the applet developer fails to function properly, it may intentionally or accidentally perform a malicious act. Therefore, the sandbox strictly limits the applet’s access to system resources. The JVM mediates access to system resources to ensure that applet code runs and works within its own sandbox.

×：It runs only on specific processors within a specific operating system.

This is incorrect because Java is an object-oriented, platform-independent programming language. Other languages are compiled into object code for specific operating systems and processors. Thus, a particular application can run on Windows, but not on the Mac OS. Intel processors do not necessarily understand machine code compiled for Alpha processors. Java is platform independent because it creates intermediate code bytecode. It is not processor-specific code bytecode.

×：Develop an applet that runs in the user’s browser.

This is incorrect because the Java Virtual Machine does not create applets. Java is adopted as a full-fledged programming language and is used to write complete and short programs called applets that run in the user’s browser. Programmers create Java applets and run them through a compiler. The Java compiler converts the source code into byte code. The user then downloads the Java applet. The bytecode is converted to machine-level code by the JVM. Finally, the applet is executed when invoked.

〇：Test with reference to OSSTMM.

OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) is an open source penetration testing standard. Open source is basically free and has many amazing features. Because it is free and anyone can use it, there is a view that trust is low. However, there is nothing like it if you properly understand the risks. That is why we are trying to create a testing standard for open source to ensure trust. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test with reference to OSSTMM.” will be “OSSTMM”.

×：Since open source is fully tested at the point of development, the testing process can be omitted.

Even if it is open source, you need to test it according to your own organization.

×：Secure contact information for the developer and conduct testing with both developers.

If you contact the open source developer, these responses will probably not go through.

Most open source developers are doing this in good faith and may be brazen about further pursuit from the organization.

×：Ask other organizations to share completed tests.

The process of getting test results that may be confidential from other organizations is unreasonable.

〇：Multiple processes are using the same resources.

The system uses hard drive space (called swap space) that is reserved to expand RAM memory space. When the system fills up volatile memory space, data is written from memory to the hard drive. When a program requests access to this data, it is returned from the hard drive to memory in specific units called page frames. Accessing data stored on hard drive pages takes longer than accessing data stored in memory because it requires read/write access to the physical disk. A security issue with using virtual swap space is that two or more processes can use the same resources and corrupt or damage data.

×：Allowing cookies to remain persistent in memory

This is incorrect because virtual storage is not associated with cookies. Virtual storage uses hard drive space to extend RAM memory space. Cookies are small text files used primarily by web browsers. Cookies can contain credentials for web sites, site preferences, and shopping history. Cookies are also commonly used to maintain web server-based sessions.

×：Side-channel attacks are possible.

Side-channel attacks are incorrect because they are physical attacks. This type of attack gathers information about how a mechanism (e.g., smart card or encryption processor) works from abandoned radiation, time spent processing, power consumed to perform a task, etc. Using the information, reverse engineer the mechanism to reveal how it performs its security task. This is not related to virtual storage.

×：Two processes can perform a denial of service attack.

The biggest threat within a system where resources are shared between processes is that one process can adversely affect the resources of another process, since the operating system requires memory to be shared among all resources. This is especially true in the case of memory. It is possible for two processes to work together to perform a denial of service attack, but this is only one of the attacks that can be performed with or without the use of virtual storage.

〇：Well-Formed Transaction

In the Clark-Wilson model, subjects cannot access objects without going through some type of application or program that controls how this access is done. The subject (usually the user) can access the required object based on access rules within the application software, defined as “Well-Formed Transaction,” in conjunction with the application.

×：Childwall model

This is incorrect because it is another name for the Brewer Nash model created to provide access control that can be dynamically modified according to the user’s previous behavior. It is shaped by access attempts and conflicts of interest and does not allow information to flow between subjects and objects. In this model, a subject can only write to an object if the subject cannot read another object in a different data set.

×：Access tuples

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it uses access triples instead of access tuples. The access triple is the subject program object. This ensures that the subject can only access the object through the authorized program.

×：Write Up and Write Down

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because there is no Write Up and Write Down. These rules relate to the Bell-LaPadula and Biba models. The Bell-LaPadula model contains a simple security rule that has not been read and a star property rule that has not been written down. The Biba model contains an unread simple completeness axiom and an unwritten star completeness axiom.

Penetration testing is an attempt to penetrate a system connected to a network. Penetration allows for any kind of manipulation and can bring the service itself to a halt. Therefore, the focus of testing is on penetration. The sequence is: planning, preliminary investigation, search for vulnerabilities, evaluation, attack, and reporting. Therefore, the correct answer is “report generation.

In an asymmetric algorithm, every user must have at least one key pair (private and public key). In a public key system, each entity has a separate key. The formula for determining the number of keys needed in this environment is by the number N × 2, where N is the number of people to distribute. In other words, 260 x 2 = 520. Therefore, the correct answer is 520.

〇：Control of the processing and distribution process

An important part of the digital forensic process is to maintain a proper chain of custody of evidence.

The question structure assumes Chain of Custody (Chain of Custody) from “the purpose of securing all evidence and notating it as information to be presented to those who verify it” and selects the one that comes closest to the definition.

×：Reasonable care

Wrong because reasonable care implies performing an activity that a reasonable person would be expected to perform under similar circumstances.

×：Investigation

Incorrect because investigation involves the proper collection of relevant data during the incident response process and includes analysis, interpretation, reaction, and recovery.

×：Motive, Opportunity, Means

Motive, Opportunity, and Means (MOM) is incorrect because it is a strategy used to understand why certain crimes were committed and by whom.

To test the application, normal user behavior must be emulated. However, common loads of user activity are not available in the testing environment. Therefore, common user transaction scripts can be built to facilitate different forms of testing.

The 2001 terrorist attacks triggered the development of various laws against terrorism. Therefore, the correct answer is “2001,September 11 attacks”.

Clustering is designed for fault tolerance. It is often combined with load balancing, but they are essentially separate. Clustering can make an operation active/active. On top of that, the load balancing feature handles traffic from multiple servers. Active/passive, on the other hand, has a designated primary active server and a secondary passive server, with the passive sending keep-alives or heartbeats every few seconds.

〇：Review the schedule.

Unit testing is testing to confirm that the developed module works as a stand-alone unit. Acceptance testing is testing to make sure that the customer who ordered the development actually uses it and is satisfied with it. Acceptance testing cannot take the place of unit testing. It is not upward compatible as a test, and the perspectives are different. Therefore, the correct answer is “Review the schedule.” The correct answer is “Review the schedule.

×：Unit testing is not performed for the sake of work efficiency.

It does not mean that unit tests are not performed.

×：Increase the number of items in the acceptance test for the unit test that could not be done.

