〇：RAID Level 3

RAID redundant arrays provide fault tolerance capability for hard drives and can improve system performance. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve requested information. At this time, recovery data is also created. This is called parity; if one disk fails, the parity data can be used to reconstruct the corrupted or lost information. Different levels of RAID systems experience different activities that provide fault tolerance or improved performance. RAID level 3 is a method that uses byte-level striping and dedicated parity disks.

×：RAID Level 0

Wrong because only striping occurs at level 0.

×：RAID Level 5

RAID 5 is incorrect because it uses block-level striping and interleaved parity on all disks.

×：RAID Level 10

Level 10 is incorrect because it is associated with striping and mirroring.

〇：Data Protection Directive

In many cases, the European Union (EU) takes personal privacy more seriously than most other countries in the world and therefore adheres to strict laws regarding data considered personal information based on the European Union Principles for the Protection of Personal Data. This set of principles addresses the use and communication of information that is considered private in nature. These principles and how to comply with them are contained in the EU Data Protection Directive. All European states must comply with these principles, and all companies doing business with EU companies must follow this directive if their business involves the exchange of privacy-type data.

×：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

Image B is incorrect because the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an international organization that brings together different governments to help address the economic, social, and governance challenges of a globalized economy. For this reason, the OECD has developed national guidelines to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone adheres to the same kinds of rules.

×：Federal Private Sector Bill

The Federal Private Bill is incorrect. There is no official bill by this name.

×：Privacy Protection Act

The Privacy Protection Act is the wrong answer. There is no official legislation by this name.

〇：Multiple processes are using the same resources.

The system uses hard drive space (called swap space) that is reserved to expand RAM memory space. When the system fills up volatile memory space, data is written from memory to the hard drive. When a program requests access to this data, it is returned from the hard drive to memory in specific units called page frames. Accessing data stored on hard drive pages takes longer than accessing data stored in memory because it requires read/write access to the physical disk. A security issue with using virtual swap space is that two or more processes can use the same resources and corrupt or damage data.

×：Allowing cookies to remain persistent in memory

This is incorrect because virtual storage is not associated with cookies. Virtual storage uses hard drive space to extend RAM memory space. Cookies are small text files used primarily by web browsers. Cookies can contain credentials for web sites, site preferences, and shopping history. Cookies are also commonly used to maintain web server-based sessions.

×：Side-channel attacks are possible.

Side-channel attacks are incorrect because they are physical attacks. This type of attack gathers information about how a mechanism (e.g., smart card or encryption processor) works from abandoned radiation, time spent processing, power consumed to perform a task, etc. Using the information, reverse engineer the mechanism to reveal how it performs its security task. This is not related to virtual storage.

×：Two processes can perform a denial of service attack.

The biggest threat within a system where resources are shared between processes is that one process can adversely affect the resources of another process, since the operating system requires memory to be shared among all resources. This is especially true in the case of memory. It is possible for two processes to work together to perform a denial of service attack, but this is only one of the attacks that can be performed with or without the use of virtual storage.

To test the application, normal user behavior must be emulated. However, common loads of user activity are not available in the testing environment. Therefore, common user transaction scripts can be built to facilitate different forms of testing.

The Clipper chip is a chipset developed by the National Security Agency (NSA) and implemented as an encryption device that protects “voice and data messages” as an embedded backdoor. It used SkipJack, a block cipher.

〇：Due Care

Confidentiality means that the company does everything it could reasonably have done to prevent a security breach under the circumstances and takes appropriate control and action in the event of a security breach. In short, it means that the company is acting responsibly by practicing common sense and prudent management. If a company has a facility that is not fire-immune, its arsonist will be only a small part of this tragedy. The company is responsible for providing fire-resistant building materials, alarms, exits, fire extinguishers, and backup fire detection and suppression systems, all critical information specific areas that could be affected by a fire. If a fire were to burn the company’s building and all records (customer data, inventory records, and information needed to rebuild the business) were to disappear, the company would not take precautions to ensure that it is protected against that loss. For example, it would be possible to back up to an off-site location. In this case, employees, shareholders, customers, and anyone else affected could potentially sue the company. However, if the company has done all that is expected of it in terms of the points mentioned so far, it is difficult to sue without success if proper care (dee care) is not taken.

×：Downstream Liability

Is wrong because one firm’s activities (or lack thereof) may have a negative impact on other firms. If either company fails to provide the required level of protection and its negligence affects the partners with whom it cooperates, the affected company can sue the upstream company. For example, suppose Company A and Company B have built an extranet. Company A has not implemented controls to detect and address viruses. Company A is infected with a harmful virus, which infects Company B through the extranet. The virus destroys critical data and causes a major disruption to Company B’s production. Company B can therefore sue Company A for negligence. This is an example of downstream liability.

×：Liability

Incorrect, as it generally refers to the obligation and expected behavior or actions of a particular party. Obligations can have a defined set of specific actions required, which is a more general and open approach that allows parties to determine how to fulfill specific obligations.

×：Due diligence

A better answer to this question. Liability is not considered a legal term as with the other answers. Due diligence is because the firm has properly investigated all of its possible weaknesses and vulnerabilities. Before you can understand how to properly protect yourself, you need to know that you are protecting yourself. To understand the real level of risk, investigate and assess the real level of vulnerability. Even after these steps and assessments have been made, effective controls and protective measures can be identified and implemented. Due diligence means identifying all potential risks, but an appropriate response is one that actually mitigates the risk.

MAC (mandatory access control) is often used when confidentiality is of utmost importance. Access to objects is determined by labels and clearances. It is often used in organizations where confidentiality is very important, such as the military.

〇：Send a report labeled “No output”.

If there is nothing to report (nothing to report), you need to make sure the manager is aware that the report has no information and is not only to be held accountable.

×：Send an email notifying the manager that there is nothing to report.

It is not appropriate to suddenly keep a record of the report by e-mail, since the report is normally scheduled to be reported in the operation. Realistically, wouldn’t you be more endearing to your manager if you communicated with him or her every step of the way? No, I am not asking you to do that.

×：Re-submit last week’s report and submit the date of last week’s report as this week’s date.

Delivering last week’s report does not express that nothing was reported this week.

×：Nothing.

You are required to report that nothing happened.

〇：Business Continuity Processes Integrate Change Management Processes

Unfortunately, business continuity plans can quickly become outdated. An outdated BCP can give a company a false sense of security, which can be fatal if a disaster actually occurs. One of the simplest, most cost-effective, and process-efficient ways to keep your plan current is to incorporate it into your organization’s change management process. Are new applications, equipment, and services documented? Are updates and patches documented? The change management process should be updated to incorporate fields and triggers that alert the BCP team when significant changes occur and provide a means to update recovery documentation. Ensure that the BCP is kept up-to-date, and other measures include maintaining personnel evaluations of the plan and conducting regular training on using the plan, such as making business continuity part of all business decisions.

×：Update hardware, software, and application changes

Wrong because hardware, software, and application changes occur frequently; unless the BCP is part of a change management process, these changes are not included in the BCP. The BCP should be updated when changes to the environment occur. If it is not updated after a change, it is out of date.

×：Infrastructure and Environment Change Updates

Incorrect because infrastructure and environment changes occur frequently. Unless the BCP is part of a change management process, as with software, hardware, and application changes, infrastructure and environment changes are unlikely to result in a transition to the BCP.

×：Personnel changes

Incorrect, as the plan may become obsolete. It is not uncommon for BCPs to be abandoned when the person or persons responsible for maintenance leave the company. These responsibilities must be reassigned. To ensure this, maintenance responsibilities must be built into job descriptions and properly monitored.

〇：All failed access attempts should be logged and reviewed.

The physical access control system may use software and auditing capabilities to generate an audit trail or access log associated with access attempts. The date and time of the entry point when access was attempted, the user ID used when access was attempted, and any failed access attempts, among others, should be recorded.

×：Failed access attempts are recorded and only security personnel are entitled to review them.

Unless someone actually reviews them, the access logs are as useless as the audit logs generated by the computer. Security guards should review these logs, but security professionals and facility managers should review these logs on a regular basis. The administrator must know the existence and location of entry points into the facility.

×：Only successful access attempts should be logged and reviewed.

Wrong, as unsuccessful access attempts should be logged and reviewed. Audit should be able to alert you to suspicious activity even though you are denying an entity access to a network, computer, or location.

×：Failed access attempts outside of business hours should be logged and reviewed.

Incorrect, as all unauthorized access attempts should be logged and reviewed regardless. Unauthorized access can occur at any time.

〇：Council of Europe Convention on Cybercrime

The Council of Europe (CoE) Convention on Cybercrime is an example of an attempt to create a standard international response to cybercrime. It is the first international treaty to address computer crime by coordinating national laws and improving investigative techniques and international cooperation. The treaty’s objectives include creating a framework to bind the jurisdiction of the accused and the perpetrators of the crimes. For example, extradition is possible only if the case is a crime in both countries.

×：World Congress Council on Cybercrime

The World Congress Council on Cybercrime is misleading and therefore wrong. The official name of the Convention is the Council of Europe’s Convention on Cybercrime. It establishes comprehensive legislation against cybercrime and serves as a framework for international cooperation among the signatories to the Convention to guide all countries.

×：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

Image C is wrong because the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an international organization that brings together different governments to help address the economic, social, and governance challenges of a globalized economy. For this reason, the OECD has developed national guidelines to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone adheres to the same kinds of rules.

×：Organization for Cooperation and Development in Cybercrime

Organization for Cooperation and Development of Cybercrime is the wrong answer. There is no formal entity of this name.

〇：Considering an architecture that can handle health information.

Carol is a systems engineer and is expected to explore systemic realities. It is likely that she is deviating from her role to preemptively explain why it cannot be done systemically, to modify approvals other than the system configuration, or to initiate legal work. The correct answer, therefore, is, “Think about an architecture that can handle health information.” The correct answer would be

×：To address the dangers of handling health information in the system.

The basic stance of a system engineer is to obtain feasibility as a system. Although it is necessary to supplement the danger to the proposed idea, appealing the danger should not be the main purpose.

