〇：XACML

XACML allows two or more companies to have a trust model set up to share identity, authentication, and authorization methods. This means that when you authenticate against your own software, you can pass the authentication parameters to your partner. This allows them to interact with their partner’s software without having to authenticate more than once. This is done via XACML (Extensible Access Control Markup Language), which allows multiple organizations to share application security policies based on a trust model XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML. It declares access control policies and describes how to interpret access control policies.

×：XML (Extensible Markup Language)

XML (Extensible Markup Language) is incorrect because it is a way to electronically code documents and represent data structures such as web services. XML is not used to share security information. XML is an open standard that is more robust than traditional HTML. In addition to serving as a markup language, XML also serves as the foundation for other industry-specific XML standards. With XML, companies can communicate with each other while using a markup language that meets their specific needs.

×：SPML

Service Provisioning Markup Language (SPML) is incorrect because it is used by companies to exchange user, resource, and service provisioning information rather than application security information. SPML is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS that allows enterprise platforms, such as web portals and application servers, to provision requests to multiple companies for the purpose of securely and quickly setting up web services and applications. It is intended to enable the generation of.

×：GML

Incorrect because GML (Generalized Markup Language) is a method created by IBM for document formatting. It describes a document in terms of parts (chapters, paragraphs, lists, etc.) and their relationships (heading levels). GML was the predecessor of SGML (Standard Generalized Markup Language) and HTML (Hypertext Markup Language).

〇：Zachman Framework

The Zachman Framework is an enterprise architecture that determines the what, how, where, who, when, and why for each mandate. Enterprise architecture is to create a management structure to achieve business goals. We create an organization to achieve business goals, and basically, the larger the business goals, the larger the organization. If the structure of the organization is not in place, the organization will not run efficiently, as there may be residual work that needs to be done, or there may be friction between jobs due to authority that is covered by others. Therefore, it is necessary to clarify the scope of each job authority in order to put the organization in order. The job authority here is different from the perspectives of human resources or sales. It is easier to think of them as hierarchically separated to achieve business goals. Clarify the scope in Executive, Business Management, Architecture, Engineers, Subcontractors, and Stakeholders, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Zachman Framework.

×：SABSA

SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework to ensure that security measures are working properly in achieving business goals. Unlike the Zachman Framework, the tasks to be organized are hierarchical elements. Business Requirements > Conceptual Architecture > Logical Service Architecture > Physical Infrastructure Architecture > Technology and Products, each with a 5W1H practice.

×：Five-W method

There is no such term. If there is, it is a term coined to make it easier to interpret.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) floods are often used in distributed denial of service (DDOS) attacks because they are connectionless and yet allow for easy generation of UDP messages from various scripting and compilation languages. UDP is a datagram protocol.

Application firewalls target Layer 7 of the OSI. The main advantage of an application firewall is its ability to understand specific applications and protocols. Packets are not decrypted until Layer 6, so Layer 7 can see the entire packet. Other firewalls can only inspect the packet, not the payload. It can detect if an unwanted application or service is trying to bypass the firewall by using a protocol on an allowed port, or if the protocol is being used in a malicious manner.

〇：Trojan Horse

A Trojan horse is a seemingly harmless piece of malware that is contagious. Have you ever downloaded a nasty image and suddenly your computer stopped working?

×：Spyware

Spyware is malware that looks harmless when it does its evil. It secretly takes information from your computer to the outside.

×：Virus

Viruses are malware that can spread without user intervention and attach itself to other programs. It looks harmless but does not match in that it downloads applications.

×：Data diddlers

A data diddler is malware that gradually changes data over time.

〇：Diameter

Diameter is an authentication, authorization, and audit (AAA) protocol that not only provides the same kind of functionality as RADIUS and TACACS, but also offers more flexibility and capabilities to meet the emerging demands of today’s complex and diverse networks. Once all remote communication is done via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) connections, users can authenticate themselves via Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) to authenticated. The technology has become much more complex and there are multiple devices and protocols to choose from over the ever increasing Diameter protocol, Mobile IP, PPP, Voice over IP (VoIP), and other over Ethernet, wireless devices, smart phones, and other devices can authenticate themselves to the network using roaming protocols.

×：Watchdog

Watchdog timers are wrong because such processes are generally used to detect software failures such as abnormal termination or hangs. The watchdog function sends out “heartbeat” packets to determine if the service is responding. If not, the process can be terminated or reset. These packets help prevent software deadlocks, infinite loops, and process prioritization problems. This feature can be used in the AAA protocol to determine if a packet needs to be retransmitted and if a problem occurs and the connection should be closed and reopened, but it is not in the access control protocol itself.

×：RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is wrong because it is a network protocol and provides client/server authentication, authorization, and auditing for remote users.

×：TACACS

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS ) is incorrect because it provides essentially the same functionality as RADIUS.

〇：Meetings should be conducted with a fixed number of members and should be as small as possible.

The BCP committee should be large enough to represent each department within the organization. It should consist of people who are familiar with the different departments within the company, as each department has unique functions and unique risks and threats. All issues and threats will be formulated when they are brought in and discussed. This cannot be done effectively with a few divisions or a few people. The committee must consist of at least business unit, senior management, IT, security, communications, and legal personnel.

Conducting meetings with a fixed number of members and as few as possible is certainly not a misinterpretation of “elite few. However, one must know what is the “best” answer and answer it.

×：Committee members should be involved in the planning, testing, and implementation phases.

The answer is incorrect because it is correct that committee members need to be involved in the planning, testing, and implementation phases. If Matthew, the coordinator of the BCP, is a good business leader, he will consider that it is best to make team members feel ownership over their duties and roles. The people who develop the BCP must also be the ones who implement it. If some critical tasks are expected to be performed during a time of crisis, additional attention should be given during the planning and testing phase.

×：The business continuity coordinator should work with management to appoint committee members.

This is incorrect because the BCP coordinator should work with management to appoint committee members. However, management’s involvement does not end there. The BCP team should work with management to finalize the goals of the plan, identify the critical parts of the business that must be handled first in the event of a disaster, and identify department and task priorities. Management also needs to help direct the team on the scope and specific goals of the project.

×：The team should consist of people from different departments within the company.

This is incorrect because the team should consist of people from different departments within the company. This will be the only way for the team to consider the risks and threats that each department faces according to the organization.

Within the U.S. military complex and national security apparatus, the most common names for data classification become unclassified and classified. “Classified” information includes classified, critical secret, and top secret (Top Secret). Classified data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could harm national security. Top Secret data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could cause “serious” harm to national security. Finally, Top Secret data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could cause “serious” harm to national security.

〇：Declare the impact and consequences of the disaster.

The final step in the damage assessment is to declare the disaster. After the information from the damage assessment has been collected and evaluated, determine if the BCP actually needs to be activated. The BCP coordinator and team should determine the activation criteria before the disaster occurs.

×：Determine the cause of the disaster.

Determining the cause of the disaster is incorrect as it is the first step in the damage assessment process.

×：Identify resources that need to be replaced immediately.

Incorrect because identifying resources that need to be replaced immediately is not the last step in damage assessment.

×：Determine how long it will take to bring critical functions back online.

Incorrect because determining how long it will take to bring critical functions back online is the second-to-last step in damage assessment.

Computer worms are standalone malware computer programs that replicate themselves and spread to other computers. They typically operate at OSI reference layers 5-7.

〇：Keys are generated from a master key.

To generate a composite key, a master key is created and a symmetric key (subkey) is generated. The key derivation function generates the encryption key from the secret value. The secret value can be a master key, passphrase, or password. The key derivation function (KDF) generates a key for symmetric key ciphers from a given password.

×：Session keys are generated from each other.

Session keys are generated from each other, not from the master key, which is incorrect.

×：Asymmetric ciphers are used to encrypt symmetric keys.

It is incorrect because key encryption is not even related to the key derivation function (KDF).

×：The master key is generated from the session key.

Reverse, incorrect. Session keys are generally generated from master keys.

〇：Central Control Systems

The most common types of industrial control systems (ICS) are distributed control systems (DCS), programmable logic controllers (PLC), and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems. Although these systems provide a type of central control function, central control systems are not considered a common type of ICS because these systems are inherently distributed. DCSs are used to control product systems for industries such as water, electricity, and refineries. A DCS connects controllers that are distributed across geographic locations using a centralized supervisory control loop. This supervisory controller requests status data from field controllers and feeds this information back to a central interface for monitoring. Status data retrieved from sensors can be used in failover situations. The DCS can provide redundant protection in a modular fashion. This reduces the impact of a single failure. In other words, if a part of the system goes down, the entire system does not go down.

×：Programmable Logic Controllers

A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a common industrial control system (ICS) used to connect sensors throughout a utility network and convert this sensor signal data into digital data that can be processed by software monitoring and management. Originally created to perform simplified logic functions within basic hardware, PLCs have evolved into powerful controllers used in both SCADA and DCS systems. In SCADA systems, PLCs are most commonly used to communicate with remote field devices, while in DCS systems they are used as local controllers in supervisory control schemes. PLCs provide an application programming interface that allows communication with engineering control software applications.

×：Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) is used to refer to computerized systems used to collect and process data and apply operational control to components that make up a utility-based environment. This is a common type of ICS. SCADA control centers allow centralized monitoring and control of field sites (e.g., power grid, water supply systems). Field sites have remote station control devices (field devices) that provide data to the central control center. Based on the data sent from the field device, an automated process or operator can control the remote device to solve a problem or send commands to change the configuration for operational needs. This is a difficult environment to work within because the hardware and software is usually proprietary to a particular industry. It is privately owned and operated. Communication can be via telecommunication links, satellites, and microwave-based systems.

