〇：Capability Maturity Model Integration

Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a comprehensive set of integration guidelines for developing products and software. It addresses the various phases of the software development life cycle, including concept definition, requirements analysis, design, development, integration, installation, operation, maintenance, and what should happen at each stage. The model describes the procedures, principles, and practices underlying the maturation of the software development process. It was developed to help software vendors improve their development processes. It will improve software quality, shorten the development life cycle, create and meet milestones in a timely manner, and adopt a proactive approach rather than a reactive approach that is less effective.

×：Software Development Life Cycle

Incorrect because the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) describes how a system should be developed and maintained throughout its life cycle and does not involve process improvement.

×：ISO/IEC 27002

Incorrect because ISO/IEC 27002 is an international standard that outlines how the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) create and maintain an organizational information security management system (ISMS). ISO/IEC 27002 has a section dealing with the acquisition, development, and maintenance of information systems, but does not provide a process improvement model for software development.

×：Certification and Accreditation Process

This is incorrect because the certification and accreditation (C&A) process handles testing and evaluation of systems against predefined criteria. This has nothing to do with improving the software development process.

〇：SAML assertions are used to enable identity federation and distributed systems.

SAML provides a model that allows two parties to share authentication information about one entity. The two parties are considered a Service Provider (SP) and an Identity Provider (IdP). The Identity Provider asserts information about the principal, such as whether the subject is authenticated or has certain attributes. The service provider uses the information provided by the identity provider to make access decisions about the services it provides, including whether to trust the identity provider’s assertions. By trusting the identity provider’s information, the service provider can provide services without requiring the principal to authenticate again. This framework enables federated identification and distributed authentication across domains.

A SAML assertion is information about a principal contained in a SAML response that is returned to the service provider after authentication has been processed by the identity provider.

×：Two SAML assertions (authentication and authorization) are used to indicate that an authority by SAML has validated a particular subject.

The Identity Provider will not return two SAML assertions; one assertion will be returned per request.

×：The SAML binding specification describes how to embed SAML messages within the TCP and UDP protocols.

It is not classified in the sense of within the TCP and UDP protocols.

×：The SAML profile has a definition for issuing a refresh token.

Refresh tokens are a concept in the OAuth/OIDC family.

〇：Teardrop

Teardrop is an attack to bring a system to a halt by forging the offset of IP packets when they are returned before splitting.

×：Fraggle attack

Fraggle attack is an attack that uses the CHARGEN function to generate an appropriate string.

×：CHARGEN attack

There is no attack with such a name.

×：War Driving

Wardriving is the act of driving around a city looking for vulnerable wireless LAN access points.

Level 2 of the software functional maturity model is reproducible. It is a maturity level where some processes are reproducible and produce constant results. The process discipline is not rigorous, but it helps to maintain existing processes. Therefore, the correct answer is Level 2.

At Level 1, the process is usually undocumented and dynamic. It tends to be driven by users and events in an ad hoc, uncontrolled, reactive manner. As a result, the process is chaotic and unstable.

At Level 2, at maturity, some processes are repeatable and will produce consistent results. Process discipline will not be rigid, but where it exists it will help ensure that existing processes are maintained.

At Level 3, a documented set of standard processes has been established and has improved somewhat over time.

At Level 4, the process is being evaluated to ensure that it is achieving its goals. Process users experience the process under multiple and varied conditions to demonstrate competence.

Level 5 focuses on continuous improvement of process performance through incremental and innovative technical changes/improvements.

〇：Conduct a risk analysis.

The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.

×：Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.  

The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.

×：Design program.  

Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.

×：Implement countermeasures.  

Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.

〇：IGRP

The Internal Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) is a distance vector routing protocol developed by and proprietary to Cisco Systems, Inc. Whereas the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) uses one criterion to find the optimal path between source and destination, IGRP uses five criteria to make an “optimal route” determination. The network administrator can set weights on these different metrics so that the protocol works optimally in its particular environment.