×：Obtaining permission to entrust health information from a medical institution.

A contract should be signed and the legal scope of responsibility should be clarified. This is outside the scope of the system engineer’s scope.

×：To prepare a written consent to use for handling health information.

It is necessary to obtain consent for end users before using the service, and the scope of legal responsibility needs to be clarified. This is outside the scope object of the system engineer’s scope.

Web access management (WAM) software controls what users can access when interacting with Web-based corporate assets using a Web browser. This type of technology is continually becoming more robust and experiencing increased deployment. This is due to the increased use of e-commerce, online banking, content delivery, and Web services. The basic components and activities of the Web access control management process are

• The user submits credentials to the web server.
• The web server requests the WAM platform to authenticate the user. WAM authenticates to the LDAP directory and obtains credentials from the policy database.
• The user requests access to a resource (object).
• The web server verifies that object access is allowed and grants access to the requested resource.

When the complicated term WAM is mentioned, the journey begins to search for a definition of WAM that may be at the end of one’s brain. But as these thoughts begin, you will want the hard answers, like the X.500 database. But if you don’t know, it is straightforward to interpret and answer to the best of your understanding; if you interpret WAM as software that controls access to a Web server, then the question is, “Which is the correct definition of WAM?” Rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does?” rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does? However, it is still tempting to factor in the possibility that WAM is a solution that uses a specific technology that may be unfamiliar to you.

〇：OSI reference model

The OSI reference model is a seven-layer classification of network communication. The concepts of application communication and session are separated, which would be clearly communicated based on the OSI reference model. Therefore, the correct answer is “OSI reference model.

×：TCP/IP model

The TCP/IP model is a layer design that is closer to the concept of a system than the OSI reference model; in the TCP/IP model, the application layer, presentation layer, and session layer of the OSI reference model are represented by a single application layer.

×：Data link model

There is no such model.

×：Biba model

Biba model is one of the security models that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

〇：Digital Signature

A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of signing means encrypting a hash value of a message with a private key. A message can be digitally signed, providing authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The hash function guarantees the integrity of the message, and the signature of the hash value provides authentication and non-repudiation.

×：Encryption Algorithms

Encryption algorithms are wrong because they provide confidentiality. Encryption is most commonly performed using symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity as well as confidentiality.

×：Hash Algorithms

Hash algorithms are wrong because they provide data integrity. Hash algorithms generate a message digest, which detects whether modifications have been made (also called a hash value). The sender and receiver individually generate their own digests, and the receiver compares these values. If they differ, the receiver can know the message has been modified. Hash algorithms cannot provide authentication or non-repudiation.

×：Encryption paired with digital signatures

This is incorrect because encryption and digital signatures provide confidentiality, authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. Encryption alone provides confidentiality. And digital signatures provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The question requires that it can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. It is a nasty question.

〇：Central Control Systems

The most common types of industrial control systems (ICS) are distributed control systems (DCS), programmable logic controllers (PLC), and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems. Although these systems provide a type of central control function, central control systems are not considered a common type of ICS because these systems are inherently distributed. DCSs are used to control product systems for industries such as water, electricity, and refineries. A DCS connects controllers that are distributed across geographic locations using a centralized supervisory control loop. This supervisory controller requests status data from field controllers and feeds this information back to a central interface for monitoring. Status data retrieved from sensors can be used in failover situations. The DCS can provide redundant protection in a modular fashion. This reduces the impact of a single failure. In other words, if a part of the system goes down, the entire system does not go down.

×：Programmable Logic Controllers

A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a common industrial control system (ICS) used to connect sensors throughout a utility network and convert this sensor signal data into digital data that can be processed by software monitoring and management. Originally created to perform simplified logic functions within basic hardware, PLCs have evolved into powerful controllers used in both SCADA and DCS systems. In SCADA systems, PLCs are most commonly used to communicate with remote field devices, while in DCS systems they are used as local controllers in supervisory control schemes. PLCs provide an application programming interface that allows communication with engineering control software applications.

×：Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) is used to refer to computerized systems used to collect and process data and apply operational control to components that make up a utility-based environment. This is a common type of ICS. SCADA control centers allow centralized monitoring and control of field sites (e.g., power grid, water supply systems). Field sites have remote station control devices (field devices) that provide data to the central control center. Based on the data sent from the field device, an automated process or operator can control the remote device to solve a problem or send commands to change the configuration for operational needs. This is a difficult environment to work within because the hardware and software is usually proprietary to a particular industry. It is privately owned and operated. Communication can be via telecommunication links, satellites, and microwave-based systems.

×：Distributed Control Systems

This is incorrect because Distributed Control Systems (DCS) are a common type of ICS. In a DCS, control elements are not centralized. The control elements are distributed throughout the system and managed by one or more computers. SCADA systems, DCSs, and PLCs are used in industrial sectors such as water, oil and gas, electrical, and transportation. These systems are considered “critical infrastructure” and are highly interconnected and dependent systems. Until now, these critical infrastructure environments have not used the same types of technologies and protocols as the Internet, making them very difficult to attack in isolation. Over time, these proprietary environments were converted to IP-based environments using IP-based workstations connected to networking devices. While this transition allows for centralized management and control, it also creates a type of cyber attack that is always vulnerable to the computer industry.

〇：Security

Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) refers to a transmission technology that delivers voice communications over an IP network; IP telephony uses technology that is similar to TCP/IP and therefore similar in its vulnerabilities. Voice systems are vulnerable to application manipulation and unauthorized administrative access. It is also vulnerable to denial of service attacks against gateway and network resources. Eavesdropping is also a concern since data traffic is transmitted in clear text unless encrypted.

The term security is a difficult answer to choose from because it has a very broad meaning. However, information security scriptures such as CISSP are persistent in saying that VoIP has vulnerabilities. Although this answer is a bit over the top in practical terms, it was made to educate the public, because depending on the creator’s intentions, this issue may arise.

×：Cost

Wrong, because cost is an advantage of VoIP; with VoIP’s, a company becomes a dedicated alternative to a separate network dedicated to data transmission and voice transmission. For telephony features such as conference calling, call forwarding, and automatic redialing are freed up in VoIP, which is open source, while companies that use traditional communications charge for VoIP.

×：Convergence

Wrong because convergence is the advantage of VoIP. Convergence means the integration of traditional IP networks with traditional analog telephone networks.

×：Flexibility

Wrong, because flexibility is an advantage of VoIP. The technology is very simple, easy and supports multiple calls over a single Internet broadband connection.

〇：Entity integrity

Entity integrity ensures that a tuple is uniquely identified by its primary key value. A tuple is a row in a two-dimensional database. The primary key is the corresponding column value that makes each row unique. For entity integrity, every tuple must contain one primary key. If a tuple does not have a primary key, the tuple will not be referenced by the database.

×：Concurrent Maintainability

Concurrent integrity is not a formal term in database software and is therefore incorrect. There are three main types of integrity services: semantic, reference, and entity. Concurrency is software that is accessed by multiple users or applications simultaneously. Without controls in place, two users can access and modify the same data at the same time.

×：Referential Integrity

Referential integrity is incorrect because it references all foreign keys that refer to an existing primary key. There must be a mechanism to ensure that foreign keys do not contain references to non-existent records or null-valued primary keys. This type of integrity control allows relationships between different tables to work properly and communicate properly with each other.

×：Semantic Integrity

The semantic integrity mechanism is incorrect because it ensures that the structural and semantic rules of the database are in place. These rules concern data types, boolean values, uniqueness constraints, and operations that may adversely affect the structure of the database.

〇：Softphones are safer than IP phones. 

IP softphones should be used with caution. A softphone is a software application that allows users to make calls via computer over the Internet. Replacing dedicated hardware, a softphone works like a traditional telephone. Skype is an example of a softphone application. Compared to hardware-based IP phones, softphones are more receptive to IP networks. However, softphones are no worse than other interactive Internet applications because they do not separate voice traffic from data, as IP phones do, and also because data-centric malware can more easily enter the network through softphones. network.

×：VoIP networks should be protected with the same security controls used on data networks.

The statement is incorrect because it correctly describes the security of an IP telephony network. an IP telephony network uses the same technology as a traditional IP network, which allows it to support voice applications. Therefore, IP telephony networks are susceptible to the same vulnerabilities as traditional IP networks and should be protected accordingly. This means that IP telephony networks should be designed to have adequate security.

×：As an endpoint, IP telephony can be a target of attack.

Incorrect because true: An IP phone on an IP telephony network is equivalent to a workstation on a data network in terms of vulnerability to attack. Thus, IP phones should be protected with many of the same security controls implemented on traditional workstations. For example, the default administrator password must be changed. Unnecessary remote access functions need to be disabled. Logging should be enabled and the firmware upgrade process should be secured.

×：The current Internet architecture in which voice is transmitted is more secure than physical phone lines.

True and therefore incorrect. In most cases, the current Internet architecture in which voice is transmitted is more secure than physical telephone lines. Physical phone lines provide a point-to-point connection, which is difficult to leverage over the software-based tunnels that make up the bulk of the Internet. This is an important factor to consider when protecting IP telephony networks because the network is now transmitting 2 valuable asset data and voice. It is not unusual for personal information, financial information, and other sensitive data to be spoken over the phone; intercepting this information over an IP telephony network is as easy as intercepting regular data. Currently voice traffic should also be encrypted.

〇：Business Case

The most important part of establishing and maintaining a current continuity plan is management support. Management may need to be convinced of the need for such a plan. Therefore, a business case is needed to obtain this support. The business case should include current vulnerabilities, legal obligations, current status of the recovery plan, and recommendations. Management is generally most interested in cost-benefit issues, so preliminary figures can be gathered and potential losses estimated. Decisions about how a company should recover are business decisions and should always be treated as such.

×：Business Impact Analysis

Incorrect because the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) was conducted after the BCP team gained management’s support for its efforts. A BIA is conducted to identify areas of greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. It identifies the company’s critical systems required for survival and estimates the amount of downtime the company can tolerate as a result of a disaster or disruption.