The items that should have been done in the actual unit test are simply accounted for as acceptance tests, and the unit test is not considered to have been completed. This is an action that is close to concealment.

×：Report to your supervisor.

You are in charge of project management.

Gates and fences are used as physical deterrents and preventative measures. Fences as small as 3 feet can be a deterrent, but as tall as 8 feet can be a deterrent and prevention mechanism. The purpose of the fence is to limit the routes in and out of the facility so that they occur only through doors, gates, and turnstiles.

〇：Security Management Committee

Steve serves on the Security Steering Committee, which is responsible for making decisions on tactical and strategic security issues within the company. The committee consists of individuals from across the organization and should meet at least quarterly. In addition to the responsibilities outlined in this question, the Security Steering Committee is responsible for establishing a clearly defined vision statement that supports it in cooperation with the organizational intent of the business. It should provide support for the goals of confidentiality, integrity, and availability as they relate to the business goals of the organization. This vision statement should be supported by a mission statement that provides support and definition to the processes that apply to the organization and enable it to reach its business goals.

Each organization may call it by a different name, or they may be entrusted with a series of definition-to-approval processes for security. In this case, the term “operations” is the closest that comes to mind.

×：Security Policy Committee

This is incorrect because senior management is the committee that develops the security policy. Usually, senior management has this responsibility unless they delegate it to an officer or committee. The security policy determines the role that security plays within the organization. It can be organizational, issue specific, or system specific. The Governing Board does not directly create the policy, but reviews and approves it if acceptable.

×：Audit Committee

Incorrect because it provides independent and open communication between the Board of Directors, management, internal auditors, and external auditors. Its responsibilities include the system of internal controls, the engagement and performance of the independent auditors, and the performance of the internal audit function. The Audit Committee reports its findings to the Governing Board, but does not fail to oversee and approve the security program.

×：Risk Management Committee

Incorrect as it is to understand the risks facing the organization and work with senior management to bring the risks down to acceptable levels. This committee does not oversee the security program. The Security Steering Committee typically reports its findings to the Risk Management Committee on information security. The risk management committee should consider the entire business risk, not just the IT security risk.

Freeware is free software and can be used for free. Shareware is fully functional proprietary software that is initially free to use. Often a trial to test the software requires a fee to continue using it after 30 days. Thus, the correct answer is, “Freeware is free in perpetuity, while shareware is free for a set period of time.” will be.

〇：To allow the database to execute transactions as a single unit without interruption.

Online transaction processing (OLTP) is used when databases are clustered to provide high fault tolerance and performance. It provides a mechanism to monitor and address problems as they occur. For example, if a process stops functioning, the monitoring function within OLTP will detect and attempt to restart the process. If the process cannot be restarted, the transaction that occurred is rolled back to ensure that no data has been corrupted or that only a portion of the transaction occurred; OLTP records when the transaction occurred (in real time). Usually multiple databases in a distributed environment are updated.

This classification by the extent to which transaction processing is appropriate is very complex. Therefore, database software must implement ACID characteristics. Among them is atomicity, which means that the transaction is either executed entirely or not executed at all. It is the property that a transaction must either be executed completely or not at all.

When a question like this is answered incorrectly, judging that you could not solve it because you did not know OLTP will hinder your future study methods. Although the question text is worded in a complicated way, it is more important to understand what atomicity is in ACID than to memorize the definition of OLTP to solve the actual question.

×：To be able to establish database consistency rules.

It enforces the consistency rules as stated in the database security policy, but does not imply transaction atomicity.

×：To prevent rollbacks from occurring.

Transaction atomicity does not refer to suppressing rollbacks.

×：To prevent concurrent processes from interacting with each other.

This falls under independence, isolation, and segregation. Independence, isolation, and quarantine (isolation) means that the processes are hidden from other operations during processing. It is the property that even if multiple transactions are executed simultaneously, they must not produce the same processing results as if they were executed alone.

Onion routing is characterized by multiple layers of encryption because encryption is applied each time it passes through a router. However, there is no security feature at the final router because all encryption is decrypted at the final point of the router and becomes plaintext.

〇：That the identity of the public official has been properly verified.

FIPS 201-2 establishes U.S. government standards for personal identity verification (PIV) and gives various requirements for assurance. Access to restricted information by government employees and contracting agents depends on their level of clearance and need to know it, but first the government must assure the individual that they are who they say they are.

×：That government employees are properly cleared for the work to which they are assigned.

Government employees must be properly cleared for the information to which they have been granted access, and therefore true identification must be available for review and verification prior to such access.

×：Government employees are only allowed access to data at their clearance level.

This is wrong because government employees only need to get acquainted and have access to the information they need to access. But again, this must be based on a clear level of assurance that the clearance they possess is valid.

×：That the data to which public officials have access is properly classified.

This is incorrect because the classification of data is not directly related to the validation of personal information.

A key escrow system is one in which a third-party organization holds a copy of the public/private key pair. If the private key is stolen, all ciphers can be decrypted. Conversely, if it is lost, all ciphers cannot be decrypted. Therefore, you want to have a copy. However, if you have it yourself, it may be stolen if a break-in occurs, so you leave it with a third-party organization.

〇：Primary entry doors should have controlled access via swipe card or cryptographic locks. Secondary doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry. 

Data centers, server rooms, and wiring closets should be located in the core areas of the facility, near wiring distribution centers. Strict access control mechanisms and procedures should be implemented for these areas. Access control mechanisms can lock smart card readers, biometric readers, or a combination of these. These restricted areas should have only one access door, but fire code requirements typically dictate that there must be at least two doors in most data centers and server rooms. Only one door should be used for daily entry and exit and the other door should be used only in case of an emergency, i.e., if a fire breaks out in a data center or server room, the door should be locked. This second door should not be an access door, meaning people should not be able to come through this door. It should be locked, but should have a panic bar that will release the lock if it is used as an exit, pushed from the inside.

×：The primary and secondary entry doors must have control access via swipe cards or cryptographic locks.  

This is incorrect because even two entry doors should not be allowed to pass through with the identification, authentication, and authorization process. There should only be one entry point into the server room. No other door should provide an entry point, but can be used for an emergency exit. Therefore, secondary doors should be protected from the inside to prevent intrusion.

×：The primary entry door should have controlled access via a guard. Two doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.

The main entry door to the server room is incorrect as it requires an identification, authentication, and authorization process to be performed. Swipe cards and cryptographic locks perform these functions. Server rooms should ideally not be directly accessible from public areas such as stairways, hallways, loading docks, elevators, and restrooms. This helps prevent foot traffic from casual passersby. Those who are by the door to the area to be secured should have a legitimate reason for being there, as opposed to those on the way to the meeting room, for example.