×：RIP  

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is incorrect because it is not proprietary; RIP allows routers to exchange routing table data and calculate the shortest distance between source and destination. It is considered a legacy protocol due to poor performance and lack of features. It should be used in smaller networks.

×：BGP

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is incorrect because it is an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP); BGP allows routers in different ASes to share routing information to ensure effective and efficient routing between different networks. BGP is used by Internet Service Providers.

×：OSPF  

OSPF is incorrect because it is not proprietary; it uses a link-state algorithm to transmit information in the OSPF routing table. Smaller and more frequent routing table updates.

Disasters are classified by cause into natural, human, and environmental categories. Natural disasters are natural, human errors are human, and facilities and equipment are environmental.

〇：Representatives from each department meet and undergo validation.

Structured walk-through testing allows functional personnel to review the plan as it is fulfilled to ensure its accuracy and validity.

×：Ensures that some systems will run at alternate sites.

This is incorrect because it describes parallel testing.

×：Send a copy of the disaster recovery plan to all departments to verify its completeness.

This is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

×：Take down the normal operation system.

This is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

The Clipper chip is a chipset developed by the National Security Agency (NSA) and implemented as an encryption device that protects “voice and data messages” as an embedded backdoor. It used SkipJack, a block cipher.

〇：Dictionary attack

There is a limit to the complexity that humans can remember. Consciously, we treat words and character strings we already know as passwords. To address such vulnerabilities, the act of cracking passwords by guessing passwords based on existing words or character strings is called a dictionary attack.

×：Typical Sentence attack

There is no such attack named as such yet.

×：Brute force attack

Brute force is an unauthorized login in which the user tries to guess a password at random.

×：Birthday attack

A birthday attack is an efficient method of unauthorized login by taking advantage of encryption collisions heightened by at least one overlapping probability theory.

〇：Completing the Business Impact Analysis

Of the steps listed in this question, completing the Business Impact Analysis is the highest priority. The BIA is essential in determining the most critical business functions and identifying the threats associated with them. Qualitative and quantitative data must be collected, analyzed, interpreted, and presented to management.

×：Test and Drill Plan

Test and drill is wrong because it is part of the last step in disaster recovery and contingency planning. Because the environment is constantly changing, it is important to test your business continuity plan on a regular basis. Testing and disaster recovery drills and exercises should be performed at least once a year. The exercises should be done in sections or at specific times that require logistical planning, as most firms cannot afford these exercises to disrupt production or productivity.

×：Determining alternatives for off-site backup facilities

This is incorrect because it is part of the contingency strategy that is done in the middle of the disaster recovery and contingency planning process. In the event of a major disaster, an alternate off-site backup capability is required. Typically, contracts are established with third-party vendors to provide such services. The client pays a monthly fee to retain the right to use the facility when needed and then pays an activation fee when they need to use that facility.

×：Organize and prepare related documentation

This is incorrect because the relevant documentation is organized and created around the time the disaster recovery and contingency planning process is completed. Procedures should be documented. This is because time-consuming schedules are confusing when they are actually needed. Documentation should include information on how to install images, configure the operating system and server, and install utilities and proprietary software. Other documentation should include call trees and contact information for specific vendors, emergency agencies, off-site facilities, etc.

〇：Brewer-Nash Model

The Chinese Wall Model is a security model that focuses on the flow of information within an organization, such as insider trading. Insider trading occurs when inside information leaks to the outside world. In reality, information can spread to unexpected places as it is passed on orally to unrelated parties. In order to take such information flow into account, access privileges are determined in a simulation-like manner. Therefore, the correct answer is the “Chinese Wall Model (Brewer-Nash Model).

×：Lattice-based Access Control

Lattice-based access control is to assume that a single entity can have multiple access rights and to consider access control as all possible relationships under a certain condition.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

×：Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman Model

The Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman model is a model that aggregates the eight rules of the Graham-Denning model into six rules using an access control matrix.

〇：Promptly deactivate the use of employee-only accounts.