×：Risk Analysis

Incorrect, as this is a method of identifying risks and assessing the potential damage that could be caused to justify security protection measures. In the context of BCP, risk analysis methods should be used in a BIA to identify which processes, devices, or operations are critical and should be recovered first.

×：Threat reports

The answer is wrong because it is unintended. However, it is important for management to understand what the actual threats are to the enterprise, the consequences of those threats, and the potential loss value for each threat. Without this understanding, management pays lip service to continuity planning and in some cases may be worse than if it did not plan because of the false awareness of security it creates.

〇：Data Encryption

The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a data encryption standard developed to improve upon the previous de facto standard, Data Encryption Standard (DES). As a symmetric algorithm, AES is used to encrypt data. Therefore, the correct answer is “data encryption.

There are other situations where AES is used in the other choices, but encrypting data is the most focused or better answer. Thus, there are cases where all of the choices are correct.

×：Data integrity

This is a characteristic of digital signatures.

×：Key recovery

It is a property of decryption and key escrow.

×：Symmetric key distribution

Using symmetric keys for AES distribution lowers the key delivery problem.

〇：Conflict condition

A race condition is present when a process performs a task on a shared resource and the sequence could be in the wrong order. 2 or more processes can have a race condition if they use a shared resource, like data in a variable. It is important that processes perform their functions in the correct sequence.

×：Backdoors

Backdoors are incorrect because they are “listening” services on certain ports. Backdoors are implemented by attackers to allow easy access to the system without authenticating as a normal system user.

×：Maintenance Hooks

Maintenance hooks are specific software codes that allow easy and unauthorized access to sensitive parts of a software product. Software programmers use maintenance hooks to allow them to get quick access to the code so that they can make fixes in immediate, but this is dangerous.

×：Data validation errors

Data validation errors are wrong because an attacker cannot operate on the process execution sequence.

〇：Shoulder Surfing Attacks

Shoulder surfing is a type of browsing attack in which an attacker looks over the shoulder of another person to see what is being typed on that person’s monitor items or keyboard. Of the attacks listed, this is the easiest to perform in that it requires no knowledge of the computer system. Therefore, the correct answer is a shoulder surfing attack.

×：Dictionary attack

A dictionary attack is an unauthorized login that targets users who use words as passwords.

×：Side-channel attack

A side-channel attack is an attack that eavesdrops on system data from physical information.

×：Timing Attacks

A timing attack is an attack in which various input information is given to a device that processes ciphers, and the cipher key or other information is deduced from the difference in processing time. If processing time is taken, it can be inferred as a rough indication that the process is proceeding normally as a process, and so on.

Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detection (CSMA / CD) is used for systems that can transmit and receive simultaneously, such as Ethernet. If two clients listen at the same time and make sure the line is clear, both may transmit at the same time, causing a collision. Collision Detection (CD) is added to solve this scenario. The client checks to see if the line is idle and transmits if it is idle. If in use, they wait for a random time (milliseconds). During transmission, they monitor the network and if more input is received than transmitted, another client is also transmitting and sends a jam signal instructing other nodes to stop transmitting, wait a random time and then start transmitting again.

〇：Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an access control that enforces access privileges by pre-classifying resources into levels. There are several types of access rights to data files. There are several types of access rights to data files: the user of the data file, the owner who creates the data file, and the administrator who decides which owner can create the data. SELinux, TOMOYO Linux, Trusted BSD, and Trusted Solaris are methods used by MACs.

×：Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control method that allows the owner of an access target to change access privileges.

×：Role Access Control (RAC)

There is no such term. A close equivalent is role-based access control, which divides accounts by role and applies access control to those roles.

×：Voluntary Access Control (VAC)

There is no such term.

〇：Purge by overwriting

Purging means making data unavailable even by physical forensic efforts. This is typically accomplished by overwriting each sector of the medium on which the data is stored.

×：Deleting data

Wrong. Deleting data by operating system command typically leaves the data on the storage medium while marking the clusters or blocks that are stored for later reuse.

Personally, I feel that this option is better prepared for the exam. This is because the choice uses the general language of deleting data, which allows the answer to be given in a short time and in a broad sense. However, the term purge is a stronger fit for the question than the answer to this question.

×：Sanitizing media

Wrong. Although more powerful than simply deleting data with an operating system command, sanitization usually refers to making storage media reusable within the same security context.

The method-specific option “purge” is a stronger fit for the problem, since you asked for “using special skills, such as physical or forensic.”

×：None of these work!

Wrong. With appropriate prudence, purging techniques can successfully handle data residuals.

〇：TOC/TOU

Certain attacks can take advantage of the way a system processes requests and performs tasks. A TOC/TOU attack handles a series of steps that the system uses to complete a task. This type of attack takes advantage of the reliance on the timing of events occurring in a multitasking operating system; TOC/TOU is a software vulnerability that allows the use of condition checking (i.e., credential verification) and the results from that condition checking function. In the scenario in this question, the fact that the web application is likely correctly configured indicates that the programming code of this application has this type of vulnerability embedded in the code itself.

×：Buffer overflow

When too much data is accepted as input to a particular process, a buffer overflow occurs. This is incorrect because it does not match the event in the problem statement. A buffer is an allocated segment of memory. A buffer can overflow arbitrarily with too much data, but to be used by an attacker, the code inserted into the buffer must be of a specific length and require a command to be executed by the attacker. These types of attacks are usually exceptional in that the fault is segmented, or sensitive data is provided to the attacker.

×：Blind SQL Injection

Blind SQL injection attacks are wrong because they are a type of SQL injection attack that sends true or false questions to the database. In a basic SQL injection, the attacker sends specific instructions in SQL format to query the associated database. In a blind SQL attack, the attacker is limited to sending a series of true-false questions to the database in order to analyze the database responses and gather sensitive information.

×：Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is incorrect because it is an attack type that attempts to trick the victim into loading a web page containing malicious requests or operations. The attack operation is performed within the context of the victim’s access rights. The request inherits the victim’s identity and performs undesirable functions for the victim. In this type of attack, the attacker can cause the victim’s system to perform unintended actions such as changing account information, retrieving account data, or logging out. This type of attack could be related to the scenario described in this question, but focuses on how the user can bypass the locking mechanism built into the web application. The logic in the programming code is incorrectly developed and the locking function is bypassed because a rigorous series of checks and usage sequences are not performed correctly.

〇：Review the schedule.

Unit testing is testing to confirm that the developed module works as a stand-alone unit. Acceptance testing is testing to make sure that the customer who ordered the development actually uses it and is satisfied with it. Acceptance testing cannot take the place of unit testing. It is not upward compatible as a test, and the perspectives are different. Therefore, the correct answer is “Review the schedule.” The correct answer is “Review the schedule.

×：Unit testing is not performed for the sake of work efficiency.

It does not mean that unit tests are not performed.

×：Increase the number of items in the acceptance test for the unit test that could not be done.

The items that should have been done in the actual unit test are simply accounted for as acceptance tests, and the unit test is not considered to have been completed. This is an action that is close to concealment.

×：Report to your supervisor.

You are in charge of project management.

〇：Cessation of activities that pose a risk.

This question is about choosing what is not included. Discontinuing an activity that introduces risk is a way to address risk through avoidance. For example, there are many risks surrounding the use of instant messaging (IM) within a company. If a company decides not to allow the use of IM because there is no business need to do so, banning this service is an example of risk avoidance. The risk assessment does not include the implementation of such measures. Therefore, the correct answer is “discontinue the activity that poses a risk”.

×：Asset Identification

This is incorrect because identifying the asset is part of the risk assessment and is required to identify what is not included in the risk assessment. To determine the value of an asset, the asset must first be identified. Identifying and valuing assets is another important task of risk management.

×：Threat Identification

This is incorrect because identifying threats is part of risk assessment and requires identifying what is not included in the risk assessment. A risk exists because a threat could exploit a vulnerability. If there are no threats, there are no risks. Risk links vulnerabilities, threats, and the resulting potential for exploitation to the business.

×：Risk analysis in order of cost

Analyzing risks in order of cost or criticality is part of the risk assessment process and is inappropriate because questions are asked to identify what is not included in the risk assessment. A risk assessment examines and quantifies the risks a company faces. Risks must be addressed in a cost-effective manner. Knowing the severity of the risk allows the organization to determine how to effectively address it.

〇：Verifying Data Availability

The responsibility for verifying data availability is the sole responsibility that does not belong to the data (information) owner. Rather, it is the responsibility of the data (information) controller. The data controller is also responsible for maintaining and protecting the data in accordance with the data owner’s instructions. This includes performing regular backups of data, restoring data from backup media, maintaining records of activities, and enforcing information security and data protection requirements in company policies, guidelines, and standards. Data owners work at a higher level than data managers. The data owner basically says, “This is the level of integrity, availability, and confidentiality you need to provide. Please do it now”. The data administrator is executing these permissions and following up on the installed controls to ensure they are working properly.

×：Assigning Information Classification

Incorrect as you are asking if Jim is not responsible for the assignment of information classifications because as the data owner, Jim is responsible for the assignment of information classifications.

×：Determining how to protect data

Incorrect because the data owner, such as Jim, is responsible for determining how the information is protected. The data owner has organizational responsibility for data protection and is liable for any negligence with respect to protecting the organization’s information assets. This means that Jim needs to decide how to protect the information and ensure that the data controller (a role usually occupied by IT or security) is implementing these decisions.

×：Determining how long to retain data

This is incorrect because the decision of how long to retain data is the responsibility of the data owner. The data owner is also responsible for determining who can access the information and ensuring that the appropriate access rights are used. He may approve access requests himself or delegate that function to the business unit manager. The business unit manager approves the request based on the user access criteria defined by the data owner.

〇：The attacker knows nothing about the organization other than the information that is publicly available.

In black box testing (zero-knowledge), the attacker has no knowledge about the organization other than the publicly available information. The focus is on what the external attacker does. Therefore, the correct answer is “knows nothing about the organization other than the information that is publicly available.” The result will be

×：I know everything.

White box testing is testing to verify the operation of a program, which is done after knowing what is in the program.

×：I keep the product manual and retain privileged access.