×：The main entry door must have controlled access via swipe card or crypto lock. Two doors must have security guards.  

Two doors should not have security guards, because it is wrong. The door should be protected from the inside simply so it cannot be used as an entry. Two-door must function as an emergency exit.

〇：OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.

×：CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.

CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.

×：OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.

OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.

×：CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.

Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.

Unfortunately, security components usually affect system performance but go unnoticed by the user. If system performance is significantly slower, security controls may be enforced. The reason controls must be transparent is so that users and intruders do not know enough to disable or bypass them.

While it is important to understand the term “transparent” in the realm of security, there is another way to answer the question in terms of solving it. If there is only one answer to a four-answer question, then answers that mean the same thing cannot be correct. Therefore, by grouping, the only answer that is correct is the one that does not belong to a group.

And the key point in this question is whether the user knows. The other choices indicate that the situation is communicated on the server side as an outsider, whether a legitimate user or an attacker, whereas only one is acknowledged on the server administrator’s side.

A captive portal is a mechanism that restricts communication with the outside world until user authentication, user registration, and user consent are performed when a terminal connects to the network.

〇：It encompasses network and code analysis and is sometimes referred to as electronic data discovery.

Forensics is the analysis of electronic data that may have been affected by technology, authentication, and criminal activity requiring special techniques to ensure the preservation of information. It comes together of computer science, information technology and engineering in the legal system. When discussing digital forensics with others, it may be described as computer forensics, network forensics, electronic data discovery, cyber forensics, etc.

×：The study of computer technology.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it involves information technology rather than research. It encompasses the study of information technology, but also includes collecting and protecting evidence and working within specific legal systems.

×：A set of hardware-specific processes that must be followed in order for evidence to be admissible in court.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it does not refer to hardware or software. It is a set of specific processes related to computer usage, examination of residual data, technical analysis and description of technical characteristics of the data, and reconstruction of the authentication of data by computer usage that must be followed for the evidence to be admissible in court.

×：Before an incident occurs, digital forensics roles and responsibilities should be assigned to network administrators.

This is wrong because digital forensics must be done by people with the proper training and skill set who could not possibly be administrators or network administrators. Digital forensics can be fragile and must have been worked on properly. If someone reboots an attacked system or inspects various files, it could corrupt and change executable evidence, key file timestamps, and erase any footprints the criminal may have left behind.

〇：Reconfiguration Phase

When a firm returns to its original or new site, the firm is ready to enter the reconfiguration phase. The firm has not entered the emergency state until it is operating at the original primary site or until it returns to the new site that was built to replace the primary site. If a firm needs to return from the replacement site to the original site, a number of logistical issues must be considered. Some of these issues include ensuring employee safety, proper communication and connection methods are working, and properly testing the new environment.

The definition of a rebuilding phase needs to be imagined and answered in the question text. It will test your language skills to see how it reads semantically rather than lexically correct.

×：Recovery Phase

Incorrect because it involves preparing an off-site facility (if needed), rebuilding networks and systems, and organizing staff to move to the new facility. To get the company up and running as quickly as possible, the recovery process needs to be as structured as possible. Templates should be developed during the planning phase. It can be used by each team during the recovery phase to take the necessary steps and document the results. The template keeps the team on task and quickly communicates to the team leader about progress, obstacles, and potential recovery time.

×：Project Initiation Phase

This is incorrect because it is how the actual business continuity plan is initiated. It does not occur during the execution of the plan. The Project Initiation Phase includes obtaining administrative support, developing the scope of the plan, and securing funding and resources.

×：Damage Assessment Phase

Incorrect because it occurs at the start of the actual implementation of the business continuity procedures. The damage assessment helps determine if the business continuity plan should be implemented based on the activation criteria predefined by the BCP coordinator and team. After the damage assessment, the team will move into recovery mode if one or more of the situations listed in the criteria occur.

〇：Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities

This is a problem of selecting unrelated items. Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities is a confidentiality issue. Although it is complicatedly worded, the operations on the data are unauthorized and extraction, and none of them include the destruction of data, which is the primary focus of integrity. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities.

In solving this problem, it is not necessary to know what an entity is. The focus is on whether any modification or destruction has taken place.

×：Unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data

Mistake. Because integrity is associated with unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data. Integrity is maintained when unauthorized modification is prevented. Hardware, software, and communication mechanisms must work together to correctly maintain and process data and move data to its intended destination without unexpected changes. Systems and networks must be protected from outside interference and contamination.

×：Unauthorized data modification

Unauthorized data modification is a mistake as it relates to integrity. Integrity is about protecting data, not changing it by users or other systems without authorization.

×：Intentional or accidental data substitution

Incorrect because intentional or accidental data substitution is associated with integrity. Integrity is maintained when assurances of the accuracy and reliability of information and systems are provided along with assurances that data will not be tampered with by unauthorized entities. An environment that enforces integrity prevents attacks, for example, the insertion of viruses, logic bombs, or backdoors into the system that could corrupt or replace data. Users typically incorrectly affect the integrity of the system and its data (internal users may also perform malicious acts). For example, a user may insert incorrect values into a data processing application and charge a customer $3,000 instead of $300.

〇：Keys are generated from a master key.

To generate a composite key, a master key is created and a symmetric key (subkey) is generated. The key derivation function generates the encryption key from the secret value. The secret value can be a master key, passphrase, or password. The key derivation function (KDF) generates a key for symmetric key ciphers from a given password.

×：Session keys are generated from each other.

Session keys are generated from each other, not from the master key, which is incorrect.

×：Asymmetric ciphers are used to encrypt symmetric keys.

It is incorrect because key encryption is not even related to the key derivation function (KDF).

×：The master key is generated from the session key.

Reverse, incorrect. Session keys are generally generated from master keys.

〇：A change unanimously approved by the change control committee would be a step that does not require testing of the actual equipment.

This is a false choice question.

For different types of environmental changes, a structured change management process needs to be in place. Depending on the severity of the change requirement, the change and implementation may need to be presented to a change control committee. Change requests approved by the change control committee must be tested to discover any unintended consequences. This helps to demonstrate the purpose, consequences, and possible effects of the change in its various aspects. This means that just because a change has been approved by the change control board does not mean that it does not need to be tested. The change control board has mandated action on the change, and its appropriateness must be ensured by testing. Therefore, the correct answer is: “A change that is unanimously approved by the change control committee is a step that does not require testing on the actual equipment.” The result will be

×：Changes approved by the change control committee should be kept as a log of changes.

This is correct change management.

×：A rough schedule should be created during the planning phase of the change.

This is correct change management.

×：Proposed changes should be prioritized and reviewed.

This is correct change management.