Provisioning is the process of adding accounts for use in the system. Conversely, de-provisioning is the removal of an account. An employee’s account should be deactivated at the time the employee leaves the organization. Giving a former employee access to the organization’s resources is an information leak. Therefore, the correct answer is “promptly deactivate the employee’s dedicated account.” will be

×：Retrieve the employee’s loaner computer.

This is not provisioning, but should be done at the time the employee leaves the company.

×：Signing an NDA.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA, Non-Disclosure Agreement) is an agreement that prohibits the disclosure to others of trade secrets, etc. of the other party learned in the course of business. It is not provisioning.

×：Securing the personal contact information of employees.

A normal company would not attempt to collect such private information upon separation from employment. It is not provisioning.

〇：Test with reference to OSSTMM.

OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) is an open source penetration testing standard. Open source is basically free and has many amazing features. Because it is free and anyone can use it, there is a view that trust is low. However, there is nothing like it if you properly understand the risks. That is why we are trying to create a testing standard for open source to ensure trust. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test with reference to OSSTMM.” will be “OSSTMM”.

×：Since open source is fully tested at the point of development, the testing process can be omitted.

Even if it is open source, you need to test it according to your own organization.

×：Secure contact information for the developer and conduct testing with both developers.

If you contact the open source developer, these responses will probably not go through.

Most open source developers are doing this in good faith and may be brazen about further pursuit from the organization.

×：Ask other organizations to share completed tests.

The process of getting test results that may be confidential from other organizations is unreasonable.

〇：CA signs certificates.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.

×：RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.

Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.

×：RA signs certificates.

The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.

×：The user signs the certificate.

Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.

〇：Provisioning accounts, modifying accounts, auditing account usage, and deactivating accounts.

All phases of the authenticated access lifecycle should be considered. Access should not be granted without proper instructions, nor should access be granted or denied without expected authorization. Suspension of access must also be auditable.

×：Provisioning or adding accounts, changing accounts, and suspending accounts.

Incorrect because it does not include auditing of account usage.

×：Adding an account, deleting an account, or deleting a user’s data.

Incorrect because deletion of user data may conflict with data retention requirements.

×：Verifying account passwords, checking account usage, and deleting accounts.

Incorrect because it is merely an authentication step and not related to account management.

Sabotage is an attack by an insider.

〇：Salt

A rainbow table is a pre-built list of ciphertexts that match plaintext and have hashes that match passwords. The table can contain millions of pairs. Salting is random data used as additional input to a one-way function that “hashes” a password or passphrase. The primary function of a salting is to protect against dictionary or compiled rainbow table attacks.

×：Login Attempt Restrictions

Effective against all unauthorized login methods, but not a direct or effective countermeasure against rainbow tables.

×：Key stretching

Replacing passwords with longer, random strings for encryption purposes.

×：Hashing

Password hashing is a fixed-length cipher (hash) statement for secure password storage.

Freeware is free software and can be used for free. Shareware is fully functional proprietary software that is initially free to use. Often a trial to test the software requires a fee to continue using it after 30 days. Thus, the correct answer is, “Freeware is free in perpetuity, while shareware is free for a set period of time.” will be.

Service Organization Control (SOC) is a rule established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) to assure the internal control of the party contracted to perform services. Sometimes, work is contracted out to other firms. In order to guarantee the quality of its own work, the company that is contracted to perform the work must also have appropriate controls in place. For this reason, we check the internal control of the outsourcing company to which the work is outsourced.

• SOC-1 (Internal Control over Financial Reporting (ICFR)) Audits the accounting of the trustee company.
  SOC-2 (Trust Services Criteria): Checks security and other controls other than accounting for the fiduciary company. Usually takes six months to complete.
  SOC-3 (Trust Services Criteria for General Use Report) Confirms security and other controls other than accounting for unspecified persons (users).

〇：Password authentication and secret questions

Passwords are a memory-based authentication method. The secret question is also a memory-based authentication method, and is not a combination of two-factor authentication methods. Therefore, the correct answer is “password authentication and secret question.