A gray box test is a test that is performed by a pen tester to some extent, with the attacker having only limited knowledge of the program.

This is a white box test or gray box test.

×：The vendor retains an accessible level of information.

In a black box test, the attacker has no information in principle.

〇：Restore the virus unpatched file version from the backup media.

The best practice is to install an unpatched, uninfected version of the file from the backup media. It is important to restore files that are known to be clean, as attempts to remove the files may corrupt them. The most important thing is not to spread the impact, but attempting to unilaterally delete files may make them unavailable for later investigation.

×：Replace the file with the file saved the previous day.

The file saved the previous day may also contain the virus.

×：Delete the file and contact the vendor.

This is an incorrect answer because the condition of this question is that if the file is deleted, the normal file content itself may be damaged.

×：Back up the data and delete the file.

This is an incorrect answer because backing up the data that contains the virus and deleting the file does not result in a clean situation.

〇：(A) Web Service Description Language – (B) Universal Description, Discovery and Integration

Services in service-oriented architectures (SOA) are typically provided via Web services, which enable Web-based communication to occur seamlessly using Web-based standards such as Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP), HTTP, Web Service Description Language (WSDL), Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration （WSDL provides a machine-readable description of the specific operations provided by a service; UDDI is an XML-based registry that lists available services UDDI provides a way for services to be registered by service providers and deployed by service consumers.

×：(A) generic description, discovery and integration – (B) web service description language

Incorrect because the terms are not in the correct order and do not map to the definitions provided within the question.

×：(A) Web Service Description Language – (B) Simple Object Access Protocol

SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) is incorrect because it is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web services environment. SOAP defines an XML schema for how communication is actually going to take place. SOAP XML schema defines how objects communicate directly.

×：(A) Simple Object Access Protocol (B) Universal Description, Discovery and Integration

SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) is incorrect because it is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web services environment. SOAP defines the XML schema of how communication is actually going to take place. SOAP XML Schema defines how objects communicate directly.

〇：Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED)

Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED) is a method by which crime can be reduced through proper design of the physical environment. It provides guidance on appropriate facility construction and environmental elements and crime prevention. It is used to guide the physical environment to behavioral effects that reduce crime.

×：Multi-layered defense model  

The multi-layered defense model is incorrect because it is a hierarchical architecture of physical, logical, and administrative security controls. The concept is that if one layer fails, the asset is protected by other layers. Layers should be moved from the perimeter toward the asset and implemented.

×：Hiding by Ambiguity

Concealment by ambiguity is a technique of concealment secured by concealment of information and is incorrect. Basically, it is better not to consider something to be a true secret if it is logically reachable, even if it is not public.

×：Access Control

Access control is incorrect because it is guidance by the placement of doors, fences, lighting, and landscaping as people enter. It is an abstract concept and would not fit into a concrete definition that combines sociology.

HIPAA covered entities and the organizations and individuals who assist them in their business are treated in the same manner as HIPAA covered entities. Health care providers, health information clearinghouses, and health insurance plans are covered entities. Developers of health apps are responsible as programmers rather than holders or plan holders of bodily information. They may not be covered by HITECH, which focuses on how body information is managed. Therefore, the correct answer is “health app developer”.

It is not necessary to know the detailed HITECH requirements. You can classify them based on whether or not you are dealing with information and answer the questions by process of elimination.

〇：Telnet must be used to send commands and data.

Telnet sends all data, including administrator credentials, in plain text and should not be allowed for remote administration. This type of communication should be via a more secure protocol, such as SSH.

×：Only a small number of administrators should be allowed to perform remote functions.

Wrong, as it is true that only a few administrators should be able to perform remote functions. This minimizes the risk to the network.

×：Critical systems should be managed locally, not remotely.

Wrong because it is true that critical systems need to be managed locally, not remotely. It is safer to send management commands on an internal private network than over a public network.

×：Strong authentication is required.

Wrong because it is true that strong authentication is required for any management activity. Anything weaker than strong authentication, such as a password, is easy for an attacker to break in and gain administrative access.

〇：Can be the cheapest of the off-site options, but can create many security problems due to mixed operations.

Reciprocal agreements, also called mutual aid, mean that Company A agrees to allow Company B to use its facilities if Company B suffers a disaster, and vice versa. While this is a less expensive way to move than other off-site alternatives, it is not always the best choice. In most environments, the facility has reached its limits regarding the use of space, resources, and computing power. To allow different firms to come in and operate out of the same store could be detrimental to both firms. The stress of both companies working in the same environment can cause tremendous levels of tension. If that did not work out, it would provide the only short-term solution. Configuration management could be a nightmare, and mixing operations could result in many security problems. Reciprocal agreements have been known to work well for certain companies, such as newsprint. These firms require very specific technology and equipment that is not available through any subscription service. For most other organizations, reciprocity agreements are, at best, generally a secondary option for disaster protection.

×：Fully set up and ready to operate within a few hours is the most expensive of the off-site options.

This is a description of a hot site.

×：Inexpensive option, but takes the most time and effort to get up and running after a disaster.

Explanation for cold sites.

×：A good alternative for companies that rely on proprietary software, but regular annual testing is usually not available.

This is incorrect as it describes with respect to companies that depend on proprietary software. Having proprietary software in a shared space with other vendors is basically undesirable from the standpoint of license agreements involved.

〇：The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

×：Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

×：Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

×：A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

〇：Normalization

Normalization is the process of efficiently organizing data by eliminating redundancy, reducing the potential for anomalies during data manipulation, and improving data consistency within a database. It is a systematic method of ensuring that database structures are correctly designed so that undesirable characteristics (insert, update, and delete anomalies) do not occur and data integrity is lost.

×：Polymorphism

Polymorphism is incorrect because different objects are given the same input and react differently.

×：Database View Implementation

A database view is a logical access control, implemented so that one group or specific user can see certain information and another group is restricted from seeing it completely, which is incorrect. For example, a database view could be implemented so that middle management can see the profits and expenses of a department without seeing the profits of the entire enterprise. Database views do not minimize duplicate data. Rather, it manipulates how the data is displayed by a particular user/group.

×：Schema Construction

Schemas in database systems are incorrect because they are structures described in a formal language. In a relational database, a schema defines tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, procedures, queues, database links, directories, etc. A schema describes the database and its structure, but not the data that exists in the database itself.

Disposable passwords and one-time pads are passwords but generated from something you own, not something you know. In other words, possession.

〇：Common Criteria

Common Criteria was created in the early 1990s as a way to combine the strengths of both the Trustworthy Computer Systems Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) and eliminate their weaknesses. Common Criteria is more flexible than TCSEC and easier than ITSEC. Common Criteria is recognized worldwide and assists consumers by reducing the complexity of assessments and eliminating the need to understand the definitions and meanings of different assessments in different assessment schemes. This also helps manufacturers because they can now build a specific set of requirements when they want to market their products internationally, rather than having to meet several different evaluation criteria under different rules and requirements.

×：ITSEC

This is incorrect because it is not the most widely used information technology security evaluation standard. ITSEC was the first attempt to establish a single standard for evaluating the security attributes of computer systems and products in many European countries. In addition, ITSEC separates functionality and assurance in its evaluations, giving each a separate rating. It was developed to provide greater flexibility than TCSEC and addresses integrity, availability, and confidentiality in networked systems. The goal of ITSEC was to become the global standard for product evaluation, but it failed to achieve that goal and was replaced by Common Criteria.

×：Red Book

Wrong, as it is a U.S. government publication that addresses the topic of security evaluation of networks and network components. Formally titled Trusted Network Interpretation, it provides a framework for protecting different types of networks. Subjects accessing objects on the network must be controlled, monitored, and audited.

×：Orange Book

Incorrect as this is a U.S. Government publication that addresses government and military requirements and expectations for operating systems. The Orange Book is used to evaluate whether a product is suitable for the security characteristics and specific applications or functions required by the vendor. The Orange Book is used to review the functionality, effectiveness, and assurance of the product under evaluation, using classes designed to address typical patterns of security requirements. It provides a broad framework for building and evaluating trusted systems, with an emphasis on controlling which users have access to the system. We call it the Orange Book, but another name for it is Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC).

〇：Converts bytecode to machine-level code.

Java is an object-oriented, platform-independent programming language. It is used as a full-fledged programming language to write programs called applets that run in the user’s browser. java is platform independent because it creates intermediate code that is not processor-specific bytecode. java virtual machine (JVM) converts bytecode into machine-level code that can be understood by processors on a particular system.

×：Converts source code to bytecode and blocks the sandbox.

Incorrect because the Java Virtual Machine converts bytecode to machine-level code. The Java compiler does not convert source code to bytecode. The JVM also creates a virtual machine in an environment called the sandbox. This virtual machine is the enclosed environment in which the applet executes its activities. The applet is typically sent via HTTP within the requested web page and is executed as soon as the applet arrives. If the applet developer fails to function properly, it may intentionally or accidentally perform a malicious act. Therefore, the sandbox strictly limits the applet’s access to system resources. The JVM mediates access to system resources to ensure that applet code runs and works within its own sandbox.

×：It runs only on specific processors within a specific operating system.

This is incorrect because Java is an object-oriented, platform-independent programming language. Other languages are compiled into object code for specific operating systems and processors. Thus, a particular application can run on Windows, but not on the Mac OS. Intel processors do not necessarily understand machine code compiled for Alpha processors. Java is platform independent because it creates intermediate code bytecode. It is not processor-specific code bytecode.

×：Develop an applet that runs in the user’s browser.

This is incorrect because the Java Virtual Machine does not create applets. Java is adopted as a full-fledged programming language and is used to write complete and short programs called applets that run in the user’s browser. Programmers create Java applets and run them through a compiler. The Java compiler converts the source code into byte code. The user then downloads the Java applet. The bytecode is converted to machine-level code by the JVM. Finally, the applet is executed when invoked.

〇：Only during code development.

Maintenance hoc refers to functions and tools that are temporarily used by the developer for testing purposes. In fact, in system development, tools are provided to assist in confirming that individual functions are working properly. However, if maintenance hocks are left in the production environment, they may be used by attackers and must be removed.