〇：TLS is an open community version of SSL.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are cryptographic protocols used to protect communications by encrypting segments of a network connection. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol.

×：TLS is an open community version of SSL. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol. x: The SSL protocol can be modified by developers to extend its capabilities.

This is incorrect because SSL is a proprietary protocol developed by Netscape. This means that the technical community cannot easily interoperate and extend SSL to extend to its functionality.

×：SSL is an open community protocol while TLS is a proprietary protocol.

The meaning and matching are reversed.

×：SSL is an extended version and backward compatible with TLS.

Wrong, since TLS is actually more extensible than SSL and is not backward compatible with SSL.

Greenfield is undeveloped land that has not yet been built upon. The perspectives for selecting a site as a data center site include topography, utilities, and public safety.

• Topography refers to the physical shape of the landscape-hills, valleys, trees, streams.
• Utility refers to the degree to which power and internet in the area are reliable.
• Public safety is in terms of how high is the crime rate in the area and how close is the police force.

Disposable passwords and one-time pads are passwords but generated from something you own, not something you know. In other words, possession.

MAC (mandatory access control) is often used when confidentiality is of utmost importance. Access to objects is determined by labels and clearances. It is often used in organizations where confidentiality is very important, such as the military.

〇：Known Plaintext Attacks

A known-plaintext attack is a situation in which a decryptor can obtain plaintext indiscriminately. A ciphertext-alone attack is a situation where a decryptor can acquire ciphertext indiscriminately. A known-plaintext attack acquires the plaintext but does not know what ciphertext it is paired with, meaning that decryption is attempted with only two random ciphertexts. In this situation, it is difficult to decrypt. Therefore, the correct answer is “known-plaintext attack.

×：Selective Plaintext Attack

A choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose the plaintext to acquire and obtain the ciphertext.

×：Adaptive Choice Plaintext Attack

An adaptive choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose which plaintext to acquire and acquire the ciphertext, and can repeat the acquisition again after seeing the result.

×：None of the above

It is rare for the answer to be “none of the above” when the choice is “most of the above.

〇：Check for errors caused by principal code modifications.

Regression testing finds defects after code changes have occurred. It looks for reduced or lost functionality, including old bugs. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Check for errors due to changes in the main code.” will be.

×：Install the developed software on the customer’s hardware.

This is not a test, but part of the release.

×：Checking the detection and processing when faced with a failure.

This is so-called troubleshooting and is accomplished by handing over the operational plan and procedures to the operations team.

×：Checking the interfaces of software components.

This is testing against the interface and is performed as part of the test items for internal and external coupling tests.

Application firewalls target Layer 7 of the OSI. The main advantage of an application firewall is its ability to understand specific applications and protocols. Packets are not decrypted until Layer 6, so Layer 7 can see the entire packet. Other firewalls can only inspect the packet, not the payload. It can detect if an unwanted application or service is trying to bypass the firewall by using a protocol on an allowed port, or if the protocol is being used in a malicious manner.

〇：How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

×：Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

×：Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

×：A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

〇：Statistically predictable

The two main types of symmetric algorithms are block ciphers and stream ciphers. Block ciphers perform a mathematical function on a block of bits at a time. Stream ciphers do not divide the message into blocks. Instead, a stream cipher treats the message as a stream of bits and performs the mathematical function on each bit individually. If it were statistically predictable, it would not be a practical encryption technique in the first place.

×：Statistically Fair Keystreams

Statistically fair keystreams are an element of good stream ciphers. Therefore, it is incorrect. Another way to say a statistically unbiased keystream is that it is a highly random keystream that is difficult to predict.

×：The repetitive pattern of bit strings treated in a keystream is long.

Another way to say the randomness of a keystream is that it is highly random, with long repetitions = rarely repeated = highly random.

×：The keystream is irrelevant to the key.

A keystream that is not related to a key is an element of a good stream cipher. Therefore, it is incorrect. This is important because the key provides the randomness of the encryption process.

A security document documents the security to be achieved.” To achieve “strong security” a clear definition is needed. Since the definition varies from organization to organization, it is necessary to put it in writing. There are five documents, with policy at the top, each of which is mandatory or optional.

〇：The security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor

The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is a complete combination of protection mechanisms for a system. These are in the form of hardware, software, and firmware. These same components also comprise the security kernel. Reference monitors are access control concepts implemented and enforced by the security kernel via hardware, software, and firmware. In doing so, it ensures that the security kernel, the subject, has the proper permissions to access the object it is requesting. The subject, be it a program, user, or process, cannot access the requesting file, program, or resource until it is proven that it has the proper access rights.

×：The reference monitor is the core of the Trusted Computing Base (TCP), which is comprised of the security kernel.

This is incorrect because the reference monitor is not the core of the TCB. The core of the TCB is the security kernel, and the security kernel implements the concepts of the reference monitor. The reference monitor is a concept about access control. It is often referred to as an “abstract machine” because it is not a physical component.

×：The reference monitor implements and executes the security kernel.

The reference monitor does not implement and execute the security kernel, which is incorrect. On the contrary, the security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor. The reference monitor is an abstract concept, while the security kernel is a combination of hardware, software, and firmware in a trusted computing base.

×：The security kernel, i.e., the abstract machine, implements the concept of a reference monitor.

This is incorrect because abstract machine is not another name for security kernel. Abstract machine is another name for the reference monitor. This concept ensures that the abstract machine acts as an intermediary between the subject and the object, ensuring that the subject has the necessary rights to access the object it is requesting and protecting the subject from unauthorized access and modification. The security kernel functions to perform these activities.

P.A.S.T.A. is a seven-step process to find ways to protect the value of your assets while analyzing your compliance and business. P.A.S.T.A. provides a roadmap. Threat management processes and policies can be discovered. The main focus is on finding threats, which is where risk-centric thinking and simulation come into play.

〇：Yes. The same goal should be held because there is security in achieving corporate goals.

There are KPIs and other marketin indicators to achieve organizational goals. Developing a security function in the organization also exists to achieve these goals.

×：Yes. Marketing in the security industry is allowed to be risk-off.

By “marketing in the security industry,” I do not mean aligning the security function within the organization.

×：No. The division of labor should be strictly enforced and left to specialists.

While the division of labor in an organization is certainly important, all members of the organization need to be security conscious.

×：No. Security has nothing to do with confidential information that would be an executive decision.

Security should be addressed by the entire organization. It is not irrelevant.