×：Password authentication and fingerprint authentication

It is memory authentication information x body authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

×：Password authentication and one-time password authentication using a token machine.

This is memory authentication information x possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

×：Password authentication and IC card authentication

This is memory authentication information × possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

Onion routing is characterized by multiple layers of encryption because encryption is applied each time it passes through a router. However, there is no security feature at the final router because all encryption is decrypted at the final point of the router and becomes plaintext.

〇：Creating Data Collection Techniques

Of the steps listed, the first step in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to create a data collection technique. The BCP committee will use questionnaires, surveys, and interviews to collect key person information on how different tasks are accomplished within the organization, along with any relevant dependencies of processes, transactions, or services. Process flow diagrams should be created from this data and used throughout the BIA and planning and development phases.

×：Risk calculations for each different business function

This is incorrect because the risk for each business function is calculated after the business function has been identified. And before that happens, the BCP team needs to collect data from key personnel. To calculate the risk for each business function, qualitative and quantitative impact information must be collected, properly analyzed, and interpreted. Once the data analysis is complete, it should be reviewed with the most knowledgeable people in the company to ensure that the results are relevant and to explain the actual risks and impacts facing the organization. This will flush out any additional data points that were not captured initially and allow for a full understanding of all possible business impacts.

×：Identifying Critical Business Functions

Image B is incorrect because the identification of critical business functions is done after the BCP committee has learned about the business functions that exist by interviewing and surveying key individuals. Once the data collection phase is complete, the BCP committee conducts an analysis to determine which processes, devices, or business activities are critical. If a system stands on its own, does not affect other systems, and is less critical, it can be classified as a Tier 2 or Tier 3 recovery step. In other words, these resources are not processed in the recovery phase until the most critical (Tier 1) resources are up and running.

×：Vulnerability and Threat Identification to Business Functions

This is not the first step and is incorrect because it identifies vulnerabilities and threats to business functions toward the end of the business impact analysis. It is the last of the steps listed in the answer. Threats can be man-made, natural, or technical. It is important to identify all possible threats and estimate their likelihood of occurring. When developing these plans, some issues may not be immediately apparent. These issues are best addressed by groups conducting scenario-based exercises. This ensures that when the threat becomes reality, the plan will have an impact on all business tasks, departments, and critical operations. The more issues that are planned for, the better prepared you will be should these events occur.

〇：Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED)

Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED) is a method by which crime can be reduced through proper design of the physical environment. It provides guidance on appropriate facility construction and environmental elements and crime prevention. It is used to guide the physical environment to behavioral effects that reduce crime.

×：Multi-layered defense model  

The multi-layered defense model is incorrect because it is a hierarchical architecture of physical, logical, and administrative security controls. The concept is that if one layer fails, the asset is protected by other layers. Layers should be moved from the perimeter toward the asset and implemented.

×：Hiding by Ambiguity

Concealment by ambiguity is a technique of concealment secured by concealment of information and is incorrect. Basically, it is better not to consider something to be a true secret if it is logically reachable, even if it is not public.

×：Access Control

Access control is incorrect because it is guidance by the placement of doors, fences, lighting, and landscaping as people enter. It is an abstract concept and would not fit into a concrete definition that combines sociology.

〇：Tell your business partner that your company is not ready

Planned business continuity procedures can provide an organization with many benefits. In addition to the other response options listed previously, organizations can provide a quick and appropriate response to an emergency, mitigate the impact on their business, and work with outside vendors during the recovery period. Efforts in these areas should communicate to business partners that they are prepared in the event of a disaster.

×：Resuming Critical Business Functions

This is incorrect because a business continuity plan allows an organization to resume critical business functions. As part of the BCP development, the BCP team conducts a business impact analysis that includes identifying the maximum allowable downtime for critical resources. This effort helps the team prioritize recovery efforts so that the most critical resources can be recovered first.