×：Maintenance hooks should not be used.

The use of maintenance hooks can make the work more efficient.

×：When you want to make the software available to administrators in a simplified manner.

In some cases, attackers can exploit tools that were supposed to be available only to administrators.

×：When you want users to be able to use the software in a simplified manner.

After the actual release of the software, maintenance hooks are not made available to users.

〇：The format of the audit log is unknown and is not available to the intruder in the first place.

Audit tools are technical controls that track activity within a network, on a network device, or on a specific computer. Auditing is not activity that denies an entity access to a network or computer, but it tracks activity so that the security administrator can understand the type of access made, identify security violations, or alert the administrator of suspicious activity. This information points out weaknesses in other technical controls and helps the administrator understand where changes need to be made to maintain the required level of security within the environment. Intruders can also use this information to exploit these weaknesses. Therefore, audit logs should be protected by controls on privileges, permissions, and integrity, such as hashing algorithms. However, the format of system logs is generally standardized for all similar systems. Hiding the log format is not a normal measure and is not a reason to protect audit log files.

×：If not properly protected, audit logs may not be admissible during prosecution.

This is incorrect because great care must be taken to protect audit logs in order for them to be admissible in court. Audit trails can be used to provide alerts about suspicious activity that can be investigated later. In addition, it is useful in determining exactly how far away the attack took place and the extent of any damage that may have occurred. It is important to ensure that a proper chain of custody is maintained so that all data collected can be properly and accurately represented in case it needs to be used in later events such as criminal proceedings or investigations.

×：Because audit logs contain sensitive data, only a specific subset of users should have access to them.

This is incorrect because only administrators and security personnel need to be able to view, modify, and delete audit trail information. Others cannot see this data and can rarely change or delete it. The use of digital signatures, message digest tools, and strong access controls can help ensure the integrity of the data. Its confidentiality can be protected with encryption and access control as needed, and it can be stored on write-once media to prevent data loss or tampering. Unauthorized access attempts to audit logs should be captured and reported.

×：Intruders may attempt to scrub logs to hide their activities.

If an intruder breaks into your home, do your best to leave no fingerprints or clues that can be used to link them to criminal activity. The same is true for computer fraud and illegal activity. Attackers often delete audit logs that hold this identifying information. In the text, deleting is described as scrubbing. Deleting this information may alert administrators to an alert or perceived security breach and prevent valuable data from being destroyed. Therefore, audit logs should be protected by strict access controls.

〇：Increasing database security controls and providing more granularity.

The best approach to protecting the database in this situation would be to increase controls and assign detailed permissions. These measures would ensure that users cannot abuse their permissions and that the confidentiality of the information is maintained. The granularity of permissions would give network administrators and security professionals additional control over the resources they are charged with protecting, and the granular level would allow them to give individuals just the exact level of access they need.

×：Implement an access control where each user’s privileges are displayed each time they access the database.

Implementing an access control that displays each user’s permissions is incorrect because they are an example of one control each time they access the database. This is not the overall way of dealing with user access to a database full of information. This may be an example of better database security control, but it needs to be limited to the right places.

×：Change the classification label of the database to a higher security status.

The classification level of the information in the database should previously be determined based on its level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This option implies that a higher level of authorization should be given, but there is no indication in the question text that the security level is inappropriate.

×：Reduce security. Allow all users to access information as needed.

The answer to reduce security is incorrect.

〇：Meetings should be conducted with a fixed number of members and should be as small as possible.

The BCP committee should be large enough to represent each department within the organization. It should consist of people who are familiar with the different departments within the company, as each department has unique functions and unique risks and threats. All issues and threats will be formulated when they are brought in and discussed. This cannot be done effectively with a few divisions or a few people. The committee must consist of at least business unit, senior management, IT, security, communications, and legal personnel.

Conducting meetings with a fixed number of members and as few as possible is certainly not a misinterpretation of “elite few. However, one must know what is the “best” answer and answer it.

×：Committee members should be involved in the planning, testing, and implementation phases.

The answer is incorrect because it is correct that committee members need to be involved in the planning, testing, and implementation phases. If Matthew, the coordinator of the BCP, is a good business leader, he will consider that it is best to make team members feel ownership over their duties and roles. The people who develop the BCP must also be the ones who implement it. If some critical tasks are expected to be performed during a time of crisis, additional attention should be given during the planning and testing phase.

×：The business continuity coordinator should work with management to appoint committee members.

This is incorrect because the BCP coordinator should work with management to appoint committee members. However, management’s involvement does not end there. The BCP team should work with management to finalize the goals of the plan, identify the critical parts of the business that must be handled first in the event of a disaster, and identify department and task priorities. Management also needs to help direct the team on the scope and specific goals of the project.

×：The team should consist of people from different departments within the company.

This is incorrect because the team should consist of people from different departments within the company. This will be the only way for the team to consider the risks and threats that each department faces according to the organization.

〇：Parallel testing or full interruption testing

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is considered a functional analysis where the team gathers data through interviews and documentation sources. Document business functions, activities, and transactions. Develop a hierarchy of business functions. Finally, a classification scheme is applied that indicates the level of importance of each individual function. Parallel and full interruption tests are not part of the BIA. These tests are performed to ensure the ongoing effectiveness of the business continuity plan to accommodate the constantly changing environment. While full interruption testing involves shutting down the original site and resuming operations and processing at an alternate site, parallel testing is performed to ensure that a particular system will actually function properly at the alternate off-site function.

×：Application of a classification scheme based on criticality levels.

This is incorrect because it is performed during a BIA. This is done by identifying a company’s critical assets and mapping them to characteristics such as maximum allowable downtime, operational disruption and productivity, financial considerations, regulatory liability, and reputation.

×：Gathering information through interviews

This is not correct as it is done during the BIA. The BCP committee does not truly understand all business processes, the steps to be taken, or the resources and supplies those processes require. Therefore, the committee should collect this information from people in the know, which are department heads and specific employees within the organization.

×：Document business functions

This is incorrect because the BCP committee makes this part of the BIA. Business activities and transactions must be documented. This information can come from department managers and specific employees who are interviewed or surveyed. Once the information is documented, the BCP committee can conduct an analysis to determine which processes, equipment, or operational activities are most critical.

〇：Digital Millennium Copyright Act

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) is a U.S. copyright law that makes it a crime, among other things, for technology to infringe upon the access control measures established to protect copyrighted material. Therefore, the correct answer is “Digital Millennium Copyright Act.

If you find a way to “unlock” a proprietary method of protecting an e-book, you can charge this act. Even if you do not share the actual copyrighted book with anyone, the specific law has been broken and you will be convicted.

×：COPPA

The Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) is a law that allows for the safe use of children’s sites on the Internet and prohibits children from being put at risk if they do not have any terms and conditions The law prohibits children from being endangered without any terms and conditions so that they can safely use the Internet for children.

×：Federal Privacy Act

There is no such law, but a close equivalent is the U.S. Federal Data Privacy Act. This would be a comprehensive privacy law at the federal level in the United States.

×：GDPR

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a privacy law for EU citizens that is a stricter version of the Data Protection Directive.

A well-known port is a port number from 0 to 1023 that is reserved for standard services. There are three port number combinations. Well-known port numbers (0-1023) are port numbers officially registered with IANA. Registered port numbers (1024-49151) are port numbers that are officially registered with IANA. A dynamic/private port number (49152-65535) is a port number that is not officially registered with IANA.

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.

〇：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with a public key.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses public key cryptography to provide data encryption, server authentication, message integrity, and optionally client authentication. When a client accesses a cryptographically protected page, the web server initiates TLS and begins the process of securing subsequent communications. The server performs a three-handshake to establish a secure session. After that, client authentication with a digital certificate, as the case may be, comes in. The client then generates a session key, encrypts it with the server’s public key, and shares it. This session key is used as the symmetric key for encrypting the data to be transmitted thereafter. Thus, the correct answer is: “The client generates a session key and encrypts it with the public key.” will be

×：The server generates the session key and encrypts it with the public key.

The server does not encrypt with the public key.

×：The server generates a session key and encrypts it with the private key.

Even if encryption is performed from the server side, it can be decrypted with the public key, so it is not structurally possible.

×：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with its private key.

The client side does not have the private key.

〇：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activity taking place within the host system.

Virtual firewalls can be bridge-mode products that monitor individual communication links between virtual machines. They can also be integrated within a hypervisor in a virtual environment. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of guest system software. When a firewall is embedded within the hypervisor, it can monitor all activities that occur within the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual network links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is incorrect because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links between hosts and not network links. Hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activities taking place within the guest system rather than the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is wrong because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links, and the hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, but not the guest system. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of the guest system software. A firewall, when embedded within the hypervisor, can monitor all activities taking place within the system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual guest systems, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the network system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic between guest systems, and a hypervisor integrated allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, not the network system, so Wrong.

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks usually do not provide financial gain to the attacker. Often, the motivation is revenge, disagreement with the organization’s policy decisions, or the attacker proving the extent of his or her animosity toward the organization. Certainly, it can be used to bloat the cost of a pay-as-you-go cloud service by causing it to consume more resources than expected by accessing it in large volumes, but it is a mistake in that it is not the financial objective of the parties involved.

Service Organization Control (SOC) is a rule established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) to assure the internal control of the party contracted to perform services. Sometimes, work is contracted out to other firms. In order to guarantee the quality of its own work, the company that is contracted to perform the work must also have appropriate controls in place. For this reason, we check the internal control of the outsourcing company to which the work is outsourced.

• SOC-1 (Internal Control over Financial Reporting (ICFR)) Audits the accounting of the trustee company.
  SOC-2 (Trust Services Criteria): Checks security and other controls other than accounting for the fiduciary company. Usually takes six months to complete.
  SOC-3 (Trust Services Criteria for General Use Report) Confirms security and other controls other than accounting for unspecified persons (users).

〇：Yes. The same goal should be held because there is security in achieving corporate goals.

There are KPIs and other marketin indicators to achieve organizational goals. Developing a security function in the organization also exists to achieve these goals.