〇：Business Continuity Processes Integrate Change Management Processes

Unfortunately, business continuity plans can quickly become outdated. An outdated BCP can give a company a false sense of security, which can be fatal if a disaster actually occurs. One of the simplest, most cost-effective, and process-efficient ways to keep your plan current is to incorporate it into your organization’s change management process. Are new applications, equipment, and services documented? Are updates and patches documented? The change management process should be updated to incorporate fields and triggers that alert the BCP team when significant changes occur and provide a means to update recovery documentation. Ensure that the BCP is kept up-to-date, and other measures include maintaining personnel evaluations of the plan and conducting regular training on using the plan, such as making business continuity part of all business decisions.

×：Update hardware, software, and application changes

Wrong because hardware, software, and application changes occur frequently; unless the BCP is part of a change management process, these changes are not included in the BCP. The BCP should be updated when changes to the environment occur. If it is not updated after a change, it is out of date.

×：Infrastructure and Environment Change Updates

Incorrect because infrastructure and environment changes occur frequently. Unless the BCP is part of a change management process, as with software, hardware, and application changes, infrastructure and environment changes are unlikely to result in a transition to the BCP.

×：Personnel changes

Incorrect, as the plan may become obsolete. It is not uncommon for BCPs to be abandoned when the person or persons responsible for maintenance leave the company. These responsibilities must be reassigned. To ensure this, maintenance responsibilities must be built into job descriptions and properly monitored.

Level 2 of the software functional maturity model is reproducible. It is a maturity level where some processes are reproducible and produce constant results. The process discipline is not rigorous, but it helps to maintain existing processes. Therefore, the correct answer is Level 2.

At Level 1, the process is usually undocumented and dynamic. It tends to be driven by users and events in an ad hoc, uncontrolled, reactive manner. As a result, the process is chaotic and unstable.

At Level 2, at maturity, some processes are repeatable and will produce consistent results. Process discipline will not be rigid, but where it exists it will help ensure that existing processes are maintained.

At Level 3, a documented set of standard processes has been established and has improved somewhat over time.

At Level 4, the process is being evaluated to ensure that it is achieving its goals. Process users experience the process under multiple and varied conditions to demonstrate competence.

Level 5 focuses on continuous improvement of process performance through incremental and innovative technical changes/improvements.

〇：Social Engineering

Social engineering is an attack that invites human error rather than system. It occurs regardless of system architecture and installed software.

×：DDoS Attacks

A DDoS attack is a mass DoS attack against a target website or server from multiple computers.

×：Ransomware

Ransomware is malware that freezes data by encrypting it and demands a ransom from the owner.

×：Zero-day attacks

A zero-day attack is an attack on a vulnerability that was disclosed before it was fixed.

〇：Password authentication and secret questions

Passwords are a memory-based authentication method. The secret question is also a memory-based authentication method, and is not a combination of two-factor authentication methods. Therefore, the correct answer is “password authentication and secret question.

×：Password authentication and fingerprint authentication

It is memory authentication information x body authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

×：Password authentication and one-time password authentication using a token machine.

This is memory authentication information x possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

×：Password authentication and IC card authentication

This is memory authentication information × possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

〇：Virtual Container for Data from Multiple Sources
Network directories are containers for users and network resources. Because one directory does not contain all the users and resources in an enterprise, a collection of directories must be used. A virtual directory collects the necessary information used from sources scattered throughout the network and stores it in a central virtual directory (virtual container). This provides a unified view of digital identity information for all users across the enterprise. The virtual directory is regularly synchronized with all identity stores (individual network directories) to ensure that up-to-date information is being used by all applications and identity management components in the enterprise.

×：Metadirectory

Virtual directories are similar to metadirectories, but incorrect because metadirectories work with one directory and virtual directories work with multiple data sources. When the Identity Management component calls the virtual directory, it can scan different directories across the enterprise, but the metadirectory only has the ability to scan one directory it is associated with.

×：User attribute information stored in the HR database

Incorrect because it describes an identity store. Much of the information stored in identity management directories is scattered throughout the enterprise. User attribute information (employee status, job description, department, etc.) is typically stored in the HR database. Authentication information can be stored in a Kerberos server, and resource-oriented authentication information can be stored in the domain controller’s Active Directory. These are commonly referred to as identity stores and are located elsewhere on the network. Many identity management products use virtual directories to call up the data in these identity stores.

×：Services that allow administrators to configure and manage the way identities are

This is incorrect because it describes a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage how identification, authentication, permissions, and access control are performed within a network. It uses namespaces to manage objects in the directory and enforces security policies configured by performing access control and identity management functions.

〇：MTTR

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is the average time it takes to repair a device and return it to pre-failure production. Using a redundant array as an example, MTTR is the time it takes to replace the failed drive after the actual failure is noticed and the time the redundant array has completed rewriting the information on the new drive. Therefore, the correct answer is MTTR.

×：SLA

Service Level Agreements (SLA) are agreements on service quality, such as usage volume and failure recovery.

×：Hot Swap

Hot swapping refers to replacing, attaching, or disconnecting parts, cables, etc. while equipment is still in operation.

×：MTBF

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is the average time it takes for a device to fail after repair.

Deleting a file is physically recoverable. Shredding, demagnetizing, and overwriting are all methods that render the file physically unrecoverable.

〇：Cost-benefit analysis

To require that controls be put in place to reduce risk within acceptable limits, measures need to be selected that are identified as realistic, sufficiently likely, and sufficiently impactful. Simply analyzing the costs and benefits of possible measures will help determine what measures should be taken.

×：Risk Analysis

This is incorrect because risk determination is only the first step in identifying what may be needed to control risk within acceptable thresholds.

×：ALE Consequences

Wrong because ALE informs the firm of what it could lose if a particular threat becomes real. The value of the ALE goes into the cost-benefit analysis, but the ALE does not address the costs of the countermeasure and the benefits of the countermeasure.

×：Identifying vulnerabilities and threats that pose a risk

This is incorrect because although the vulnerability and threat assessments make the need for countermeasures known, the assessments alone do not determine what the cost-effectiveness of the competing countermeasures is expected to be.

Type 1 authentication treats what you know as credentials. This is accomplished through passwords, passphrases, PINs, etc., and is also referred to as the knowledge factor.

〇：PCI DSS

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a framework to avoid personal information leakage when making electronic payments. Therefore, the correct answer is “PCI DSS.

By the way, if you were to ask, “Which of the following are possible?” I am tempted to argue that other frameworks may be used as well. However, in the CISSP exam, you may have to choose “the most plausible” option in some cases. Therefore, we have used this phrase.

×：HITECH

The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) is an enhanced version of HIPPA that applies not only to data management but also to health care business associates.

×：OCTAVE

OCTAVE is one of the risk assessment frameworks introduced in CERT.

×：COBIT

COBIT is a framework for measuring the maturity of a company’s IT governance. It was proposed by the Information Systems Control Association of America (ISACA) and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI).