×：Protecting Lives and Ensuring Safety

Business continuity planning allows organizations to protect lives and ensure safety, which is wrong. People are a company’s most valuable asset. Therefore, human resources are an integral part of the recovery and continuity process and must be fully considered and integrated into the plan. Once this is done, a business continuity plan will help a company protect its employees.

×：Ensure business viability

This is a fallacy because a well-planned business continuity plan can help a company ensure the viability of its business. A business continuity plan provides methods and procedures for dealing with long-term outages and disasters. It involves moving critical systems to another environment while the original facility is being restored and conducting business operations in a different mode until normal operations return. In essence, business continuity planning addresses how business is conducted after an emergency.

〇：Statistically predictable

The two main types of symmetric algorithms are block ciphers and stream ciphers. Block ciphers perform a mathematical function on a block of bits at a time. Stream ciphers do not divide the message into blocks. Instead, a stream cipher treats the message as a stream of bits and performs the mathematical function on each bit individually. If it were statistically predictable, it would not be a practical encryption technique in the first place.

×：Statistically Fair Keystreams

Statistically fair keystreams are an element of good stream ciphers. Therefore, it is incorrect. Another way to say a statistically unbiased keystream is that it is a highly random keystream that is difficult to predict.

×：The repetitive pattern of bit strings treated in a keystream is long.

Another way to say the randomness of a keystream is that it is highly random, with long repetitions = rarely repeated = highly random.

×：The keystream is irrelevant to the key.

A keystream that is not related to a key is an element of a good stream cipher. Therefore, it is incorrect. This is important because the key provides the randomness of the encryption process.

VoIP uses UDP. It is real-time oriented, and it is probably better to lose one or two packets than to retransmit a few seconds later in a connectionless fashion.

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

〇：How to use the data

How data is used does not depend on how sensitive it is. In other words, data is sensitive no matter how it is used, even if it is not used at all.

×：Identifying who needs access to the data

Wrong. This is because data classification criteria must take into account very directly who needs access to the data and their clearance level in order to see sensitive data. If data is classified at too high a level, that user will not have access. If the level is classified too low, an unauthorized user may access the data.

×：Value of the data

This is incorrect because the intrinsic value of the data directly determines the degree of protection. This is determined by its classification. This is true regardless of whether the prioritization must be confidentiality, integrity, or availability.

×：The level of damage that could occur if the data were disclosed.

This is erroneous because the degree of damage that disclosure, modification, or destruction of the data would cause is directly related to the level of protection that must be provided.

〇：* (star) Integrity Property

The Biba model defines a model with completeness as having two axioms. The * (star) Integrity Property is that the subordinate’s document is to be seen and there is no Read Down. The * (star) Integrity Property is that there is no Write Up, that is, no rewriting of the supervisor’s document. If the Simple Integrity Axiom is not followed, the subordinate’s document will be seen and may absorb unclassified and incorrect information at a lower level. If the * (star) Integrity Property is not followed, a supervisor’s document will be rewritten, which will release incorrect information to the supervisor who sees it. Therefore, both are integrity conditions.

×：Simple Integrity Property

The Simple Integrity Property is a constraint on Read Down.

×：Strong Tranquillity Axiom

The Strong Tranquillity Axiom is the constraint not to change permissions while the system is running.

×：Weak Tranquillity Axiom

Weak Tranquillity Axiom means do not change privileges until the attribute is inconsistent.

Penetration testing is an attempt to penetrate a system connected to a network. Penetration allows for any kind of manipulation and can bring the service itself to a halt. Therefore, the focus of testing is on penetration. The sequence is: planning, preliminary investigation, search for vulnerabilities, evaluation, attack, and reporting. Therefore, the correct answer is “report generation.