×：Yes. Marketing in the security industry is allowed to be risk-off.

By “marketing in the security industry,” I do not mean aligning the security function within the organization.

×：No. The division of labor should be strictly enforced and left to specialists.

While the division of labor in an organization is certainly important, all members of the organization need to be security conscious.

×：No. Security has nothing to do with confidential information that would be an executive decision.

Security should be addressed by the entire organization. It is not irrelevant.

A captive portal is a mechanism that restricts communication with the outside world until user authentication, user registration, and user consent are performed when a terminal connects to the network.

〇：The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.

Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.

There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer

×：The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.

IaaS Description.

×：The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.

This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.

×：The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.

SaaS Description.

〇：Increased Processing Power

The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.

×：Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming

This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.

×：Dual-mode computation

The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.

×：Direct Memory Access I/O

Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.

〇：Risk Mitigation

Risk can be addressed in four basic ways: transfer, avoidance, mitigation, and acceptance. Sue reduces the risk posed by her e-mail system by implementing security controls such as antivirus and anti-spam software. This is also referred to as risk mitigation, where risk is reduced to a level considered acceptable. Risk can be mitigated by improving procedures, changing the environment, erecting barriers to threats, and implementing early detection techniques to stop threats when they occur and reduce damage.

×：Risk Acceptance

This is inappropriate because risk acceptance does not involve spending on protection or countermeasures such as anti-virus software. When accepting a risk, one should be aware of the level of risk faced and the potential damage costs and decide to keep it without implementing countermeasures. If the cost/benefit ratio indicates that the cost of countermeasures exceeds the potential losses, many companies will accept the risk.

×：Risk Avoidance

Wrong because it would mean discontinuing the activity that is causing the risk. In this case, Sue’s firm decides to continue using e-mail. A company may choose to terminate an activity that introduces risk if the risk outweighs the business needs of the activity. For example, a company may choose to block social media websites in some departments because of the risk to employee productivity.

×：Risk Transfer

This is incorrect because it involves sharing risk with other entities, as in the purchase of insurance to transfer some of the risk to the insurance company. Many types of insurance are available to firms to protect their assets. If a company determines that its total or excess risk is too high to gamble, it can purchase insurance.

〇：The expiration date should be set short.

Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.

×：Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.

This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.

×：Keys must not be made public.

Of course. It is a key.

×：Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.

Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.

〇：The security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor

The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is a complete combination of protection mechanisms for a system. These are in the form of hardware, software, and firmware. These same components also comprise the security kernel. Reference monitors are access control concepts implemented and enforced by the security kernel via hardware, software, and firmware. In doing so, it ensures that the security kernel, the subject, has the proper permissions to access the object it is requesting. The subject, be it a program, user, or process, cannot access the requesting file, program, or resource until it is proven that it has the proper access rights.

×：The reference monitor is the core of the Trusted Computing Base (TCP), which is comprised of the security kernel.

This is incorrect because the reference monitor is not the core of the TCB. The core of the TCB is the security kernel, and the security kernel implements the concepts of the reference monitor. The reference monitor is a concept about access control. It is often referred to as an “abstract machine” because it is not a physical component.

×：The reference monitor implements and executes the security kernel.

The reference monitor does not implement and execute the security kernel, which is incorrect. On the contrary, the security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor. The reference monitor is an abstract concept, while the security kernel is a combination of hardware, software, and firmware in a trusted computing base.

×：The security kernel, i.e., the abstract machine, implements the concept of a reference monitor.

This is incorrect because abstract machine is not another name for security kernel. Abstract machine is another name for the reference monitor. This concept ensures that the abstract machine acts as an intermediary between the subject and the object, ensuring that the subject has the necessary rights to access the object it is requesting and protecting the subject from unauthorized access and modification. The security kernel functions to perform these activities.

〇：Capability Maturity Model Integration

Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a comprehensive set of integration guidelines for developing products and software. It addresses the various phases of the software development life cycle, including concept definition, requirements analysis, design, development, integration, installation, operation, maintenance, and what should happen at each stage. The model describes the procedures, principles, and practices underlying the maturation of the software development process. It was developed to help software vendors improve their development processes. It will improve software quality, shorten the development life cycle, create and meet milestones in a timely manner, and adopt a proactive approach rather than a reactive approach that is less effective.

×：Software Development Life Cycle

Incorrect because the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) describes how a system should be developed and maintained throughout its life cycle and does not involve process improvement.

×：ISO/IEC 27002

Incorrect because ISO/IEC 27002 is an international standard that outlines how the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) create and maintain an organizational information security management system (ISMS). ISO/IEC 27002 has a section dealing with the acquisition, development, and maintenance of information systems, but does not provide a process improvement model for software development.

×：Certification and Accreditation Process

This is incorrect because the certification and accreditation (C&A) process handles testing and evaluation of systems against predefined criteria. This has nothing to do with improving the software development process.

Awareness is to inform the organization’s members of the information they already have in order to make them more vigilant again. Tranning is the input of information that is unknown to the members of the organization. Therefore, the difference between awareness-raising and tranning is whether the target audience is already aware of the information.

War Dialing is the indiscriminate and repeated act of cracking dial-ups in search of dial-up lines, such as those for non-public internal networks. It automatically scans a list of telephone numbers, usually dialing all numbers in the local area code, and searches modems, computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.

〇：Virtual Container for Data from Multiple Sources
Network directories are containers for users and network resources. Because one directory does not contain all the users and resources in an enterprise, a collection of directories must be used. A virtual directory collects the necessary information used from sources scattered throughout the network and stores it in a central virtual directory (virtual container). This provides a unified view of digital identity information for all users across the enterprise. The virtual directory is regularly synchronized with all identity stores (individual network directories) to ensure that up-to-date information is being used by all applications and identity management components in the enterprise.

×：Metadirectory

Virtual directories are similar to metadirectories, but incorrect because metadirectories work with one directory and virtual directories work with multiple data sources. When the Identity Management component calls the virtual directory, it can scan different directories across the enterprise, but the metadirectory only has the ability to scan one directory it is associated with.

×：User attribute information stored in the HR database

Incorrect because it describes an identity store. Much of the information stored in identity management directories is scattered throughout the enterprise. User attribute information (employee status, job description, department, etc.) is typically stored in the HR database. Authentication information can be stored in a Kerberos server, and resource-oriented authentication information can be stored in the domain controller’s Active Directory. These are commonly referred to as identity stores and are located elsewhere on the network. Many identity management products use virtual directories to call up the data in these identity stores.

×：Services that allow administrators to configure and manage the way identities are

This is incorrect because it describes a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage how identification, authentication, permissions, and access control are performed within a network. It uses namespaces to manage objects in the directory and enforces security policies configured by performing access control and identity management functions.

The data link layer or Layer 2 of the OSI model adds a header and trailer to the packet to prepare the packet in binary format in local area network or wide area network technology for proper line transmission. Layer 2 is divided into two functional sublayers. The upper sublayer is logical link control (LLC), which is defined in the IEEE 802.2 specification. It communicates with the network layer above the data link layer. Below the LLC is the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer, which specifies interfaces with the protocol requirements of the physical layer.

〇：Intercept anti-malware calls to the operating system for file system information.

This is a “no” question. Polymorphic viruses attempt to fool anti-malware scanners. In particular, they use methods to generate operational copies. Even if the anti-malware software detects and disables one or two copies, the other copies remain active in the system.

This problem must be solved by process of elimination. What definitions are polymorphic viruses? If you remember the word list “what is a polymorphic virus,” you may not understand what makes a polymorphic virus unique. The most striking feature of polymorphic viruses is that they repeatedly change entities.

×：Using noise, mutation engines, or random number generators to change the sequence of instructions.

Polymorphic-type viruses may change the sequence of instructions by including noise or false instructions along with other useful instructions. They can also use mutation engines and random number generators to alter the sequence of instructions in the hope that they will not be detected. The original functionality remains intact, but the code is altered, making it nearly impossible to identify all versions of the virus using a fixed signature.

×：Different encryption schemes that require different decryption routines can be used.

Polymorphic-type viruses can use different encryption schemes that require different decryption routines. This requires an anti-malware scan to identify all copies of this type of virus, one for each possible decryption method. Polymorphic virus creators hide the encrypted virus payload and add decryption methods to the code. Once encrypted, the code becomes meaningless, but that does not necessarily mean that the encrypted virus is a polymorphic virus and thus escapes detection.

×：Create multiple and various copies.

Polymorphic viruses generate multiple, varied copies in order to avoid detection by anti-malware software.

There is an unfamiliar term: data classification program. This is not a dictionary definition of the term. You want to classify data, what do you do to do that? What is the first step in this process? Since you are being asked about the “first step” in doing this, you can answer by listing the options in order and choosing the first option. Do not search the dictionary in your mind for the word “data classification,” think of the process flow of data classification, and recall the name of the first process.

In order, you might go from understanding the level of protection you need to provide, to specifying the data classification criteria, to determining the protection mechanisms for each classification level, to identifying the data controller. Whatever you do, the first step should be research. Then the problem is defined and the best answer is derived, which is the general solution to the problem.

Users can logically guess the URL or path to access resources they should not. If an organization’s network has access to a report name ending in “financials_2017.pdf”, it is possible to guess other file names that should not be accessed, such as “financials_2018.pdf” or “financials.pdf”.

〇：Tell your business partner that your company is not ready

Planned business continuity procedures can provide an organization with many benefits. In addition to the other response options listed previously, organizations can provide a quick and appropriate response to an emergency, mitigate the impact on their business, and work with outside vendors during the recovery period. Efforts in these areas should communicate to business partners that they are prepared in the event of a disaster.

×：Resuming Critical Business Functions

This is incorrect because a business continuity plan allows an organization to resume critical business functions. As part of the BCP development, the BCP team conducts a business impact analysis that includes identifying the maximum allowable downtime for critical resources. This effort helps the team prioritize recovery efforts so that the most critical resources can be recovered first.

×：Protecting Lives and Ensuring Safety

Business continuity planning allows organizations to protect lives and ensure safety, which is wrong. People are a company’s most valuable asset. Therefore, human resources are an integral part of the recovery and continuity process and must be fully considered and integrated into the plan. Once this is done, a business continuity plan will help a company protect its employees.