Injection attacks are cracking attacks in which special strings are embedded in user forms and submitted to malfunction the receiving user’s information processing. Sufficiently strong input validation and data type restrictions on input fields, input length limits, and modifications are to do it. Only allow users to enter appropriate data into fields. Limit the number of characters a user can use, and possibly restrict by character type, allowing only letters in names, numbers in phone numbers, and displaying country and state drop-downs.

〇：COBIT defines IT goals, ITIL provides process-level procedures

COBIT is a framework developed by ISACA (formerly the Information Systems Audit and Controls) and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It defines goals for controls, not just security needs, to ensure that IT is properly managed and that IT is responsive to business needs. The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the de facto standard for IT service management best practices. A customizable framework, ITIL provides goals, the general activities required to achieve these goals, and the input and output values for each process required to achieve these determined goals. In essence, COBIT addresses “what needs to be accomplished” and ITIL addresses “how to accomplish”.

×：COBIT is a model of IT governance, ITIL is a model of corporate governance.

While COBIT can be used as a model for IT governance, ITIL is wrong because it is not a model for corporate governance. In fact, the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) is a model of corporate governance. COBIT is derived from the COSO framework. COBIT can be thought of as a way to accomplish many COSO goals, but only from an IT perspective. To achieve many of the goals addressed in COBIT, organizations can use ITIL, which provides process-level steps to achieve IT service management goals.

×：COBIT is a model for corporate governance, ITIL is customizable for IT service management.

As mentioned above, COBIT is incorrect because it can be used as a model for IT governance, not corporate governance. COSO is a model of corporate governance. The second half of the answer is correct. ITIL is a customizable framework and is available as either a series of books or online for IT service management.

×：COBIT provides a business objectives framework, ITIL provides an IT service level objectives framework.

This is inappropriate because COBIT defines the control objectives that should be used to properly manage IT, enabling IT to address business needs as well as IT security needs. ITIL provides steps to achieve IT service management goals related to business needs. ITIL was created because of the increased reliance on information technology to meet business needs.

〇：Increased Processing Power

The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.

×：Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming

This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.

×：Dual-mode computation

The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.

×：Direct Memory Access I/O

Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.

〇：Softphones are safer than IP phones. 

IP softphones should be used with caution. A softphone is a software application that allows users to make calls via computer over the Internet. Replacing dedicated hardware, a softphone works like a traditional telephone. Skype is an example of a softphone application. Compared to hardware-based IP phones, softphones are more receptive to IP networks. However, softphones are no worse than other interactive Internet applications because they do not separate voice traffic from data, as IP phones do, and also because data-centric malware can more easily enter the network through softphones. network.

×：VoIP networks should be protected with the same security controls used on data networks.

The statement is incorrect because it correctly describes the security of an IP telephony network. an IP telephony network uses the same technology as a traditional IP network, which allows it to support voice applications. Therefore, IP telephony networks are susceptible to the same vulnerabilities as traditional IP networks and should be protected accordingly. This means that IP telephony networks should be designed to have adequate security.

×：As an endpoint, IP telephony can be a target of attack.

Incorrect because true: An IP phone on an IP telephony network is equivalent to a workstation on a data network in terms of vulnerability to attack. Thus, IP phones should be protected with many of the same security controls implemented on traditional workstations. For example, the default administrator password must be changed. Unnecessary remote access functions need to be disabled. Logging should be enabled and the firmware upgrade process should be secured.

×：The current Internet architecture in which voice is transmitted is more secure than physical phone lines.

True and therefore incorrect. In most cases, the current Internet architecture in which voice is transmitted is more secure than physical telephone lines. Physical phone lines provide a point-to-point connection, which is difficult to leverage over the software-based tunnels that make up the bulk of the Internet. This is an important factor to consider when protecting IP telephony networks because the network is now transmitting 2 valuable asset data and voice. It is not unusual for personal information, financial information, and other sensitive data to be spoken over the phone; intercepting this information over an IP telephony network is as easy as intercepting regular data. Currently voice traffic should also be encrypted.

War Dialing is the indiscriminate and repeated act of cracking dial-ups in search of dial-up lines, such as those for non-public internal networks. It automatically scans a list of telephone numbers, usually dialing all numbers in the local area code, and searches modems, computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.

〇：XACML

XACML allows two or more companies to have a trust model set up to share identity, authentication, and authorization methods. This means that when you authenticate against your own software, you can pass the authentication parameters to your partner. This allows them to interact with their partner’s software without having to authenticate more than once. This is done via XACML (Extensible Access Control Markup Language), which allows multiple organizations to share application security policies based on a trust model XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML. It declares access control policies and describes how to interpret access control policies.

×：XML (Extensible Markup Language)

XML (Extensible Markup Language) is incorrect because it is a way to electronically code documents and represent data structures such as web services. XML is not used to share security information. XML is an open standard that is more robust than traditional HTML. In addition to serving as a markup language, XML also serves as the foundation for other industry-specific XML standards. With XML, companies can communicate with each other while using a markup language that meets their specific needs.

×：SPML

Service Provisioning Markup Language (SPML) is incorrect because it is used by companies to exchange user, resource, and service provisioning information rather than application security information. SPML is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS that allows enterprise platforms, such as web portals and application servers, to provision requests to multiple companies for the purpose of securely and quickly setting up web services and applications. It is intended to enable the generation of.

×：GML

Incorrect because GML (Generalized Markup Language) is a method created by IBM for document formatting. It describes a document in terms of parts (chapters, paragraphs, lists, etc.) and their relationships (heading levels). GML was the predecessor of SGML (Standard Generalized Markup Language) and HTML (Hypertext Markup Language).

〇：Database Migration

The movement of accessible data from one repository to another may be required over its lifetime, but is generally not as important as the other phases provided in response to this question.

×：Data specification and classification

This is incorrect because the determination of what the data is and its classification is the first essential phase that can provide the appropriate level of protection.

×：Continuous monitoring and auditing of data access

Incorrect because without continuous monitoring and auditing of access to sensitive data, breaches cannot be identified and security cannot be guaranteed.

×：Data Archiving

Incorrect as even the most sensitive data is subject to retention requirements. This means that it must be archived for an appropriate period of time and with the same level of security as during actual use.

〇：Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an access control that enforces access privileges by pre-classifying resources into levels. There are several types of access rights to data files. There are several types of access rights to data files: the user of the data file, the owner who creates the data file, and the administrator who decides which owner can create the data. SELinux, TOMOYO Linux, Trusted BSD, and Trusted Solaris are methods used by MACs.

×：Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control method that allows the owner of an access target to change access privileges.

×：Role Access Control (RAC)

There is no such term. A close equivalent is role-based access control, which divides accounts by role and applies access control to those roles.