〇：Zachman Framework

The Zachman Framework is an enterprise architecture that determines the what, how, where, who, when, and why for each mandate. Enterprise architecture is to create a management structure to achieve business goals. We create an organization to achieve business goals, and basically, the larger the business goals, the larger the organization. If the structure of the organization is not in place, the organization will not run efficiently, as there may be residual work that needs to be done, or there may be friction between jobs due to authority that is covered by others. Therefore, it is necessary to clarify the scope of each job authority in order to put the organization in order. The job authority here is different from the perspectives of human resources or sales. It is easier to think of them as hierarchically separated to achieve business goals. Clarify the scope in Executive, Business Management, Architecture, Engineers, Subcontractors, and Stakeholders, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Zachman Framework.

×：SABSA

SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework to ensure that security measures are working properly in achieving business goals. Unlike the Zachman Framework, the tasks to be organized are hierarchical elements. Business Requirements > Conceptual Architecture > Logical Service Architecture > Physical Infrastructure Architecture > Technology and Products, each with a 5W1H practice.

×：Five-W method

There is no such term. If there is, it is a term coined to make it easier to interpret.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

〇：Service Strategy

The basic approach of ITIL is to create a service strategy that focuses on the overall planning of the intended IT services. Once the initial planning is complete, it provides guidelines for the design of validated IT services and overall implementation policies. The service transition phase is then initiated, providing guidelines for the assessment, testing, and validation of the IT services. This enables the transition from the business environment to the technical service. Service Operations ensures that all determined services have achieved their objectives. Finally, Continuous Service Improvement points out areas for improvement throughout the service lifecycle. Service strategy is considered the core of ITIL. It consists of a set of guidelines that include best practices for planning, design, and alignment of IT and business approaches, market analysis, service assets, setting goals to provide quality service to customers, and the strategy and value of implementing the service strategy.

×：Service Operations

Service operations is a critical component of the lifecycle when services are actually delivered, and something like ITIL that provides guidance is not at the core of actual operations. Lifecycle operations define a set of guidelines that ensure that an agreed level of service is delivered to the customer. The different genres incorporated by service operations include event management, problem management, access management, incident management, application management, technology management, and operations management. Service Operations balances between conflicting goals such as technology and business requirements, stability and responsiveness, cost and quality of service, and competing proactive activities.

×：Service Design

Inadequate because it involves a set of best practices for the design of IT services, including processes, architecture, policies, and documentation to meet current and future business requirements. The goal of service design is to design services according to agreed business objectives. Design processes that can support lifecycle and risk identification and management. Involves improving IT service quality as a whole.

×：Service Migration

Service Migration is incorrect because it focuses on delivering the services proposed by the business strategy for operational use. It also includes guidelines to enable a smooth transition of the business model to technical services. If service requirements change after design, Service Migration ensures that those requirements are delivered in accordance with the changed design. Areas of focus for these guidelines include the responsibilities of personnel involved in the migration transition plan and support, change management, knowledge management, release and deployment management, service verification and testing, and evaluation.

〇：Data Encryption

The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a data encryption standard developed to improve upon the previous de facto standard, Data Encryption Standard (DES). As a symmetric algorithm, AES is used to encrypt data. Therefore, the correct answer is “data encryption.

There are other situations where AES is used in the other choices, but encrypting data is the most focused or better answer. Thus, there are cases where all of the choices are correct.

×：Data integrity

This is a characteristic of digital signatures.

×：Key recovery

It is a property of decryption and key escrow.

×：Symmetric key distribution

Using symmetric keys for AES distribution lowers the key delivery problem.

〇：Database Migration

The movement of accessible data from one repository to another may be required over its lifetime, but is generally not as important as the other phases provided in response to this question.

×：Data specification and classification

This is incorrect because the determination of what the data is and its classification is the first essential phase that can provide the appropriate level of protection.

×：Continuous monitoring and auditing of data access

Incorrect because without continuous monitoring and auditing of access to sensitive data, breaches cannot be identified and security cannot be guaranteed.

×：Data Archiving

Incorrect as even the most sensitive data is subject to retention requirements. This means that it must be archived for an appropriate period of time and with the same level of security as during actual use.

〇：Dynamic Testing

Dynamic testing is testing that is performed by actually running the developed program. Compared to static testing, it is a practical test in which the program is actually run and checked. Therefore, the correct answer is “dynamic testing.