×：Distributed Control Systems

This is incorrect because Distributed Control Systems (DCS) are a common type of ICS. In a DCS, control elements are not centralized. The control elements are distributed throughout the system and managed by one or more computers. SCADA systems, DCSs, and PLCs are used in industrial sectors such as water, oil and gas, electrical, and transportation. These systems are considered “critical infrastructure” and are highly interconnected and dependent systems. Until now, these critical infrastructure environments have not used the same types of technologies and protocols as the Internet, making them very difficult to attack in isolation. Over time, these proprietary environments were converted to IP-based environments using IP-based workstations connected to networking devices. While this transition allows for centralized management and control, it also creates a type of cyber attack that is always vulnerable to the computer industry.

〇：Multiple major and used usages should be screened to make sure they work on the target browsers.

If the service is for BtoC, it is considered that more target users should be supported.

×：It should be checked if it works on a particular browser.

User cases that do not work on certain browsers may occur after release.

×：Confirm that it works on the most secure browser.

If it is secure, it is expected to work in the most restricted of browsers.

In reality, however, browser specifications also vary, including browser backs and terminals.

×：Make sure it works on OS-standard browsers.

Browsers are not just OS standard. In reality, end users also download and use their favorite browsers from app stores.

MTD represents the time it takes to signify severe and irreparable damage to the reputation and bottom line of an organization; RTO values are smaller than MTD values; RTO assumes that there is a period of acceptable downtime.

〇：Approval of the attack to the target organization

Permission must be obtained from the target organization for the attack during the planning phase. Even though it is a test, it takes an action that is similar to an attack. During the implementation, the target system cannot be updated, so approval must be obtained. We also need to understand the system to be penetrated in great detail, so that the information itself is not leaked to the outside world. Also, a successful intrusion will indicate that the system has been compromised. It is necessary to make an arrangement such as not waiting until a report is generated to inform the company of the situation. Therefore, the correct answer is “Approval of attack on the target organization.

×：Share the target organization’s design documents.

This is done as necessary. Although there are various design documents, detailed design documents such as detailed design documents and program design documents are generally not presented, but only the usage of the service and basic server configuration are generally shared.

×：Confirmation of OS version

As a rule, this is not done. Penetration testing is generally conducted from the investigation of the attack. In particular, there are few cases where the OS version is informed to the penetration tester.

×：Deployment of the attack tools to be used

It is not uncommon for attack tools to be deployed from the organization that possesses the system that is the target of the penetration. This in itself is an act of limiting the attack methods, as it does not constitute a realistic test.

〇：To allow the database to execute transactions as a single unit without interruption.

Online transaction processing (OLTP) is used when databases are clustered to provide high fault tolerance and performance. It provides a mechanism to monitor and address problems as they occur. For example, if a process stops functioning, the monitoring function within OLTP will detect and attempt to restart the process. If the process cannot be restarted, the transaction that occurred is rolled back to ensure that no data has been corrupted or that only a portion of the transaction occurred; OLTP records when the transaction occurred (in real time). Usually multiple databases in a distributed environment are updated.

This classification by the extent to which transaction processing is appropriate is very complex. Therefore, database software must implement ACID characteristics. Among them is atomicity, which means that the transaction is either executed entirely or not executed at all. It is the property that a transaction must either be executed completely or not at all.

When a question like this is answered incorrectly, judging that you could not solve it because you did not know OLTP will hinder your future study methods. Although the question text is worded in a complicated way, it is more important to understand what atomicity is in ACID than to memorize the definition of OLTP to solve the actual question.

×：To be able to establish database consistency rules.

It enforces the consistency rules as stated in the database security policy, but does not imply transaction atomicity.

×：To prevent rollbacks from occurring.

Transaction atomicity does not refer to suppressing rollbacks.

×：To prevent concurrent processes from interacting with each other.

This falls under independence, isolation, and segregation. Independence, isolation, and quarantine (isolation) means that the processes are hidden from other operations during processing. It is the property that even if multiple transactions are executed simultaneously, they must not produce the same processing results as if they were executed alone.

The expected annual loss amount is the value of losses that could occur in the future, equalized on an annual basis based on the frequency of occurrence. Therefore, it is the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the annual frequency of occurrence (ALO).

〇：Extraction of data from the database

In data classification, the data classification is used to specify which users have access to read and write data stored in the database, but it does not involve the extraction of data from the database. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data from the database.

What is this? This is a question that you may think “What is this?” but you need to calmly analyze the classification of data and the manipulation of data. The more time you spend, the more tempted you are to give a difficult answer, but keeping calm is important in solving abstract problems.

×：Grouping hierarchically classified information

This is the primary activity of data classification.

×：Ensuring that non-confidential data is not unnecessarily protected

It is written in a complicated way, but it says that what does not need to be protected does not need the ability to be protected either.

×：Understanding the impact of data leakage

Although not directly, we may check the impact of a data breach in order to understand its importance in classifying data. Ka.

Disk mirroring means writing the same data to multiple hard disks; a RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) controller must write all data twice, requiring at least two disks. Disk striping can also be provided when parity is used, but disk striping alone cannot provide redundancy.

〇：Regular software updates

You are the system administrator. As an administrator, what you should be doing is updating software on a regular basis. Therefore, the correct answer is “regular software updates.

There may be some that you should implement, but choosing the better of the two will also be tested in the actual exam.

×：Sophisticated product selection

In most cases, products that meet the requirements will be selected in accordance with the Request for Proposal (RFP) presented by the customer. Existing system administrators may be involved in some of these discussions, but this is not an appropriate response.

×：Early reporting to your supervisor

In all jobs, reporting to the supervisor is probably an essential part of the job. Here, however, it is more appropriate to focus on your position as a software system administrator.

×：Human resources to monitor the system

A resident system may allow you to deal with problems in a timely manner. However, here, it is more appropriate to focus on the position as a system administrator of the software.

〇：Make the mail relay server available to everyone.

This is a question of choosing the “ineffective” one. An open mail relay server is not an effective countermeasure against spam. In fact, spammers often use spammers to distribute spam, because the attackers can hide their identities. An open mail relay server is an SMTP server configured to allow inbound SMTP connections from anyone on the Internet, and many relays are properly configured to prevent attackers from distributing spam and pornography. Thus, the correct answer is “have an email relay server available to everyone.” will be.

×：Build a properly configured mail relay server.

A properly configured mail relay server can also suppress spam mail.

×：Perform filtering at the e-mail gateway.

Filtering emails that are considered spam mail at the gateway will help to prevent spam mail.

×：Filtering at the client.

Filtering spam mail at the client, i.e., in a mailing application such as Outlook, is considered to be a countermeasure against spam mail.

A captive portal is a mechanism that restricts communication with the outside world until user authentication, user registration, and user consent are performed when a terminal connects to the network.

Compromise is when what used to be secure encryption becomes insecure due to the evolution of computers. Cryptography is based on the sharing of a single answer, a key, among those communicating. The key is generated by computer calculations, and a third party must solve a difficult problem that would take several years to derive. However, as the computational power of computers has evolved, it is now possible to solve difficult problems that could not be solved before. In this case, encryption is meaningless. This is the compromise caused by evolution. Therefore, the correct answer is “Compromise.

〇：Clustering

Clustering is a fault-tolerant server technology in which servers are redundantly analogous. A server cluster is a group of servers that can be logically interpreted by users as one server and managed as a single logical system. Clustering provides availability and scalability. It helps to provide immunity to this group, physically distinct systems and failure and improved performance.

The problem statement is phrased in a difficult sentence. It would be difficult to derive the exact specific words from the phrase “logically coupled with a physically distinct group of systems.” In such questions, it is useful to use a process of elimination to derive options from the words that would be the point of the question. From the latter part, “technology that helps provide immunity to failure while also helping with scalability,” we can see that it is something that is both fault-tolerant and scalable. Fault tolerance alone does not narrow down the choices, but in terms of scalability features, clustering falls into this category. Therefore, the correct answer is “clustering.

×：Disk dupe

There is no such term. When presented with a seemingly incomprehensible sentence, you may consider the possibility that it is a word you probably do not know, given the time limit.

×：RAID

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent/Inexpensive Disks) is a technology for operating multiple hard disks as a single hard disk. It has a mechanism to improve physical redundancy by how the data to be recorded is written to the hard disks. This is not a technology system that ensures scalability.

×：Virtualization

Virtualization is a technology that makes it appear as if multiple operating systems are running on the system. Or, it is an environment that enables the construction of a real environment through simulation-like operations surrounding them. While virtualized environments allow for the construction of environments that provide fault tolerance and scalability, they do not match the operation of logically combining them with physically different groups of systems.

〇：SOAP allows Remote Procedure Calls to be used to exchange information between applications over the Internet.

To allow applications to exchange information over the Internet, the Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) was created to be used instead of Remote Procedure Call (RPC). SOAP is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web service setting. It allows programs running on different operating systems to communicate using Web-based communication methods.

×：SOAP is designed to overcome compatibility and security issues associated with remote procedure calls.

Attempting to allow communication between objects of different applications over the Internet is incorrect because SOAP was created to overcome the compatibility and security issues introduced by RPC. SOAP is designed to work with multiple operating system platforms, browsers, and servers.

×：SOAP and remote procedure calls were created to enable application layer communication.

This is incorrect because both SOAP and RPC were created to enable application layer communication. SOAP is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web service setting. Therefore, if a Windows client needs to access a Windows server that provides a particular web service, programs on both systems can communicate using SOAP without running into interoperability problems.

×：HTTP is not designed to work with remote procedure calls, but SOAP is designed to work with HTTP.

HTTP is not designed to work with RPC, but SOAP is designed to work with HTTP. SOAP actually defines the structure of the XML schema or communication mechanism. The SOAP XML schema defines how objects communicate directly with each other. One of the advantages of SOAP is that program calls most likely get through firewalls, since HTTP communication is generally allowed. This ensures that the client/server model is not broken by getting denied by firewalls during the communication entity.