×：Voluntary Access Control (VAC)

There is no such term.

〇：Socket

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) are transport protocols used by applications to retrieve data over a network. Both use ports to communicate with the upper OSI layer and keep track of the various conversations that occur simultaneously. Ports are also the mechanism used to identify how other computers access services. When a TCP or UDP message is formed, the source and destination ports are included in the header information along with the source and destination IP addresses. This IP address and port number is called a socket; the IP address serves as the gateway to the computer and the port serves as the gateway to the actual protocol or service.

×：IP address

This is incorrect because the IP address does not tell the packet how to communicate with the service or protocol. The purpose of an IP address is to identify and address the location of a host or network interface. Each node in a network has a unique IP address. This information, along with the source and destination ports, make up a socket. The IP address tells the packet where to go, and the port indicates how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol.

×：Port

The port is incorrect because it tells the packet only how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol. It does not tell the packet where it should go. The IP address provides this information. Ports are communication endpoints used by IP protocols such as TCP and UDP. Ports are identified by a number.

×：Frame

Frame is incorrect because the term is used to refer to a datagram after the header and trailer have been given to the data link layer.

〇：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activity taking place within the host system.

Virtual firewalls can be bridge-mode products that monitor individual communication links between virtual machines. They can also be integrated within a hypervisor in a virtual environment. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of guest system software. When a firewall is embedded within the hypervisor, it can monitor all activities that occur within the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual network links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is incorrect because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links between hosts and not network links. Hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activities taking place within the guest system rather than the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is wrong because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links, and the hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, but not the guest system. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of the guest system software. A firewall, when embedded within the hypervisor, can monitor all activities taking place within the system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual guest systems, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the network system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic between guest systems, and a hypervisor integrated allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, not the network system, so Wrong.

〇：Reviewing and evaluating against security documentation.

Provisioning refers to the management of account information. Reviewing documents is not part of provisioning. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Review and evaluate security documentation.” The answer will be

×：When an employee leaves the company, the account should be deactivated as soon as possible.

This is proper provisioning for users and account usage that belong to the organization.

×：Periodic review and adherence to the principle of least privilege.

This is appropriate provisioning for account access privileges.

×：Appropriate deletion of accounts that are no longer needed.

This is appropriate provisioning for the management of minimum account information.

〇：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with a public key.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses public key cryptography to provide data encryption, server authentication, message integrity, and optionally client authentication. When a client accesses a cryptographically protected page, the web server initiates TLS and begins the process of securing subsequent communications. The server performs a three-handshake to establish a secure session. After that, client authentication with a digital certificate, as the case may be, comes in. The client then generates a session key, encrypts it with the server’s public key, and shares it. This session key is used as the symmetric key for encrypting the data to be transmitted thereafter. Thus, the correct answer is: “The client generates a session key and encrypts it with the public key.” will be

×：The server generates the session key and encrypts it with the public key.

The server does not encrypt with the public key.

×：The server generates a session key and encrypts it with the private key.

Even if encryption is performed from the server side, it can be decrypted with the public key, so it is not structurally possible.

×：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with its private key.

The client side does not have the private key.

〇：Review labeling and treat as critical confidential information.

Labeling is the process of sorting data according to its level of confidentiality. Labeling helps clarify the confidentiality level of data management. If the labeling is incorrect, it should be corrected at any time to manage the data in accordance with the confidentiality level. Therefore, “Review the labeling and treat it as critical confidential information.” is the correct answer.

×：The entire sentence should be treated as confidential information because the business should be flexible.

This is not an appropriate operation because the text containing critical confidential information is treated as confidential information.

×：As supplemental information to the document, state that “a part of the text contains material confidential information.

This is not a fundamental solution because stating this as supplementary information is in effect treating the information as different confidential levels.

×：Destroy the document because it is impossible for different confidential information to be crossed.

Destroying the document is not an appropriate operation because it is a damage to one’s own assets.

Translated with www.DeepL.com/Translator (free version)

〇：Because the information may be in the hands of someone outside the company after it has been placed in the dumpster.

Dumpster diving, or scavenging, is finding important information in the trash. Putting it in the trash can make you feel relieved that it has been removed. However, the trash can is nothing more than a shared space between internal and external parties, such as cleaning staff. Make sure to shred any text that contains confidential information to prevent leakage.

×：When restoring documents from the trash, they will be mixed with other documents.

They will not be destroyed for the purpose of restoring them.

×：Confidential documents do not need to be destroyed.

Even confidential documents must be destroyed if they are no longer needed.

×：There is no need to shred it.

No, of course they must be shredded.

〇：Multiple major and used usages should be screened to make sure they work on the target browsers.

If the service is for BtoC, it is considered that more target users should be supported.

×：It should be checked if it works on a particular browser.

User cases that do not work on certain browsers may occur after release.

×：Confirm that it works on the most secure browser.

If it is secure, it is expected to work in the most restricted of browsers.

In reality, however, browser specifications also vary, including browser backs and terminals.

×：Make sure it works on OS-standard browsers.

Browsers are not just OS standard. In reality, end users also download and use their favorite browsers from app stores.

Overwrapping is done by writing zero or random characters to the data. Overwrapping on corrupted media is not possible.

〇：Conforms to the X.509 standard and assigns a namespace to each object accessed in the database by LDAP.

Most companies have directories that contain information about company network resources and users. Most directories use a hierarchical database format based on the X.500 standard (not X.509) and a type of protocol such as LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) that allows subjects and applications to interact with the directory The application can then use LDAP to access the directory. Applications can request information about a particular user by making an LDAP request to the directory, and users can request information about a particular resource using a similar request. The directory service assigns an Distinguished Name (DN) to each object in the database based on the X.500 standard to be accessed. Each distinguished name represents a set of attributes about a particular object and is stored as an entry in the directory.

×：Namespaces are used to manage objects in the directory.

This is incorrect because objects in a hierarchical database are managed by a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage identification, authentication, permissions, and access control for the network. Objects in the directory are labeled and identified by namespace, which is how the directory service keeps objects organized.

×：Enforce security policies by performing access control and identity management functions.

This is incorrect because directory services enforce the security policy set by performing access control and identity management functions. For example, when a user logs into a domain controller in a Windows environment, the directory service (Active Directory) determines which network resources are accessible and which are not.

×：Administrators can configure and manage how identification takes place within the network.

Directory service is incorrect because it allows the administrator to configure and manage identification within the network. It also allows for the configuration and management of authentication, authorization, and access control.

〇：Make the mail relay server available to everyone.