×：Static Testing

Static testing is testing that is performed without running the developed program.

×：White box testing

White box testing is a test to confirm the operation of a program after understanding the contents of the program.

×：Black box testing

Black box testing is testing to confirm that the program does not behave unexpectedly without understanding the contents of the program.

〇：To create an overview of business functions and systems

Outlining business functions and systems is not a reason to create and execute a disaster recovery plan. While these tasks are likely to be accomplished as a result of the disaster recovery plan, they are not a valid reason to implement the plan compared to other answers to the question. Usually occurring during the planning process, simply outlining business functions and systems is not enough to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan.

×：To create post-disaster recovery procedures

It is not correct to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan because providing post-disaster recovery procedures is a good reason to do so. In fact, this is exactly what a disaster recovery plan provides. The goal of disaster recovery is to take the necessary steps to minimize the impact of a disaster and ensure that resources, personnel, and business processes can resume operations in a timely manner. The goal of a disaster recovery plan is to handle the disaster and its consequences in the immediate aftermath.

×：To back up data and create backup operating procedures

Inappropriate, because not only backing up data but also extending backup operations is a good way to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan. When considering a disaster recovery plan, some companies focus primarily on backing up data and providing redundant hardware. While these items are very important, they are only a small part of a company’s overall operations. Hardware and computers need people to configure and operate them, and data is usually not useful unless it can be accessed by other systems or outside entities. All of these may require backups as well as data.

×：To establish emergency response procedures

This is incorrect because there are good reasons to establish and implement a disaster recovery plan, and providing emergency response procedures is a valid reason. Disaster recovery plans are implemented when everything is in emergency mode and everyone is scrambling to get all critical systems back online. Carefully written procedures will make this entire process much more effective.

Translated with www.DeepL.com/Translator (free version)

Diameter is an authentication protocol that implements the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, Accounting) service, the successor to RADIUS. This can cause performance degradation and data loss. This can lead to performance degradation and data loss.

〇：Calculate the potential impact for fatal errors.

Software testing is a must, but when that testing reveals numerous defects, it must be handled with care. Systems do not have the same concept as human forgetfulness, but it is not realistic to ask someone who scored 30 on this week’s test to score 100 on next week’s test.

Before any corrections can be made, the data taken from the test must be analyzed with the test completed, including log reviews. Priority must be given to determining what to implement first and what is acceptable and unacceptable. Think about qualitative risk analysis; if it is unlikely and has little impact, it can be left alone and focus on high priority items. Thus, the correct answer is, “Calculate the likelihood of impact for fatal errors.” will be.

×：Fix them all.

If many defects are found, it is likely that a lot of time will be taken to deal with their correction.

×：Leave them alone because of the huge number.

In principle, it is unacceptable to leave defects unattended.

×：Calculate the potential impact for all errors.

Performing an analysis for all errors can also be very work intensive.

〇：Increased Processing Power

The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.

×：Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming

This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.

×：Dual-mode computation

The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.

×：Direct Memory Access I/O

Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.

〇：LAND attack

A LAND attack is an attack that penetrates firewalls that block bad requests; it is similar to the Fraggle attack, but it sends a request to the firewall with the sender as the target of the attack. This is a blind spot because the firewall, which is supposed to protect the inside of the system, is used for the attack.

×：Teardrop

Teardrop is an attack that halts the system by forging the offset of IP packets before they are split.

×：Christmas Tree Attack

A Christmas tree attack is an attack in which a packet is sent with a number of flags (URG, ACK, PSH, RST, SYN, FIN) and the response is observed.

×：CHARGEN attack

CHARGEN (port 19) is a protocol that returns an appropriate string.

〇：Encryption and decryption are more efficient.

Elliptic curves are rich mathematical structures that have shown usefulness in many different types of applications. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) differs from other asymmetric algorithms because of its efficiency; ECC is efficient because it is computationally less expensive than other asymmetric algorithms. In most cases, the longer the key, the more bloated the computation to secure it, but ECC can provide the same level of protection with a shorter key size than RSA requires.