〇：Federation Identity

A federation identity is a portable identity and associated credentials that can be used across business boundaries. It allows users to authenticate across multiple IT systems and across the enterprise. Federation Identity is based on linking otherwise distinct identities of users in two or more locations without the need to synchronize or consolidate directory information. Federated Identity is an important component of e-commerce, providing businesses and consumers with a more convenient way to access distributed resources.

×：User Provisioning

User provisioning is incorrect because it refers to the creation, maintenance, and deactivation of user objects and attributes.

×：Directory

While most companies have some type of directory that contains information about company network resources and users, generally these directories are not utilized as spread across different companies. It is true that nowadays, with open APIs and cloud computing, there is a trend to deploy services through a single directory, but the directory service itself does not include resource sharing implications. In other words, it is just used as a shared service.

×：Web Access Management

Web Access Management (WAM) software is incorrect because it controls what users can access when using a Web browser to interact with Web-based corporate assets.

〇：The security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor

The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is a complete combination of protection mechanisms for a system. These are in the form of hardware, software, and firmware. These same components also comprise the security kernel. Reference monitors are access control concepts implemented and enforced by the security kernel via hardware, software, and firmware. In doing so, it ensures that the security kernel, the subject, has the proper permissions to access the object it is requesting. The subject, be it a program, user, or process, cannot access the requesting file, program, or resource until it is proven that it has the proper access rights.

×：The reference monitor is the core of the Trusted Computing Base (TCP), which is comprised of the security kernel.

This is incorrect because the reference monitor is not the core of the TCB. The core of the TCB is the security kernel, and the security kernel implements the concepts of the reference monitor. The reference monitor is a concept about access control. It is often referred to as an “abstract machine” because it is not a physical component.

×：The reference monitor implements and executes the security kernel.

The reference monitor does not implement and execute the security kernel, which is incorrect. On the contrary, the security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor. The reference monitor is an abstract concept, while the security kernel is a combination of hardware, software, and firmware in a trusted computing base.

×：The security kernel, i.e., the abstract machine, implements the concept of a reference monitor.

This is incorrect because abstract machine is not another name for security kernel. Abstract machine is another name for the reference monitor. This concept ensures that the abstract machine acts as an intermediary between the subject and the object, ensuring that the subject has the necessary rights to access the object it is requesting and protecting the subject from unauthorized access and modification. The security kernel functions to perform these activities.

〇：Send a report labeled “No output”.

If there is nothing to report (nothing to report), you need to make sure the manager is aware that the report has no information and is not only to be held accountable.

×：Send an email notifying the manager that there is nothing to report.

It is not appropriate to suddenly keep a record of the report by e-mail, since the report is normally scheduled to be reported in the operation. Realistically, wouldn’t you be more endearing to your manager if you communicated with him or her every step of the way? No, I am not asking you to do that.

×：Re-submit last week’s report and submit the date of last week’s report as this week’s date.

Delivering last week’s report does not express that nothing was reported this week.

×：Nothing.

You are required to report that nothing happened.

〇：Public key infrastructure is a mechanism configuration for public key cryptographic distribution, and public key cryptography is another name for asymmetric encryption.

Public key cryptography is asymmetric cryptography. The terms are used interchangeably. Public key cryptography is a concept within the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which consists of various parts such as Certificate Authorities, Registration Authorities, certificates, keys, programs, and users. Public Key Infrastructure is used to identify and create users, distribute and maintain certificates, revoke and distribute certificates, maintain encryption keys, and for the purpose of encrypted communication and authentication.

×：Public key infrastructure uses symmetric algorithms and public key cryptography uses asymmetric algorithms.

This is incorrect because the public key infrastructure uses a hybrid system of symmetric and asymmetric key algorithms and methods. Public key cryptography is to use asymmetric algorithms. Therefore, asymmetric and public key cryptography are interchangeable, meaning they are the same. Examples of asymmetric algorithms are RSA, elliptic curve cryptography (ECC), Diffie-Hellman, and El Gamal.

×：Public key infrastructure is used to perform key exchange, while public key cryptography is used to create public/private key pairs.

This is incorrect because public key cryptography is the use of asymmetric algorithms used to create public/private key pairs, perform key exchange, and generate and verify digital signatures.

×：Public key infrastructure provides confidentiality and integrity, while public key cryptography provides authentication and non-repudiation.

Incorrect because the public key infrastructure itself does not provide authentication, non-repudiation, confidentiality, or integrity.

〇：The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

×：Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

×：Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

×：A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

〇：Capability Maturity Model Integration

Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a comprehensive set of integration guidelines for developing products and software. It addresses the various phases of the software development life cycle, including concept definition, requirements analysis, design, development, integration, installation, operation, maintenance, and what should happen at each stage. The model describes the procedures, principles, and practices underlying the maturation of the software development process. It was developed to help software vendors improve their development processes. It will improve software quality, shorten the development life cycle, create and meet milestones in a timely manner, and adopt a proactive approach rather than a reactive approach that is less effective.

×：Software Development Life Cycle

Incorrect because the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) describes how a system should be developed and maintained throughout its life cycle and does not involve process improvement.

×：ISO/IEC 27002

Incorrect because ISO/IEC 27002 is an international standard that outlines how the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) create and maintain an organizational information security management system (ISMS). ISO/IEC 27002 has a section dealing with the acquisition, development, and maintenance of information systems, but does not provide a process improvement model for software development.

×：Certification and Accreditation Process

This is incorrect because the certification and accreditation (C&A) process handles testing and evaluation of systems against predefined criteria. This has nothing to do with improving the software development process.

〇：Used in structured languages, it decreases development time but is somewhat resource intensive.

Third generation programming languages are easier to deal with than their predecessors. They reduce program development time and allow for simplified and quick debugging. However, these languages are more resource intensive when compared to second generation programming languages.

×：Intuitive manipulation of programming reduces effort, but the amount of manual coding for specific tasks tends to be greater than in previous generations.

The advantages and disadvantages of 4th generation programming are explained below. It is true that the use of heuristics in fourth generation programming languages has greatly reduced programming effort and errors in the code. However, there is something untrue about the fact that the amount of manual coding is more than required of 3rd generation languages.

×：The use of binaries for coding is very time consuming, but the potential for errors is reduced.

This is incorrect because it is a description of a machine language and implies the advantages and disadvantages of a first generation programming language.

×：It contributes to decreasing programming processing time, but knowledge of machine structures is essential.

Incorrect because it describes second generation programming languages. These languages require extensive knowledge of machine architecture and the programs written in them are only for specific hardware.

〇：(A) Web Service Description Language – (B) Universal Description, Discovery and Integration

Services in service-oriented architectures (SOA) are typically provided via Web services, which enable Web-based communication to occur seamlessly using Web-based standards such as Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP), HTTP, Web Service Description Language (WSDL), Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration （WSDL provides a machine-readable description of the specific operations provided by a service; UDDI is an XML-based registry that lists available services UDDI provides a way for services to be registered by service providers and deployed by service consumers.

×：(A) generic description, discovery and integration – (B) web service description language

Incorrect because the terms are not in the correct order and do not map to the definitions provided within the question.

×：(A) Web Service Description Language – (B) Simple Object Access Protocol

SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) is incorrect because it is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web services environment. SOAP defines an XML schema for how communication is actually going to take place. SOAP XML schema defines how objects communicate directly.

×：(A) Simple Object Access Protocol (B) Universal Description, Discovery and Integration

SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) is incorrect because it is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web services environment. SOAP defines the XML schema of how communication is actually going to take place. SOAP XML Schema defines how objects communicate directly.

〇：Reviewing and evaluating against security documentation.

Provisioning refers to the management of account information. Reviewing documents is not part of provisioning. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Review and evaluate security documentation.” The answer will be

×：When an employee leaves the company, the account should be deactivated as soon as possible.

This is proper provisioning for users and account usage that belong to the organization.

×：Periodic review and adherence to the principle of least privilege.

This is appropriate provisioning for account access privileges.

×：Appropriate deletion of accounts that are no longer needed.

This is appropriate provisioning for the management of minimum account information.

Awareness is to inform the organization’s members of the information they already have in order to make them more vigilant again. Tranning is the input of information that is unknown to the members of the organization. Therefore, the difference between awareness-raising and tranning is whether the target audience is already aware of the information.

〇：Waterfall

Waterfall is very unidirectional and each phase leads directly to the next phase. In a pure waterfall model, there is no way to return to the previous phase.

×：Agile

Agile is the idea that system development should be done flexibly. It is a trial-and-error development method that emphasizes adaptive planning, evolutionary development, early delivery, and continuous improvement. Agile differs from the traditional approach of modeling a process, where principles and claims are shared by the entire team and an attempt is made to adapt to every situation.

×：SASHIMI

The SASHIMI model is a model of the system development process that allows the end and beginning points of each phase to run concurrently. In many cases, a waterfall model is used, where the next phase is moved to the next phase with the submission and review of deliverables. This is also great, but in practice, there are times when the delivery is made but modified due to changing requirements.

×：Spiral

The spiral model is a method of development that iterates from design to testing for each function. It is a method in which a series of processes consisting of planning, analysis, design, implementation, testing, and evaluation are repeated many times within a single project to gradually increase the degree of completion. In a software project, these phases are repeated.

〇：Information used to reconstruct data

RAID can improve system performance by providing fault tolerance to the hard drive and the data it holds. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting the data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also distributed across each disk. This is called parity, and if one disk fails, the other disks can work together to recover the data.

×：Information used to create new data

This is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data, but rather as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to erase data

Parity information is not used to erase data. This is incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to construct data

Parity information is not used to create data. Incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

〇：Control of the processing and distribution process

An important part of the digital forensic process is to maintain a proper chain of custody of evidence.