×：Ensure business viability

This is a fallacy because a well-planned business continuity plan can help a company ensure the viability of its business. A business continuity plan provides methods and procedures for dealing with long-term outages and disasters. It involves moving critical systems to another environment while the original facility is being restored and conducting business operations in a different mode until normal operations return. In essence, business continuity planning addresses how business is conducted after an emergency.

〇：Differential Backup

Backups can be taken in full, differential, or incremental. Most files are not changed daily to save very much time and resources, and it is better to develop a backup plan that does not back up for data that is not continually changing. In backup software, when a file is modified or created, the file system sets the archive bit and the backup software determines if that file should be backed up. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup.

×：Incremental Backup

An incremental backup backs up all data that has changed since the last backup.

×：Full Backup

A full backup backs up the entire database or the entire system.

×：Partial Backup

Not in the backup category.

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

Greenfield is undeveloped land that has not yet been built upon. The perspectives for selecting a site as a data center site include topography, utilities, and public safety.

• Topography refers to the physical shape of the landscape-hills, valleys, trees, streams.
• Utility refers to the degree to which power and internet in the area are reliable.
• Public safety is in terms of how high is the crime rate in the area and how close is the police force.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) floods are often used in distributed denial of service (DDOS) attacks because they are connectionless and yet allow for easy generation of UDP messages from various scripting and compilation languages. UDP is a datagram protocol.

〇：Cost-benefit analysis

To require that controls be put in place to reduce risk within acceptable limits, measures need to be selected that are identified as realistic, sufficiently likely, and sufficiently impactful. Simply analyzing the costs and benefits of possible measures will help determine what measures should be taken.

×：Risk Analysis

This is incorrect because risk determination is only the first step in identifying what may be needed to control risk within acceptable thresholds.

×：ALE Consequences

Wrong because ALE informs the firm of what it could lose if a particular threat becomes real. The value of the ALE goes into the cost-benefit analysis, but the ALE does not address the costs of the countermeasure and the benefits of the countermeasure.

×：Identifying vulnerabilities and threats that pose a risk

This is incorrect because although the vulnerability and threat assessments make the need for countermeasures known, the assessments alone do not determine what the cost-effectiveness of the competing countermeasures is expected to be.

Computer worms are standalone malware computer programs that replicate themselves and spread to other computers. They typically operate at OSI reference layers 5-7.

〇：Data User

An individual who uses data for work-related tasks is a data user. Users must have the necessary level of access to data to perform their job duties. They are also responsible for adhering to operational security procedures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data to others. This means that users must take appropriate precautions and follow both security policies and data classification rules.

×：Data Owners

This is incorrect because the data owner has a higher level of responsibility in protecting the data. The data owner is responsible for classifying the data, regularly reviewing the classification level, and delegating responsibility for the data protection position to the data controller. The data owner is usually a manager or executive within the organization and is responsible for the protection of the company’s information assets.

×：Data Controller

Incorrect, as the data controller is responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls as directed by the data owner. In other words, the data administrator is the technician of the controls that protect the data. Her duties include creating backups, restoring data, implementing and maintaining countermeasures, and managing controls.

×：Information Systems Auditor

Incorrect, as they are responsible for evaluating controls. After evaluating the controls, the auditor submits a report to management, mapping the results to the organization’s acceptable level of risk. This has nothing to do with using data or being meticulous in the use of data.

〇：To make information physically unrecoverable by any special effort.

Purging is the removal of sensitive data from disk. Software deletion of files on disk does not actually erase the data, only disconnects it from the location of the on-disk data. This means that if the data on the disk containing sensitive information cannot be completely erased, physical destruction is also necessary.

×：To change the polarization of atoms on a medium.

This is not a description of purging.

×：Do not authorize the reuse of media in the same physical environment for the same purpose.

While such an approval process may exist in practice, it is not a description of purging as data deletion.

×：To make data on media unrecoverable by overwriting it.

Simply overwriting media with new information does not eliminate the possibility of recovering previously written information.

Therefore, it does not fit the description of purging.

〇：Federation Identity

A federation identity is a portable identity and associated credentials that can be used across business boundaries. It allows users to authenticate across multiple IT systems and across the enterprise. Federation Identity is based on linking otherwise distinct identities of users in two or more locations without the need to synchronize or consolidate directory information. Federated Identity is an important component of e-commerce, providing businesses and consumers with a more convenient way to access distributed resources.

×：User Provisioning

User provisioning is incorrect because it refers to the creation, maintenance, and deactivation of user objects and attributes.

×：Directory

While most companies have some type of directory that contains information about company network resources and users, generally these directories are not utilized as spread across different companies. It is true that nowadays, with open APIs and cloud computing, there is a trend to deploy services through a single directory, but the directory service itself does not include resource sharing implications. In other words, it is just used as a shared service.

×：Web Access Management

Web Access Management (WAM) software is incorrect because it controls what users can access when using a Web browser to interact with Web-based corporate assets.

〇：Calculate the potential impact for fatal errors.

Software testing is a must, but when that testing reveals numerous defects, it must be handled with care. Systems do not have the same concept as human forgetfulness, but it is not realistic to ask someone who scored 30 on this week’s test to score 100 on next week’s test.

Before any corrections can be made, the data taken from the test must be analyzed with the test completed, including log reviews. Priority must be given to determining what to implement first and what is acceptable and unacceptable. Think about qualitative risk analysis; if it is unlikely and has little impact, it can be left alone and focus on high priority items. Thus, the correct answer is, “Calculate the likelihood of impact for fatal errors.” will be.

×：Fix them all.

If many defects are found, it is likely that a lot of time will be taken to deal with their correction.

×：Leave them alone because of the huge number.

In principle, it is unacceptable to leave defects unattended.

×：Calculate the potential impact for all errors.

Performing an analysis for all errors can also be very work intensive.

〇：Used in structured languages, it decreases development time but is somewhat resource intensive.

Third generation programming languages are easier to deal with than their predecessors. They reduce program development time and allow for simplified and quick debugging. However, these languages are more resource intensive when compared to second generation programming languages.

×：Intuitive manipulation of programming reduces effort, but the amount of manual coding for specific tasks tends to be greater than in previous generations.

The advantages and disadvantages of 4th generation programming are explained below. It is true that the use of heuristics in fourth generation programming languages has greatly reduced programming effort and errors in the code. However, there is something untrue about the fact that the amount of manual coding is more than required of 3rd generation languages.

×：The use of binaries for coding is very time consuming, but the potential for errors is reduced.

This is incorrect because it is a description of a machine language and implies the advantages and disadvantages of a first generation programming language.

×：It contributes to decreasing programming processing time, but knowledge of machine structures is essential.

Incorrect because it describes second generation programming languages. These languages require extensive knowledge of machine architecture and the programs written in them are only for specific hardware.

〇：Reconfiguration Phase

When a firm returns to its original or new site, the firm is ready to enter the reconfiguration phase. The firm has not entered the emergency state until it is operating at the original primary site or until it returns to the new site that was built to replace the primary site. If a firm needs to return from the replacement site to the original site, a number of logistical issues must be considered. Some of these issues include ensuring employee safety, proper communication and connection methods are working, and properly testing the new environment.

The definition of a rebuilding phase needs to be imagined and answered in the question text. It will test your language skills to see how it reads semantically rather than lexically correct.

×：Recovery Phase

Incorrect because it involves preparing an off-site facility (if needed), rebuilding networks and systems, and organizing staff to move to the new facility. To get the company up and running as quickly as possible, the recovery process needs to be as structured as possible. Templates should be developed during the planning phase. It can be used by each team during the recovery phase to take the necessary steps and document the results. The template keeps the team on task and quickly communicates to the team leader about progress, obstacles, and potential recovery time.

×：Project Initiation Phase

This is incorrect because it is how the actual business continuity plan is initiated. It does not occur during the execution of the plan. The Project Initiation Phase includes obtaining administrative support, developing the scope of the plan, and securing funding and resources.

×：Damage Assessment Phase

Incorrect because it occurs at the start of the actual implementation of the business continuity procedures. The damage assessment helps determine if the business continuity plan should be implemented based on the activation criteria predefined by the BCP coordinator and team. After the damage assessment, the team will move into recovery mode if one or more of the situations listed in the criteria occur.

〇：Creating Data Collection Techniques

Of the steps listed, the first step in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to create a data collection technique. The BCP committee will use questionnaires, surveys, and interviews to collect key person information on how different tasks are accomplished within the organization, along with any relevant dependencies of processes, transactions, or services. Process flow diagrams should be created from this data and used throughout the BIA and planning and development phases.

×：Risk calculations for each different business function

This is incorrect because the risk for each business function is calculated after the business function has been identified. And before that happens, the BCP team needs to collect data from key personnel. To calculate the risk for each business function, qualitative and quantitative impact information must be collected, properly analyzed, and interpreted. Once the data analysis is complete, it should be reviewed with the most knowledgeable people in the company to ensure that the results are relevant and to explain the actual risks and impacts facing the organization. This will flush out any additional data points that were not captured initially and allow for a full understanding of all possible business impacts.

×：Identifying Critical Business Functions

Image B is incorrect because the identification of critical business functions is done after the BCP committee has learned about the business functions that exist by interviewing and surveying key individuals. Once the data collection phase is complete, the BCP committee conducts an analysis to determine which processes, devices, or business activities are critical. If a system stands on its own, does not affect other systems, and is less critical, it can be classified as a Tier 2 or Tier 3 recovery step. In other words, these resources are not processed in the recovery phase until the most critical (Tier 1) resources are up and running.

×：Vulnerability and Threat Identification to Business Functions

This is not the first step and is incorrect because it identifies vulnerabilities and threats to business functions toward the end of the business impact analysis. It is the last of the steps listed in the answer. Threats can be man-made, natural, or technical. It is important to identify all possible threats and estimate their likelihood of occurring. When developing these plans, some issues may not be immediately apparent. These issues are best addressed by groups conducting scenario-based exercises. This ensures that when the threat becomes reality, the plan will have an impact on all business tasks, departments, and critical operations. The more issues that are planned for, the better prepared you will be should these events occur.