This is a question of choosing the “ineffective” one. An open mail relay server is not an effective countermeasure against spam. In fact, spammers often use spammers to distribute spam, because the attackers can hide their identities. An open mail relay server is an SMTP server configured to allow inbound SMTP connections from anyone on the Internet, and many relays are properly configured to prevent attackers from distributing spam and pornography. Thus, the correct answer is “have an email relay server available to everyone.” will be.

×：Build a properly configured mail relay server.

A properly configured mail relay server can also suppress spam mail.

×：Perform filtering at the e-mail gateway.

Filtering emails that are considered spam mail at the gateway will help to prevent spam mail.

×：Filtering at the client.

Filtering spam mail at the client, i.e., in a mailing application such as Outlook, is considered to be a countermeasure against spam mail.

〇：Subject

The functionality table identifies the access rights that a particular subject owns with respect to a particular object. Each subject is mapped for a function (capability) such as read or write perform. Therefore, the subject is the one that seems to fit in the choices.

×：Objects

Incorrect because the Object is bound to an Access Control List (ACL), not a functional component.

×：Product

Product is incorrect because it is just an example to implement a subject, object, or feature table.

×：Application

Application is incorrect because it is just a concrete example of an object.

〇：Data Protection Directive

In many cases, the European Union (EU) takes personal privacy more seriously than most other countries in the world and therefore adheres to strict laws regarding data considered personal information based on the European Union Principles for the Protection of Personal Data. This set of principles addresses the use and communication of information that is considered private in nature. These principles and how to comply with them are contained in the EU Data Protection Directive. All European states must comply with these principles, and all companies doing business with EU companies must follow this directive if their business involves the exchange of privacy-type data.

×：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

Image B is incorrect because the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an international organization that brings together different governments to help address the economic, social, and governance challenges of a globalized economy. For this reason, the OECD has developed national guidelines to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone adheres to the same kinds of rules.

×：Federal Private Sector Bill

The Federal Private Bill is incorrect. There is no official bill by this name.

×：Privacy Protection Act

The Privacy Protection Act is the wrong answer. There is no official legislation by this name.

〇：Password synchronization between different systems

Password synchronization is designed to reduce the complexity of maintaining different passwords for different systems. Password synchronization technology allows a single password to be maintained across multiple systems by transparently synchronizing passwords to other systems in real time. This reduces help desk call volume. However, one of the disadvantages of this approach is that only one password is used to access different resources. This means that a hacker only needs to figure out one set of credentials to gain unauthorized access to all resources. Therefore, the correct answer is “password synchronization between different systems”.

×：Password reset by administrator query

This does not reduce the amount of help desk support because the end user must contact the administrator.

×：End-user manual password reset by self-service

This is the so-called “self-service” password reset, in which end users change their passwords themselves from their profile pages.

This is the most practical way to reduce the amount of helpdesk support, but it does not meet the requirement of easy access to multiple resources in case of a password compromise.

×：Password reset by inquiry

This does not reduce the amount of helpdesk support because it requires the end user to contact the administrator. An inquiry is an inquiry whether or not an administrator is attached.

〇：How to use the data

How data is used does not depend on how sensitive it is. In other words, data is sensitive no matter how it is used, even if it is not used at all.

×：Identifying who needs access to the data

Wrong. This is because data classification criteria must take into account very directly who needs access to the data and their clearance level in order to see sensitive data. If data is classified at too high a level, that user will not have access. If the level is classified too low, an unauthorized user may access the data.

×：Value of the data

This is incorrect because the intrinsic value of the data directly determines the degree of protection. This is determined by its classification. This is true regardless of whether the prioritization must be confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

×：The level of damage that could occur if the data were disclosed.

This is erroneous because the degree of damage that disclosure, modification, or destruction of the data would cause is directly related to the level of protection that must be provided.

〇：Can be the cheapest of the off-site options, but can create many security problems due to mixed operations.

Reciprocal agreements, also called mutual aid, mean that Company A agrees to allow Company B to use its facilities if Company B suffers a disaster, and vice versa. While this is a less expensive way to move than other off-site alternatives, it is not always the best choice. In most environments, the facility has reached its limits regarding the use of space, resources, and computing power. To allow different firms to come in and operate out of the same store could be detrimental to both firms. The stress of both companies working in the same environment can cause tremendous levels of tension. If that did not work out, it would provide the only short-term solution. Configuration management could be a nightmare, and mixing operations could result in many security problems. Reciprocal agreements have been known to work well for certain companies, such as newsprint. These firms require very specific technology and equipment that is not available through any subscription service. For most other organizations, reciprocity agreements are, at best, generally a secondary option for disaster protection.

×：Fully set up and ready to operate within a few hours is the most expensive of the off-site options.

This is a description of a hot site.

×：Inexpensive option, but takes the most time and effort to get up and running after a disaster.

Explanation for cold sites.

×：A good alternative for companies that rely on proprietary software, but regular annual testing is usually not available.

This is incorrect as it describes with respect to companies that depend on proprietary software. Having proprietary software in a shared space with other vendors is basically undesirable from the standpoint of license agreements involved.

〇：Software Escrow

If you do not have access to the software, but the developer may be out of business, you should plan for what to do after that out-of-business event. Software escrow means that the third party retains the source and compiled code, backup manuals, and other support materials. The agreement between the software vendor, the customer, and the third party would typically be that the customer would only have access to the source code when the vendor goes out of business and in the event of the vendor’s inability to fulfill its stated responsibilities or breach of the original agreement. The customer is protected because they can gain access to the source code and other materials through a third-party escrow agent.

×：Reciprocal Treatment Agreement

Although the term “reciprocal treatment agreement” does not exist, a close concept is mutual assistance agreements. A Mutual Assistance Agreement (MAA) is a promise to support each other in the event of a disaster by sharing facilities. There are times when you want to do something about a disaster, but you don’t have the funds to do it. In such a case, you can find a similar organization and agree to cooperate with each other in the event of a disaster.

×：Electronic Data Vault

Electronic data vaulting (e-vaulting) is the use of a remote backup service to electronically transmit backups off-site at regular intervals or when files are changed.

×：Business interruption insurance

Although the term business interruption insurance does not exist, it can be interpreted as a concept similar to insurance in the event of business interruption. Insurance is typically applied against financial risk. In this issue, software escrow is more appropriate because we want to continue access to the software.

〇：Dynamic Testing

Dynamic testing is testing that is performed by actually running the developed program. Compared to static testing, it is a practical test in which the program is actually run and checked. Therefore, the correct answer is “dynamic testing.

×：Static Testing

Static testing is testing that is performed without running the developed program.

×：White box testing

White box testing is a test to confirm the operation of a program after understanding the contents of the program.

×：Black box testing

Black box testing is testing to confirm that the program does not behave unexpectedly without understanding the contents of the program.