The question structure assumes Chain of Custody (Chain of Custody) from “the purpose of securing all evidence and notating it as information to be presented to those who verify it” and selects the one that comes closest to the definition.

×：Reasonable care

Wrong because reasonable care implies performing an activity that a reasonable person would be expected to perform under similar circumstances.

×：Investigation

Incorrect because investigation involves the proper collection of relevant data during the incident response process and includes analysis, interpretation, reaction, and recovery.

×：Motive, Opportunity, Means

Motive, Opportunity, and Means (MOM) is incorrect because it is a strategy used to understand why certain crimes were committed and by whom.

Web access management (WAM) software controls what users can access when interacting with Web-based corporate assets using a Web browser. This type of technology is continually becoming more robust and experiencing increased deployment. This is due to the increased use of e-commerce, online banking, content delivery, and Web services. The basic components and activities of the Web access control management process are

• The user submits credentials to the web server.
• The web server requests the WAM platform to authenticate the user. WAM authenticates to the LDAP directory and obtains credentials from the policy database.
• The user requests access to a resource (object).
• The web server verifies that object access is allowed and grants access to the requested resource.

When the complicated term WAM is mentioned, the journey begins to search for a definition of WAM that may be at the end of one’s brain. But as these thoughts begin, you will want the hard answers, like the X.500 database. But if you don’t know, it is straightforward to interpret and answer to the best of your understanding; if you interpret WAM as software that controls access to a Web server, then the question is, “Which is the correct definition of WAM?” Rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does?” rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does? However, it is still tempting to factor in the possibility that WAM is a solution that uses a specific technology that may be unfamiliar to you.

〇：To issue ethics-related statements on the use of the Internet.

The Internet Architecture Board (IAB) is the coordinating committee for the design, engineering, and management of the Internet. It is responsible for monitoring and appealing Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) activities, the Internet standards process, and the architecture of Request for Comments (RFC) editors. The IAB issues ethics-related statements on the use of the Internet. The Internet is a resource that depends on availability and accessibility and is considered useful to a wide range of people. Primarily, irresponsible behavior on the Internet may threaten its existence or adversely affect others.

×：Develop guidelines for criminal sentencing.

The IAB is incorrect because it has nothing to do with the Federal Court Guidelines, which are the rules judges use in determining the appropriate punitive sentence for certain felonies or misdemeanors committed by individuals or businesses. The Guidelines serve as the uniform sentencing policy for entities committing felonies and/or gross misdemeanors in the U.S. federal court system.

×：Edit RFC.

The Internet Architecture Board is responsible for editing RFCs (Request for Comments), which is incorrect because this task is not ethics-related. This answer is a distraction.

×：Maintain the Ten Commandments of Computer Ethics.

This is incorrect because the Institute for Computer Ethics, not the IAB, develops and maintains the Ten Commandments of Computer Ethics. The Institute for Computer Ethics is a non-profit organization that works to advance technology through ethical means.

〇：Calculate the potential impact for fatal errors.

Software testing is a must, but when that testing reveals numerous defects, it must be handled with care. Systems do not have the same concept as human forgetfulness, but it is not realistic to ask someone who scored 30 on this week’s test to score 100 on next week’s test.

Before any corrections can be made, the data taken from the test must be analyzed with the test completed, including log reviews. Priority must be given to determining what to implement first and what is acceptable and unacceptable. Think about qualitative risk analysis; if it is unlikely and has little impact, it can be left alone and focus on high priority items. Thus, the correct answer is, “Calculate the likelihood of impact for fatal errors.” will be.

×：Fix them all.

If many defects are found, it is likely that a lot of time will be taken to deal with their correction.

×：Leave them alone because of the huge number.

In principle, it is unacceptable to leave defects unattended.

×：Calculate the potential impact for all errors.

Performing an analysis for all errors can also be very work intensive.

RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the target value for recovering data at a point in the past when a failure occurs. When a failure occurs, the data currently handled is lost. The lost data must be recovered from backups, but it is important to know how far in the past the backups are from the current point in time.

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a target value that defines when the data should be recovered in the event of a failure. In the event of a failure, the service must not be unavailable indefinitely. Failure response procedures and disaster drills must be implemented to establish a target value for the time from the occurrence of a failure to the startup of service.

〇：MTTR

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is the average time it takes to repair a device and return it to pre-failure production. Using a redundant array as an example, MTTR is the time it takes to replace the failed drive after the actual failure is noticed and the time the redundant array has completed rewriting the information on the new drive. Therefore, the correct answer is MTTR.

×：SLA

Service Level Agreements (SLA) are agreements on service quality, such as usage volume and failure recovery.

×：Hot Swap

Hot swapping refers to replacing, attaching, or disconnecting parts, cables, etc. while equipment is still in operation.

×：MTBF

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is the average time it takes for a device to fail after repair.

Clustering is designed for fault tolerance. It is often combined with load balancing, but they are essentially separate. Clustering can make an operation active/active. On top of that, the load balancing feature handles traffic from multiple servers. Active/passive, on the other hand, has a designated primary active server and a secondary passive server, with the passive sending keep-alives or heartbeats every few seconds.

〇：Promptly deactivate the use of employee-only accounts.

Provisioning is the process of adding accounts for use in the system. Conversely, de-provisioning is the removal of an account. An employee’s account should be deactivated at the time the employee leaves the organization. Giving a former employee access to the organization’s resources is an information leak. Therefore, the correct answer is “promptly deactivate the employee’s dedicated account.” will be

×：Retrieve the employee’s loaner computer.

This is not provisioning, but should be done at the time the employee leaves the company.

×：Signing an NDA.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA, Non-Disclosure Agreement) is an agreement that prohibits the disclosure to others of trade secrets, etc. of the other party learned in the course of business. It is not provisioning.

×：Securing the personal contact information of employees.

A normal company would not attempt to collect such private information upon separation from employment. It is not provisioning.

〇：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

Almost every country has its own set of rules regarding what constitutes private data and how it should be protected. With the advent of the digital and information age, these different laws have begun to adversely affect business and international trade. Thus, the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) created guidelines for different countries to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone follows the same rules.

×：COSO

An organization that studies fraudulent financial reporting and which elements lead to them is fraudulent because the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) was established in 1985. The acronym COSO refers to a model of corporate governance that addresses IT at the strategic level, corporate culture, and financial accounting principles.

×：COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology)

Incorrect, as this framework defines control objectives to ensure that IT is properly managed and that IT is responsive to business needs. It is an international open standard that provides control and security requirements for sensitive data and reference frameworks.

×：International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

Incorrect because it is an international standards organization composed of representatives of national standards bodies. Its purpose is to establish global standardization. But its standardization goes beyond the privacy of data moving across international borders. For example, some standards address quality control; others address assurance and security.

〇：OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.

×：CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.

CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.

×：OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.

OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.

×：CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.

Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.

〇：TOGAF

The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) is a vendor-independent platform for the development and implementation of enterprise architecture. It focuses on the effective management of enterprise data using metamodels and service-oriented architectures (SOA). Proficient implementations of TOGAF aim to reduce fragmentation caused by inconsistencies between traditional IT systems and actual business processes. It also coordinates new changes and functionality so that new changes can be easily integrated into the enterprise platform.

×：Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DoDAF)

In accordance with the guidelines for the organization of the enterprise architecture of the U.S. Department of Defense systems, this is incorrect. It is also suitable for large, complex integrated systems in the military, civilian, and public sectors.

×：Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) during software development.

It is inappropriate because it is a framework for the purpose of designing and further improving software. CMMI provides a standard for software development processes that can measure the maturity of the development process.

×：ISO/IEC 42010

Incorrect because it consists of recommended practices to simplify the design and conception of software-intensive system architectures. This standard provides a kind of language (terminology) to describe the different components of software architecture and how to integrate it into the development life cycle.

〇：Multiple processes are using the same resources.

The system uses hard drive space (called swap space) that is reserved to expand RAM memory space. When the system fills up volatile memory space, data is written from memory to the hard drive. When a program requests access to this data, it is returned from the hard drive to memory in specific units called page frames. Accessing data stored on hard drive pages takes longer than accessing data stored in memory because it requires read/write access to the physical disk. A security issue with using virtual swap space is that two or more processes can use the same resources and corrupt or damage data.

×：Allowing cookies to remain persistent in memory

This is incorrect because virtual storage is not associated with cookies. Virtual storage uses hard drive space to extend RAM memory space. Cookies are small text files used primarily by web browsers. Cookies can contain credentials for web sites, site preferences, and shopping history. Cookies are also commonly used to maintain web server-based sessions.

×：Side-channel attacks are possible.

Side-channel attacks are incorrect because they are physical attacks. This type of attack gathers information about how a mechanism (e.g., smart card or encryption processor) works from abandoned radiation, time spent processing, power consumed to perform a task, etc. Using the information, reverse engineer the mechanism to reveal how it performs its security task. This is not related to virtual storage.

×：Two processes can perform a denial of service attack.

The biggest threat within a system where resources are shared between processes is that one process can adversely affect the resources of another process, since the operating system requires memory to be shared among all resources. This is especially true in the case of memory. It is possible for two processes to work together to perform a denial of service attack, but this is only one of the attacks that can be performed with or without the use of virtual storage.

〇：SIEM

Many organizations have implemented security event management systems, called Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems. They attempt to correlate log data collected from various devices (servers, firewalls, routers, etc.) and provide analysis capabilities. They also have solutions with networks (IDS, IPS, anti-malware, proxies, etc.) that collect logs in various proprietary formats that require centralization, standardization, and normalization. Therefore, the correct answer is SIEM.