Copyright applies to books, art, music, software, etc. It is granted automatically and is valid for 70 years after the creator’s death and 95 years after creation. Therefore, the correct answer is “70 years”.

〇：Unit Testing

Unit testing involves testing individual components in a controlled environment to verify data structures, logic, and boundary conditions. After the programmer develops a component, it is tested with several different input values and in a variety of situations. Unit testing can begin early in the development process and usually continues throughout the development phase. One of the benefits of unit testing is that it identifies problems early in the development cycle. It is easier and less expensive to make changes to individual units.

×：Acceptance Testing

This is incorrect because acceptance testing is done to verify that the code meets the customer’s requirements. This test is applied to some or all of the application, but usually not individual components.

×：Regression Testing

Regression testing is incorrect because it implies retesting a system after changes have been made to ensure its functionality, performance, and protection. Essentially, regression testing is done to identify bugs where functionality no longer works as intended as a result of a program change. It is not uncommon for developers to fix one problem, accidentally create a new problem, or fix a new problem and solve an old one. Regression testing involves checking for previously fixed bugs to ensure that they have not reappeared and re-running previous tests.

×：Integration Testing

Integration testing is incorrect because it verifies that components work together as outlined in the design specification. After unit testing, individual components or units are tested in combination to verify that they meet functional, performance, and reliability requirements.

〇：It encompasses network and code analysis and is sometimes referred to as electronic data discovery.

Forensics is the analysis of electronic data that may have been affected by technology, authentication, and criminal activity requiring special techniques to ensure the preservation of information. It comes together of computer science, information technology and engineering in the legal system. When discussing digital forensics with others, it may be described as computer forensics, network forensics, electronic data discovery, cyber forensics, etc.

×：The study of computer technology.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it involves information technology rather than research. It encompasses the study of information technology, but also includes collecting and protecting evidence and working within specific legal systems.

×：A set of hardware-specific processes that must be followed in order for evidence to be admissible in court.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it does not refer to hardware or software. It is a set of specific processes related to computer usage, examination of residual data, technical analysis and description of technical characteristics of the data, and reconstruction of the authentication of data by computer usage that must be followed for the evidence to be admissible in court.

×：Before an incident occurs, digital forensics roles and responsibilities should be assigned to network administrators.

This is wrong because digital forensics must be done by people with the proper training and skill set who could not possibly be administrators or network administrators. Digital forensics can be fragile and must have been worked on properly. If someone reboots an attacked system or inspects various files, it could corrupt and change executable evidence, key file timestamps, and erase any footprints the criminal may have left behind.

Cross-site tracing is an attack to obtain authentication information by embedding TRACE method HTTP communication in a web page. Suppose the TRACE method is embedded in the login screen by XSS. After the password to log in is sent, it is returned by TRACE and comes back. The password that has just been sent is returned to the browser, leading to a compromise.

〇：Run an algorithm that identifies unused committed memory and informs the operating system that memory is available.

This answer describes the function of the garbage collector, not the memory manager. The garbage collector is a countermeasure against memory leaks. It is software that runs an algorithm to identify unused committed memory and tells the operating system to mark that memory as “available. Different types of garbage collectors work with different operating systems, programming languages, and algorithms.

In some cases, a four-choice question can be answered without knowing the exact answer; since there is only one correct answer in a four-choice question, the answers can be grouped together to reduce it to “since they are saying the same thing, it is not right that only one of them is correct, therefore they are both wrong.

There are two answers to the effect of controlling the process to handle memory appropriately, but if the memory manager does not have that functionality, both would be correct, and therefore can be eliminated from the choices in the first place.

×：If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, use complex controls to guarantee integrity and confidentiality.

If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, the memory manager uses complex controls to ensure integrity and confidentiality. This is important to protect memory and the data in it, since two or more processes can share access to the same segment with potentially different access rights. The memory manager also allows many users with different levels of access rights to interact with the same application running on a single memory segment.

×：Restrict processes to interact only with the memory segments allocated to them.

The memory manager is responsible for limiting the interaction of processes to only those memory segments allocated to them. This responsibility falls under the protection category and helps prevent processes from accessing segments to which they are not allowed. Another protection responsibility of the memory manager is to provide access control to memory segments.

×：Swap contents from RAM to hard drive as needed.

This is incorrect because swapping contents from RAM to hard drive as needed is the role of memory managers in the relocation category. When RAM and secondary storage are combined, they become virtual memory. The system uses the hard drive space to extend the RAM memory space. Another relocation responsibility is to provide pointers for applications when instructions and memory segments are moved to another location in main memory.

Defense-in-Depth is the concept that protection should not be monolithic, but should be multi-layered in all aspects. The term “defense-in-depth” comes close to the alternative, as multiple layers of protection are required to protect against a single vulnerability.

Unfortunately, security components usually affect system performance but go unnoticed by the user. If system performance is significantly slower, security controls may be enforced. The reason controls must be transparent is so that users and intruders do not know enough to disable or bypass them.

While it is important to understand the term “transparent” in the realm of security, there is another way to answer the question in terms of solving it. If there is only one answer to a four-answer question, then answers that mean the same thing cannot be correct. Therefore, by grouping, the only answer that is correct is the one that does not belong to a group.

And the key point in this question is whether the user knows. The other choices indicate that the situation is communicated on the server side as an outsider, whether a legitimate user or an attacker, whereas only one is acknowledged on the server administrator’s side.

〇：Reviewing and evaluating against security documentation.

Provisioning refers to the management of account information. Reviewing documents is not part of provisioning. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Review and evaluate security documentation.” The answer will be

×：When an employee leaves the company, the account should be deactivated as soon as possible.

This is proper provisioning for users and account usage that belong to the organization.

×：Periodic review and adherence to the principle of least privilege.

This is appropriate provisioning for account access privileges.

×：Appropriate deletion of accounts that are no longer needed.

This is appropriate provisioning for the management of minimum account information.

〇：Lock out the account for a certain period of time after reaching the clipping level.

Brute force attack is an attack that continuously tries different inputs to achieve a predefined goal that can then be used to qualify for unauthorized access. A brute force attack to discover the password means that the intruder is trying all possible sequences of characters to reveal the correct password. This proves to be a good countermeasure if the account will be disabled (or locked out) after this type of attack attempt is made.

×：Increase the clipping level.

Clipping levels are wrong because they need to be implemented to establish a baseline of user activity and acceptable error. Entities attempting to log into an account after the clipping level is met should be locked out. A high clipping level gives the attacker more attempts during a warning or lockout. Lowering the clipping level is a good countermeasure.

×：After the threshold for failed login attempts is met, the administrator should physically lock out the account.

This is incorrect because it is impractical to have an administrator physically lock out an account. This type of activity can easily be taken care of through automated software mechanisms. Accounts should be automatically locked out for a certain amount of time after a threshold of failed login attempts is met.

×：Encrypt password files and choose a weaker algorithm.

Encrypting passwords and/or password files and using a weaker algorithm is incorrect as it increases the likelihood of a successful brute force attack.

〇：Salvage Teams

The BCP coordinator should understand the needs of the company and the types of teams that need to be developed and trained. Employees should be assigned to specific teams based on their knowledge and skill sets. Named leaders, each team must have members and the ability to direct their activities. These team leaders will be responsible not only for ensuring that team goals are met, but also for interacting with each other to ensure that each team is operating properly. The salvage team is responsible for initiating recovery of the original site. They are also responsible for backing up data from the alternate site and restoring it within the new facility, carefully terminating any unforeseen operations, and ensuring equipment and personnel are transported to the new facility.

×：Damage Assessment Team

The Damage Assessment Team is incorrect because it is responsible for determining the extent and severity of damage.

×：BCP Team

Wrong because the BCP team is responsible for creating and maintaining a business continuity plan.

×：Recovery Team

Wrong because the Recovery Team is responsible for getting an alternate site to work and to keep the environment functioning.

〇：Continuity of Operations Plan

A continuity of operations plan (COOP) establishes senior management and post-disaster headquarters. It also outlines roles and authorities and individual role tasks.Creating a COOP begins with an assessment of how the organization operates to identify mission-critical staff, resources, procedures, and equipment. Suppliers, partners, and contractors identify other companies with whom they routinely interact and create a list of these companies. Therefore, the correct answer is the Continuity of Operations Plan.

×：Cyber Incident Response Plan

Cyber Incident Recovery is a plan for recovery from a cyber attack.

×：Crew Emergency Plan

A Crew Emergency Plan is a plan for the smooth transition of a facility’s staff to a secure environment.

×：IT Contingency Plan

A contingency plan is a plan that outlines the measures to be taken in the event of an accident, disaster, or other emergency.

〇：Replay attacks

Replay attacks occur when an intruder stores the acquired information and uses it to gain unauthorized access later. In this case, Emily uses a technique called electronic monitoring (sniffing) to retrieve passwords sent over the wire to an authentication server. She can later use the password to access network resources. Even if the password is encrypted, resending valid credentials can be enough to gain access.

×：Brute force attacks

Brute force attacks are incorrect because the cycle is done through many possible combinations of letters, numbers, and symbols, using tools to discover the password.

×：Dictionary attacks

Dictionary attacks are incorrect because they involve an automatic comparison of a user’s password to a file of thousands of words.

×：Social Engineering attack

A social engineering attack is incorrect because in a social engineering attack, the attacker mistakenly convinces an individual that she has the necessary permissions to access certain resources.

〇：CA signs certificates.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.

×：RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.

Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.

×：RA signs certificates.

The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.

×：The user signs the certificate.

Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.

〇：Information used to reconstruct data

RAID can improve system performance by providing fault tolerance to the hard drive and the data it holds. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting the data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also distributed across each disk. This is called parity, and if one disk fails, the other disks can work together to recover the data.

×：Information used to create new data

This is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data, but rather as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to erase data

Parity information is not used to erase data. This is incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to construct data

Parity information is not used to create data. Incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.