×：Intrusion Detection System

Intrusion Detection System (IDS, Intrusion Detection System) is a mechanism that monitors the system and leads to passive actions. It does not have the ability to collect and analyze logs.

×：SOAR

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) is a technology that enables efficient monitoring, understanding, decision-making and action on security incidents. It may be fulfilled by SOAR through intrinsic cause analysis, but it is not a solution used for the purpose of identifying if suspicious activity is taking place in the network.

×：Event correlation tools

The term “event correlation tool” does not exist, but may be a feature of a SIEM.

〇：Conduct business impact analysis

While no specific scientific equation must be followed to create a continuity plan, certain best practices have been proven over time. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) organization is responsible for developing and documenting many of these best practices so that they are readily available to all. NIST outlines seven steps in Special Publication 800-34 Rev 1, Continuity Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems. Conduct a business impact analysis. Identify preventive controls. Develop a contingency strategy. Develop an information systems contingency plan. Ensure testing, training, and exercises of the plan. Ensure the plan is maintained. Conduct a business impact analysis by identifying critical functions and systems and prioritize them as needed. It also includes identifying vulnerabilities and threats and calculating risks.

×：Identify preventive controls

Wrong because critical functions and systems are prioritized and preventive controls need to be identified after their vulnerabilities, threats, and identified risks (all of which are part of a business impact analysis). Conducting a business impact analysis involves step 2, which is to create a continuity plan, and step 3, which is to identify preventive controls.

×：Develop a Continuity Plan Policy Statement

This is incorrect because you need to create a policy that provides the guidance needed to develop a business continuity plan and assigns authority to the roles needed to perform these tasks. This is the first step in creating a business continuity plan and is done before identifying and prioritizing critical systems and functions that are part of the business impact analysis.

×：Create contingency strategies

Creating a contingency strategy is incorrect because it requires formulating a method to ensure that systems and critical functions are brought online quickly. Before this can be done, a business impact analysis must be performed to determine critical systems and functions and prioritize them during recovery.

〇：Password synchronization between different systems

Password synchronization is designed to reduce the complexity of maintaining different passwords for different systems. Password synchronization technology allows a single password to be maintained across multiple systems by transparently synchronizing passwords to other systems in real time. This reduces help desk call volume. However, one of the disadvantages of this approach is that only one password is used to access different resources. This means that a hacker only needs to figure out one set of credentials to gain unauthorized access to all resources. Therefore, the correct answer is “password synchronization between different systems”.

×：Password reset by administrator query

This does not reduce the amount of help desk support because the end user must contact the administrator.

×：End-user manual password reset by self-service

This is the so-called “self-service” password reset, in which end users change their passwords themselves from their profile pages.

This is the most practical way to reduce the amount of helpdesk support, but it does not meet the requirement of easy access to multiple resources in case of a password compromise.

×：Password reset by inquiry

This does not reduce the amount of helpdesk support because it requires the end user to contact the administrator. An inquiry is an inquiry whether or not an administrator is attached.

〇：Salt

A rainbow table is a pre-built list of ciphertexts that match plaintext and have hashes that match passwords. The table can contain millions of pairs. Salting is random data used as additional input to a one-way function that “hashes” a password or passphrase. The primary function of a salting is to protect against dictionary or compiled rainbow table attacks.

×：Login Attempt Restrictions

Effective against all unauthorized login methods, but not a direct or effective countermeasure against rainbow tables.

×：Key stretching

Replacing passwords with longer, random strings for encryption purposes.

×：Hashing

Password hashing is a fixed-length cipher (hash) statement for secure password storage.

〇：How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

×：Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

×：Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

×：A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

〇：Review the schedule.

Unit testing is testing to confirm that the developed module works as a stand-alone unit. Acceptance testing is testing to make sure that the customer who ordered the development actually uses it and is satisfied with it. Acceptance testing cannot take the place of unit testing. It is not upward compatible as a test, and the perspectives are different. Therefore, the correct answer is “Review the schedule.” The correct answer is “Review the schedule.

×：Unit testing is not performed for the sake of work efficiency.

It does not mean that unit tests are not performed.

×：Increase the number of items in the acceptance test for the unit test that could not be done.

The items that should have been done in the actual unit test are simply accounted for as acceptance tests, and the unit test is not considered to have been completed. This is an action that is close to concealment.

×：Report to your supervisor.

You are in charge of project management.

〇：Conflict condition

A race condition is present when a process performs a task on a shared resource and the sequence could be in the wrong order. 2 or more processes can have a race condition if they use a shared resource, like data in a variable. It is important that processes perform their functions in the correct sequence.

×：Backdoors

Backdoors are incorrect because they are “listening” services on certain ports. Backdoors are implemented by attackers to allow easy access to the system without authenticating as a normal system user.

×：Maintenance Hooks

Maintenance hooks are specific software codes that allow easy and unauthorized access to sensitive parts of a software product. Software programmers use maintenance hooks to allow them to get quick access to the code so that they can make fixes in immediate, but this is dangerous.

×：Data validation errors

Data validation errors are wrong because an attacker cannot operate on the process execution sequence.

〇：Verifying Data Availability

The responsibility for verifying data availability is the sole responsibility that does not belong to the data (information) owner. Rather, it is the responsibility of the data (information) controller. The data controller is also responsible for maintaining and protecting the data in accordance with the data owner’s instructions. This includes performing regular backups of data, restoring data from backup media, maintaining records of activities, and enforcing information security and data protection requirements in company policies, guidelines, and standards. Data owners work at a higher level than data managers. The data owner basically says, “This is the level of integrity, availability, and confidentiality you need to provide. Please do it now”. The data administrator is executing these permissions and following up on the installed controls to ensure they are working properly.

×：Assigning Information Classification

Incorrect as you are asking if Jim is not responsible for the assignment of information classifications because as the data owner, Jim is responsible for the assignment of information classifications.

×：Determining how to protect data

Incorrect because the data owner, such as Jim, is responsible for determining how the information is protected. The data owner has organizational responsibility for data protection and is liable for any negligence with respect to protecting the organization’s information assets. This means that Jim needs to decide how to protect the information and ensure that the data controller (a role usually occupied by IT or security) is implementing these decisions.

×：Determining how long to retain data

This is incorrect because the decision of how long to retain data is the responsibility of the data owner. The data owner is also responsible for determining who can access the information and ensuring that the appropriate access rights are used. He may approve access requests himself or delegate that function to the business unit manager. The business unit manager approves the request based on the user access criteria defined by the data owner.

〇：One-time pad

Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.

×：AES

AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.

×：Block ciphers

Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.

×：RSA

RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.

〇：Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.

For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.

×：Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.

That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.

×：Much faster operation than asymmetric systems

Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.

×：Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed

Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.

〇：* (star) Integrity Property

The Biba model defines a model with completeness as having two axioms. The * (star) Integrity Property is that the subordinate’s document is to be seen and there is no Read Down. The * (star) Integrity Property is that there is no Write Up, that is, no rewriting of the supervisor’s document. If the Simple Integrity Axiom is not followed, the subordinate’s document will be seen and may absorb unclassified and incorrect information at a lower level. If the * (star) Integrity Property is not followed, a supervisor’s document will be rewritten, which will release incorrect information to the supervisor who sees it. Therefore, both are integrity conditions.

×：Simple Integrity Property

The Simple Integrity Property is a constraint on Read Down.

×：Strong Tranquillity Axiom

The Strong Tranquillity Axiom is the constraint not to change permissions while the system is running.

×：Weak Tranquillity Axiom

Weak Tranquillity Axiom means do not change privileges until the attribute is inconsistent.

A collision is when the hash value of two different data from one hash function is the same. Hashing is one-way cryptography, which means that the original plaintext is no longer known to be one or the other.

〇：How to use the data

How data is used does not depend on how sensitive it is. In other words, data is sensitive no matter how it is used, even if it is not used at all.

×：Identifying who needs access to the data

Wrong. This is because data classification criteria must take into account very directly who needs access to the data and their clearance level in order to see sensitive data. If data is classified at too high a level, that user will not have access. If the level is classified too low, an unauthorized user may access the data.

×：Value of the data

This is incorrect because the intrinsic value of the data directly determines the degree of protection. This is determined by its classification. This is true regardless of whether the prioritization must be confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

×：The level of damage that could occur if the data were disclosed.

This is erroneous because the degree of damage that disclosure, modification, or destruction of the data would cause is directly related to the level of protection that must be provided.

Level 2 of the software functional maturity model is reproducible. It is a maturity level where some processes are reproducible and produce constant results. The process discipline is not rigorous, but it helps to maintain existing processes. Therefore, the correct answer is Level 2.

At Level 1, the process is usually undocumented and dynamic. It tends to be driven by users and events in an ad hoc, uncontrolled, reactive manner. As a result, the process is chaotic and unstable.

At Level 2, at maturity, some processes are repeatable and will produce consistent results. Process discipline will not be rigid, but where it exists it will help ensure that existing processes are maintained.

At Level 3, a documented set of standard processes has been established and has improved somewhat over time.

At Level 4, the process is being evaluated to ensure that it is achieving its goals. Process users experience the process under multiple and varied conditions to demonstrate competence.

Level 5 focuses on continuous improvement of process performance through incremental and innovative technical changes/improvements.

〇：Vulnerability assessments can help prioritize weaknesses that need to be addressed.

The most important aspect of an internal or third-party vulnerability assessment is that it can enumerate all potential vulnerabilities a company has and prioritize corrective actions.

×：Third-party security audits are only required if regulations require it.

Even if some organizations do not require an independent review, it can often help find minor weaknesses that might have been overlooked.

×：Vulnerability assessments and penetration tests are essentially the same.

A vulnerability assessment is wrong because it enumerates all weaknesses and ensures that countermeasures are properly prioritized. Penetration testing aims to examine the likelihood that a real-world attacker will exploit a given weakness to achieve a goal.

×：Internal assessments are of little value.

Internal audits of enterprise security are usually not sufficient and can be very beneficial when conducted in conjunction with third-party reviews. However, it can often help find minor weaknesses that may have been overlooked.

〇：Data User

An individual who uses data for work-related tasks is a data user. Users must have the necessary level of access to data to perform their job duties. They are also responsible for adhering to operational security procedures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data to others. This means that users must take appropriate precautions and follow both security policies and data classification rules.

×：Data Owners

This is incorrect because the data owner has a higher level of responsibility in protecting the data. The data owner is responsible for classifying the data, regularly reviewing the classification level, and delegating responsibility for the data protection position to the data controller. The data owner is usually a manager or executive within the organization and is responsible for the protection of the company’s information assets.

×：Data Controller

Incorrect, as the data controller is responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls as directed by the data owner. In other words, the data administrator is the technician of the controls that protect the data. Her duties include creating backups, restoring data, implementing and maintaining countermeasures, and managing controls.

×：Information Systems Auditor

Incorrect, as they are responsible for evaluating controls. After evaluating the controls, the auditor submits a report to management, mapping the results to the organization’s acceptable level of risk. This has nothing to do with using data or being meticulous in the use of data.

〇：Regular training to change employee attitudes

Behavior-directed controls are intended to direct the behavior required of employees as part of organizational management. Regular training that changes employee awareness falls under the action-directed type. Therefore, the correct answer is “Regular training to change employee attitudes”.

×：Remotely directed defenses using drone audits

This falls under reinforcing (compensating) defensive measures.

×：Defensive measures to be behavioral psychological barriers due to physical barriers

This is a physical (physically) defensive measure.

×：Developing recurrence prevention measures to review certain actions

This is a corrective measure.

〇：DNSSEC

DNSSEC is a set of extensions to the DNS that provide DNS clients (resolvers) with authentication of the origin of DNS data to reduce the threat of DNS poisoning, spoofing, and similar attack types. It is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) specification for securing services.

×：Resource Record

DNS servers contain records that map hostnames to IP addresses, called resource records. The answer is incorrect. When a user’s computer needs to resolve a hostname to an IP address, it looks in its network configuration to find its DNS server. The computer then sends a request containing the hostname to the DNS server for resolution; the DNS server looks at its resource records, finds a record with this particular hostname, retrieves the address, and responds to the computer with the corresponding IP address.

×：Zone Transfer

Primary and secondary DNS servers synchronize their information via zone transfers. The answer is incorrect. After changes are made to the primary DNS server, these changes must be replicated to the secondary DNS server. It is important to configure the DNS servers so that zone transfers can take place between specific servers.

×：Resource Transfer

Equivalent to transferring DNS resource records, but the answer is incorrect.

〇：Level of insurance required to cover assets.

This question is about choosing what is not used. There are several ways to calculate asset value (AV, Asset Value): the market approach, which refers to similar assets in the market, the income approach, which measures it by the profit it will earn in the future, and the cost approach, which measures it by the cost spent on the asset. The level of insurance needed to cover an asset is a decision made after identifying the asset value and conducting an appropriate risk analysis, allowing the organization to more easily determine the level of insurance coverage to purchase for that asset. Therefore, the correct answer is “level of insurance required to cover the asset”.

×：Value of the asset in the external market.

The technique of referring to similar assets in the market is known as the market approach.

×：Initial costs and outlay for purchasing, licensing, and supporting the asset.

The method of measuring by the cost spent on an asset is known as the cost approach.

×：The value of the asset to the organization’s production operations.

The method of measuring by the profit that will be earned in the future is known as the revenue approach.

〇：Data Protection Directive

In many cases, the European Union (EU) takes personal privacy more seriously than most other countries in the world and therefore adheres to strict laws regarding data considered personal information based on the European Union Principles for the Protection of Personal Data. This set of principles addresses the use and communication of information that is considered private in nature. These principles and how to comply with them are contained in the EU Data Protection Directive. All European states must comply with these principles, and all companies doing business with EU companies must follow this directive if their business involves the exchange of privacy-type data.

×：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

Image B is incorrect because the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an international organization that brings together different governments to help address the economic, social, and governance challenges of a globalized economy. For this reason, the OECD has developed national guidelines to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone adheres to the same kinds of rules.

×：Federal Private Sector Bill

The Federal Private Bill is incorrect. There is no official bill by this name.

×：Privacy Protection Act

The Privacy Protection Act is the wrong answer. There is no official legislation by this name.

〇：Run an algorithm that identifies unused committed memory and informs the operating system that memory is available.

This answer describes the function of the garbage collector, not the memory manager. The garbage collector is a countermeasure against memory leaks. It is software that runs an algorithm to identify unused committed memory and tells the operating system to mark that memory as “available. Different types of garbage collectors work with different operating systems, programming languages, and algorithms.

In some cases, a four-choice question can be answered without knowing the exact answer; since there is only one correct answer in a four-choice question, the answers can be grouped together to reduce it to “since they are saying the same thing, it is not right that only one of them is correct, therefore they are both wrong.

There are two answers to the effect of controlling the process to handle memory appropriately, but if the memory manager does not have that functionality, both would be correct, and therefore can be eliminated from the choices in the first place.

×：If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, use complex controls to guarantee integrity and confidentiality.

If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, the memory manager uses complex controls to ensure integrity and confidentiality. This is important to protect memory and the data in it, since two or more processes can share access to the same segment with potentially different access rights. The memory manager also allows many users with different levels of access rights to interact with the same application running on a single memory segment.

×：Restrict processes to interact only with the memory segments allocated to them.

The memory manager is responsible for limiting the interaction of processes to only those memory segments allocated to them. This responsibility falls under the protection category and helps prevent processes from accessing segments to which they are not allowed. Another protection responsibility of the memory manager is to provide access control to memory segments.

×：Swap contents from RAM to hard drive as needed.

This is incorrect because swapping contents from RAM to hard drive as needed is the role of memory managers in the relocation category. When RAM and secondary storage are combined, they become virtual memory. The system uses the hard drive space to extend the RAM memory space. Another relocation responsibility is to provide pointers for applications when instructions and memory segments are moved to another location in main memory.

〇：Normalization

Normalization is the process of efficiently organizing data by eliminating redundancy, reducing the potential for anomalies during data manipulation, and improving data consistency within a database. It is a systematic method of ensuring that database structures are correctly designed so that undesirable characteristics (insert, update, and delete anomalies) do not occur and data integrity is lost.

×：Polymorphism

Polymorphism is incorrect because different objects are given the same input and react differently.

×：Database View Implementation

A database view is a logical access control, implemented so that one group or specific user can see certain information and another group is restricted from seeing it completely, which is incorrect. For example, a database view could be implemented so that middle management can see the profits and expenses of a department without seeing the profits of the entire enterprise. Database views do not minimize duplicate data. Rather, it manipulates how the data is displayed by a particular user/group.

×：Schema Construction

Schemas in database systems are incorrect because they are structures described in a formal language. In a relational database, a schema defines tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, procedures, queues, database links, directories, etc. A schema describes the database and its structure, but not the data that exists in the database itself.

〇：System logs that operate and are acquired on a daily basis

It is necessary to show that the logs are different from common usage in order to determine whether the access is unauthorized or not. Also, it is less reliable as legal evidence regarding logs that are not routinely obtained.

×：System logs from sophisticated products that comply with international standards

Market sophistication is not a requirement for legal evidence. Conversely, it is unlikely that software developed in-house cannot be used for legal archives.

×：System logs printed and stored as physical media

Whether or not logs are printed is not necessarily a legal requirement. Since the records are printed out as software, they are not purely physical evidence.

×：System logs close to the infrastructure recorded at the OS layer

Logs close to the OS layer have greater systemic traceability, but they are also less relevant to user operations and are not suitable as evidence of unauthorized access.

〇：TLS is an open community version of SSL.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are cryptographic protocols used to protect communications by encrypting segments of a network connection. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol.

×：TLS is an open community version of SSL. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol. x: The SSL protocol can be modified by developers to extend its capabilities.

This is incorrect because SSL is a proprietary protocol developed by Netscape. This means that the technical community cannot easily interoperate and extend SSL to extend to its functionality.

×：SSL is an open community protocol while TLS is a proprietary protocol.

The meaning and matching are reversed.

×：SSL is an extended version and backward compatible with TLS.

Wrong, since TLS is actually more extensible than SSL and is not backward compatible with SSL.

Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detection (CSMA / CD) is used for systems that can transmit and receive simultaneously, such as Ethernet. If two clients listen at the same time and make sure the line is clear, both may transmit at the same time, causing a collision. Collision Detection (CD) is added to solve this scenario. The client checks to see if the line is idle and transmits if it is idle. If in use, they wait for a random time (milliseconds). During transmission, they monitor the network and if more input is received than transmitted, another client is also transmitting and sends a jam signal instructing other nodes to stop transmitting, wait a random time and then start transmitting again.

〇：Business Case

The most important part of establishing and maintaining a current continuity plan is management support. Management may need to be convinced of the need for such a plan. Therefore, a business case is needed to obtain this support. The business case should include current vulnerabilities, legal obligations, current status of the recovery plan, and recommendations. Management is generally most interested in cost-benefit issues, so preliminary figures can be gathered and potential losses estimated. Decisions about how a company should recover are business decisions and should always be treated as such.

×：Business Impact Analysis

Incorrect because the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) was conducted after the BCP team gained management’s support for its efforts. A BIA is conducted to identify areas of greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. It identifies the company’s critical systems required for survival and estimates the amount of downtime the company can tolerate as a result of a disaster or disruption.

×：Risk Analysis

Incorrect, as this is a method of identifying risks and assessing the potential damage that could be caused to justify security protection measures. In the context of BCP, risk analysis methods should be used in a BIA to identify which processes, devices, or operations are critical and should be recovered first.

×：Threat reports

The answer is wrong because it is unintended. However, it is important for management to understand what the actual threats are to the enterprise, the consequences of those threats, and the potential loss value for each threat. Without this understanding, management pays lip service to continuity planning and in some cases may be worse than if it did not plan because of the false awareness of security it creates.

Penetration testing is an attempt to penetrate a system connected to a network. Penetration allows for any kind of manipulation and can bring the service itself to a halt. Therefore, the focus of testing is on penetration. The sequence is: planning, preliminary investigation, search for vulnerabilities, evaluation, attack, and reporting. Therefore, the correct answer is “report generation.

Type 1 authentication treats what you know as credentials. This is accomplished through passwords, passphrases, PINs, etc., and is also referred to as the knowledge factor.

〇：Risk Mitigation

Risk can be addressed in four basic ways: transfer, avoidance, mitigation, and acceptance. Sue reduces the risk posed by her e-mail system by implementing security controls such as antivirus and anti-spam software. This is also referred to as risk mitigation, where risk is reduced to a level considered acceptable. Risk can be mitigated by improving procedures, changing the environment, erecting barriers to threats, and implementing early detection techniques to stop threats when they occur and reduce damage.

×：Risk Acceptance

This is inappropriate because risk acceptance does not involve spending on protection or countermeasures such as anti-virus software. When accepting a risk, one should be aware of the level of risk faced and the potential damage costs and decide to keep it without implementing countermeasures. If the cost/benefit ratio indicates that the cost of countermeasures exceeds the potential losses, many companies will accept the risk.

×：Risk Avoidance

Wrong because it would mean discontinuing the activity that is causing the risk. In this case, Sue’s firm decides to continue using e-mail. A company may choose to terminate an activity that introduces risk if the risk outweighs the business needs of the activity. For example, a company may choose to block social media websites in some departments because of the risk to employee productivity.

×：Risk Transfer

This is incorrect because it involves sharing risk with other entities, as in the purchase of insurance to transfer some of the risk to the insurance company. Many types of insurance are available to firms to protect their assets. If a company determines that its total or excess risk is too high to gamble, it can purchase insurance.

To test the application, normal user behavior must be emulated. However, common loads of user activity are not available in the testing environment. Therefore, common user transaction scripts can be built to facilitate different forms of testing.

〇：Completing the Business Impact Analysis

Of the steps listed in this question, completing the Business Impact Analysis is the highest priority. The BIA is essential in determining the most critical business functions and identifying the threats associated with them. Qualitative and quantitative data must be collected, analyzed, interpreted, and presented to management.

×：Test and Drill Plan

Test and drill is wrong because it is part of the last step in disaster recovery and contingency planning. Because the environment is constantly changing, it is important to test your business continuity plan on a regular basis. Testing and disaster recovery drills and exercises should be performed at least once a year. The exercises should be done in sections or at specific times that require logistical planning, as most firms cannot afford these exercises to disrupt production or productivity.

×：Determining alternatives for off-site backup facilities

This is incorrect because it is part of the contingency strategy that is done in the middle of the disaster recovery and contingency planning process. In the event of a major disaster, an alternate off-site backup capability is required. Typically, contracts are established with third-party vendors to provide such services. The client pays a monthly fee to retain the right to use the facility when needed and then pays an activation fee when they need to use that facility.

×：Organize and prepare related documentation

This is incorrect because the relevant documentation is organized and created around the time the disaster recovery and contingency planning process is completed. Procedures should be documented. This is because time-consuming schedules are confusing when they are actually needed. Documentation should include information on how to install images, configure the operating system and server, and install utilities and proprietary software. Other documentation should include call trees and contact information for specific vendors, emergency agencies, off-site facilities, etc.

The EU Data Protection Directive is a very aggressive privacy law. Organizations must inform individuals how their data is collected and used. Organizations must allow people to opt out of data sharing with third parties. Opt-in is required to share the most sensitive data. No transmissions from the EU unless the recipient country is found to have adequate (equivalent) privacy protections, and the U.S. does not meet this standard.

〇：OSI reference model

The OSI reference model is a seven-layer classification of network communication. The concepts of application communication and session are separated, which would be clearly communicated based on the OSI reference model. Therefore, the correct answer is “OSI reference model.

×：TCP/IP model

The TCP/IP model is a layer design that is closer to the concept of a system than the OSI reference model; in the TCP/IP model, the application layer, presentation layer, and session layer of the OSI reference model are represented by a single application layer.

×：Data link model

There is no such model.

×：Biba model

Biba model is one of the security models that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

Users can logically guess the URL or path to access resources they should not. If an organization’s network has access to a report name ending in “financials_2017.pdf”, it is possible to guess other file names that should not be accessed, such as “financials_2018.pdf” or “financials.pdf”.

〇：Cessation of activities that pose a risk.

This question is about choosing what is not included. Discontinuing an activity that introduces risk is a way to address risk through avoidance. For example, there are many risks surrounding the use of instant messaging (IM) within a company. If a company decides not to allow the use of IM because there is no business need to do so, banning this service is an example of risk avoidance. The risk assessment does not include the implementation of such measures. Therefore, the correct answer is “discontinue the activity that poses a risk”.

×：Asset Identification

This is incorrect because identifying the asset is part of the risk assessment and is required to identify what is not included in the risk assessment. To determine the value of an asset, the asset must first be identified. Identifying and valuing assets is another important task of risk management.

×：Threat Identification

This is incorrect because identifying threats is part of risk assessment and requires identifying what is not included in the risk assessment. A risk exists because a threat could exploit a vulnerability. If there are no threats, there are no risks. Risk links vulnerabilities, threats, and the resulting potential for exploitation to the business.

×：Risk analysis in order of cost

Analyzing risks in order of cost or criticality is part of the risk assessment process and is inappropriate because questions are asked to identify what is not included in the risk assessment. A risk assessment examines and quantifies the risks a company faces. Risks must be addressed in a cost-effective manner. Knowing the severity of the risk allows the organization to determine how to effectively address it.

〇：ISO / IEC 27005 – Guidelines for Bodies Providing Audits and Certification of Information Security Management Systems

The ISO / IEC 27005 standard is a guideline for information security risk management. ISO / IEC 27005 is an international standard on how risk management should be implemented within the framework of an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27002 – Code of practice for information security management

This is not correct because it is a code of practice for information security management. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. ISO / IEC 27002 provides best practice recommendations and guidelines for starting, implementing, or maintaining an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27003 – ISMS Implementation Guidelines

This is incorrect as it is a guideline for ISMS implementation. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. Focuses on the key aspects necessary for the successful design and implementation of an ISMS according to ISO / IEC 27001:2005. It describes the ISMS specification and design process from its inception to the creation of an implementation plan.

×：ISO / IEC 27004 – Guidelines for Information Security Management Measurement and Metrics Framework

This is incorrect because it is a guideline for an information security management measurement and metrics framework. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. It provides guidance on the development and use of measures to assess the effectiveness of an ISMS and a group of controls or controls, as specified in ISO / IEC 27001.

〇：A review by another coder after the coder has completed coding.

A static code review is a review performed by another engineer to mitigate points that were not apparent to the author. Thus, the correct answer is “Reviewed by another coder after the coder’s coding is complete.” will be.

×：To allow coders to see each other’s coding and work in parallel.

Extreme programming (XP, extreme programming) is a flexible method of developing a program while discussing it in pairs. It is not code review.

×：Ensuring that proper transaction processing is applied before check-in.

This is a statement about database commitment.

×：Ensuring that the appropriate questions and answers exist.

The presence of appropriate question and answer may be part of what is performed during the code review, but it is not a description of the code review itself.

〇：A change unanimously approved by the change control committee would be a step that does not require testing of the actual equipment.

This is a false choice question.

For different types of environmental changes, a structured change management process needs to be in place. Depending on the severity of the change requirement, the change and implementation may need to be presented to a change control committee. Change requests approved by the change control committee must be tested to discover any unintended consequences. This helps to demonstrate the purpose, consequences, and possible effects of the change in its various aspects. This means that just because a change has been approved by the change control board does not mean that it does not need to be tested. The change control board has mandated action on the change, and its appropriateness must be ensured by testing. Therefore, the correct answer is: “A change that is unanimously approved by the change control committee is a step that does not require testing on the actual equipment.” The result will be

×：Changes approved by the change control committee should be kept as a log of changes.

This is correct change management.

×：A rough schedule should be created during the planning phase of the change.

This is correct change management.

×：Proposed changes should be prioritized and reviewed.

This is correct change management.

〇：The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.

A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of digitally signing means encrypting the hash value of the message with his/her private key. The sender would encrypt that hash value using her private key. When the recipient receives the message, she performs a hash function on the message and generates the hash value herself. She then decrypts the hash value (digital signature) sent with the sender’s public key. The receiver compares the two values and, if they are the same, can verify that the message was not altered during transmission.

×：The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.

The sender is wrong because if the message encrypts the digest with his/her public key, the recipient cannot decrypt it. The recipient needs access to the sender’s private key, which must not occur. The private key must always be kept secret.

×：The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.

The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.

×：The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.

The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.

There is an unfamiliar term: data classification program. This is not a dictionary definition of the term. You want to classify data, what do you do to do that? What is the first step in this process? Since you are being asked about the “first step” in doing this, you can answer by listing the options in order and choosing the first option. Do not search the dictionary in your mind for the word “data classification,” think of the process flow of data classification, and recall the name of the first process.

In order, you might go from understanding the level of protection you need to provide, to specifying the data classification criteria, to determining the protection mechanisms for each classification level, to identifying the data controller. Whatever you do, the first step should be research. Then the problem is defined and the best answer is derived, which is the general solution to the problem.

〇：Virtual Container for Data from Multiple Sources
Network directories are containers for users and network resources. Because one directory does not contain all the users and resources in an enterprise, a collection of directories must be used. A virtual directory collects the necessary information used from sources scattered throughout the network and stores it in a central virtual directory (virtual container). This provides a unified view of digital identity information for all users across the enterprise. The virtual directory is regularly synchronized with all identity stores (individual network directories) to ensure that up-to-date information is being used by all applications and identity management components in the enterprise.

×：Metadirectory

Virtual directories are similar to metadirectories, but incorrect because metadirectories work with one directory and virtual directories work with multiple data sources. When the Identity Management component calls the virtual directory, it can scan different directories across the enterprise, but the metadirectory only has the ability to scan one directory it is associated with.

×：User attribute information stored in the HR database

Incorrect because it describes an identity store. Much of the information stored in identity management directories is scattered throughout the enterprise. User attribute information (employee status, job description, department, etc.) is typically stored in the HR database. Authentication information can be stored in a Kerberos server, and resource-oriented authentication information can be stored in the domain controller’s Active Directory. These are commonly referred to as identity stores and are located elsewhere on the network. Many identity management products use virtual directories to call up the data in these identity stores.

×：Services that allow administrators to configure and manage the way identities are

This is incorrect because it describes a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage how identification, authentication, permissions, and access control are performed within a network. It uses namespaces to manage objects in the directory and enforces security policies configured by performing access control and identity management functions.

Onion routing is characterized by multiple layers of encryption because encryption is applied each time it passes through a router. However, there is no security feature at the final router because all encryption is decrypted at the final point of the router and becomes plaintext.

〇：Stateful Inspection

Stateful Inspection detects abnormal communication in which the request and response are linked and only the response is returned from a different server. Therefore, the correct answer is “Stateful Inspection.

×：Application Gateway

Commonly referred to as WAF, this is used when filtering is performed based on strings in telegrams, such as SQL injection.

×：Packet Filtering

Used for filtering by IP address or port.

×：Session Gateway

There is no such firewall category.

〇：Service Strategy

The basic approach of ITIL is to create a service strategy that focuses on the overall planning of the intended IT services. Once the initial planning is complete, it provides guidelines for the design of validated IT services and overall implementation policies. The service transition phase is then initiated, providing guidelines for the assessment, testing, and validation of the IT services. This enables the transition from the business environment to the technical service. Service Operations ensures that all determined services have achieved their objectives. Finally, Continuous Service Improvement points out areas for improvement throughout the service lifecycle. Service strategy is considered the core of ITIL. It consists of a set of guidelines that include best practices for planning, design, and alignment of IT and business approaches, market analysis, service assets, setting goals to provide quality service to customers, and the strategy and value of implementing the service strategy.

×：Service Operations

Service operations is a critical component of the lifecycle when services are actually delivered, and something like ITIL that provides guidance is not at the core of actual operations. Lifecycle operations define a set of guidelines that ensure that an agreed level of service is delivered to the customer. The different genres incorporated by service operations include event management, problem management, access management, incident management, application management, technology management, and operations management. Service Operations balances between conflicting goals such as technology and business requirements, stability and responsiveness, cost and quality of service, and competing proactive activities.

×：Service Design

Inadequate because it involves a set of best practices for the design of IT services, including processes, architecture, policies, and documentation to meet current and future business requirements. The goal of service design is to design services according to agreed business objectives. Design processes that can support lifecycle and risk identification and management. Involves improving IT service quality as a whole.

×：Service Migration

Service Migration is incorrect because it focuses on delivering the services proposed by the business strategy for operational use. It also includes guidelines to enable a smooth transition of the business model to technical services. If service requirements change after design, Service Migration ensures that those requirements are delivered in accordance with the changed design. Areas of focus for these guidelines include the responsibilities of personnel involved in the migration transition plan and support, change management, knowledge management, release and deployment management, service verification and testing, and evaluation.

〇：3-tier architecture

The 3-tier architecture clearly distinguishes the three layers: the client has the user interface responsible for input and displaying results, and the server has the functional process logic responsible for data processing and data storage for accessing the database. The user interface role is generally handled by the front-end web server with which the user interacts. It can handle both static and cached dynamic content. The functional process logic is where requests are reformatted and processed. It is typically a dynamic content processing and generation level application server. Data storage is where sensitive data is held. It is the back-end database and holds both the data and the database management system software used to manage and provide access to the data.

×：2-tier architecture

Two-tier, or client/server, is incorrect because it describes an architecture in which a server serves one or more clients that request those services.

×：Screened Subnets

A screen-subnet architecture is for one firewall to protect one server (basically a one-tier architecture). The external, public-side firewall monitors requests from untrusted networks like the Internet. If one layer, the only firewall, is compromised, an attacker can access sensitive data residing on the server with relative ease.

×：Public and Private DNS Zones

Separating DNS servers into public and private servers provides protection, but this is not the actual architecture.

〇：DOM-based

Mary exploits a cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerability called Document Object Model (DOM) Local Cross-Site Scripting.The DOM is a standard structural layout for representing HTML and XML documents in a browser. In such attacks, components of the document such as form fields and cookies can be referenced via JavaScript. The attacker uses the DOM environment to modify the client-side JavaScript. The result is to cause the victim’s browser to execute malicious JavaScript code. The most effective way to prevent these attacks is to disable scripting support in the browser.

×：Secondary

Secondary, or persistent XSS vulnerabilities are incorrect because they target websites that populate databases or data stored elsewhere, such as forums or message boards.

×：Persistent

Persistent XSS vulnerability is incorrect because it is simply another name for a secondary vulnerability.

×：Non-Persistent

A non-persistent XSS vulnerability, called a reflection vulnerability, is incorrect because it uses a malicious script to open a programmed URL in order to steal sensitive information from someone who holds cookies, etc. The principle behind this attack lies in the lack of proper input or output validation on dynamic websites.

〇：Digital Millennium Copyright Act

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) is a U.S. copyright law that makes it a crime, among other things, for technology to infringe upon the access control measures established to protect copyrighted material. Therefore, the correct answer is “Digital Millennium Copyright Act.

If you find a way to “unlock” a proprietary method of protecting an e-book, you can charge this act. Even if you do not share the actual copyrighted book with anyone, the specific law has been broken and you will be convicted.

×：COPPA

The Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) is a law that allows for the safe use of children’s sites on the Internet and prohibits children from being put at risk if they do not have any terms and conditions The law prohibits children from being endangered without any terms and conditions so that they can safely use the Internet for children.

×：Federal Privacy Act

There is no such law, but a close equivalent is the U.S. Federal Data Privacy Act. This would be a comprehensive privacy law at the federal level in the United States.

×：GDPR

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a privacy law for EU citizens that is a stricter version of the Data Protection Directive.

〇：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with a public key.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses public key cryptography to provide data encryption, server authentication, message integrity, and optionally client authentication. When a client accesses a cryptographically protected page, the web server initiates TLS and begins the process of securing subsequent communications. The server performs a three-handshake to establish a secure session. After that, client authentication with a digital certificate, as the case may be, comes in. The client then generates a session key, encrypts it with the server’s public key, and shares it. This session key is used as the symmetric key for encrypting the data to be transmitted thereafter. Thus, the correct answer is: “The client generates a session key and encrypts it with the public key.” will be

×：The server generates the session key and encrypts it with the public key.

The server does not encrypt with the public key.

×：The server generates a session key and encrypts it with the private key.

Even if encryption is performed from the server side, it can be decrypted with the public key, so it is not structurally possible.

×：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with its private key.

The client side does not have the private key.

〇：Tell your business partner that your company is not ready

Planned business continuity procedures can provide an organization with many benefits. In addition to the other response options listed previously, organizations can provide a quick and appropriate response to an emergency, mitigate the impact on their business, and work with outside vendors during the recovery period. Efforts in these areas should communicate to business partners that they are prepared in the event of a disaster.

×：Resuming Critical Business Functions

This is incorrect because a business continuity plan allows an organization to resume critical business functions. As part of the BCP development, the BCP team conducts a business impact analysis that includes identifying the maximum allowable downtime for critical resources. This effort helps the team prioritize recovery efforts so that the most critical resources can be recovered first.

×：Protecting Lives and Ensuring Safety

Business continuity planning allows organizations to protect lives and ensure safety, which is wrong. People are a company’s most valuable asset. Therefore, human resources are an integral part of the recovery and continuity process and must be fully considered and integrated into the plan. Once this is done, a business continuity plan will help a company protect its employees.

×：Ensure business viability

This is a fallacy because a well-planned business continuity plan can help a company ensure the viability of its business. A business continuity plan provides methods and procedures for dealing with long-term outages and disasters. It involves moving critical systems to another environment while the original facility is being restored and conducting business operations in a different mode until normal operations return. In essence, business continuity planning addresses how business is conducted after an emergency.

〇：Review labeling and treat as critical confidential information.

Labeling is the process of sorting data according to its level of confidentiality. Labeling helps clarify the confidentiality level of data management. If the labeling is incorrect, it should be corrected at any time to manage the data in accordance with the confidentiality level. Therefore, “Review the labeling and treat it as critical confidential information.” is the correct answer.

×：The entire sentence should be treated as confidential information because the business should be flexible.

This is not an appropriate operation because the text containing critical confidential information is treated as confidential information.

×：As supplemental information to the document, state that “a part of the text contains material confidential information.

This is not a fundamental solution because stating this as supplementary information is in effect treating the information as different confidential levels.

×：Destroy the document because it is impossible for different confidential information to be crossed.

Destroying the document is not an appropriate operation because it is a damage to one’s own assets.

Translated with www.DeepL.com/Translator (free version)