×：Provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption.

ECC is wrong because it is not the only asymmetric algorithm that provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption provided by other asymmetric algorithms such as RSA.

×：Calculated in finite discrete logarithms.

Wrong because Diffie-Hellman and El-Gamal compute with finite discrete logarithms.

×：Uses a large percentage of resources to perform the encryption.

Incorrect because ECC when compared to other asymmetric algorithms uses much less resources. Some devices, such as wireless devices and cell phones, have limited processing power, storage, power, and bandwidth. Resource utilization efficiency is very important for the encryption methods used in this type.

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.

Matrix is not a network topology. Ring, mesh, and star are network topologies.

Disaster Recovery Planning includes the Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery life cycles.

• Mitigation: Reduces the impact and likelihood of a disaster.
• Prepare: Create programs, procedures, and tools for response.
• Response: follow procedures and how to respond to a disaster.
• Recovery: re-establish basic functionality and return to a full production environment.

〇：To allow the database to execute transactions as a single unit without interruption.

Online transaction processing (OLTP) is used when databases are clustered to provide high fault tolerance and performance. It provides a mechanism to monitor and address problems as they occur. For example, if a process stops functioning, the monitoring function within OLTP will detect and attempt to restart the process. If the process cannot be restarted, the transaction that occurred is rolled back to ensure that no data has been corrupted or that only a portion of the transaction occurred; OLTP records when the transaction occurred (in real time). Usually multiple databases in a distributed environment are updated.

This classification by the extent to which transaction processing is appropriate is very complex. Therefore, database software must implement ACID characteristics. Among them is atomicity, which means that the transaction is either executed entirely or not executed at all. It is the property that a transaction must either be executed completely or not at all.

When a question like this is answered incorrectly, judging that you could not solve it because you did not know OLTP will hinder your future study methods. Although the question text is worded in a complicated way, it is more important to understand what atomicity is in ACID than to memorize the definition of OLTP to solve the actual question.

×：To be able to establish database consistency rules.

It enforces the consistency rules as stated in the database security policy, but does not imply transaction atomicity.

×：To prevent rollbacks from occurring.

Transaction atomicity does not refer to suppressing rollbacks.

×：To prevent concurrent processes from interacting with each other.

This falls under independence, isolation, and segregation. Independence, isolation, and quarantine (isolation) means that the processes are hidden from other operations during processing. It is the property that even if multiple transactions are executed simultaneously, they must not produce the same processing results as if they were executed alone.

〇：Because the information may be in the hands of someone outside the company after it has been placed in the dumpster.

Dumpster diving, or scavenging, is finding important information in the trash. Putting it in the trash can make you feel relieved that it has been removed. However, the trash can is nothing more than a shared space between internal and external parties, such as cleaning staff. Make sure to shred any text that contains confidential information to prevent leakage.

×：When restoring documents from the trash, they will be mixed with other documents.

They will not be destroyed for the purpose of restoring them.

×：Confidential documents do not need to be destroyed.

Even confidential documents must be destroyed if they are no longer needed.

×：There is no need to shred it.

No, of course they must be shredded.

It is a good thing for a module to have low coupling and high condensibility. The higher the degree of condensation, the easier it is to update and modify, and it does not affect other modules with which it interacts. This also means that modules are easier to reuse and maintain. Coupling degree is a measure of the amount of interaction a single module requires to perform its task. If a module’s coupling is low, it means that the module does not need to communicate with many other modules to perform its job. It is easier to understand and reuse than a module that depends on many other modules to perform its tasks. It will also be easier to modify modules without affecting the many modules around them. Therefore, the correct answer is “low-coupling, high-cohesion”.

Type 1 authentication treats what you know as credentials. This is accomplished through passwords, passphrases, PINs, etc., and is also referred to as the knowledge factor.

〇：All security activities shall be conducted within the security department.

When all security activities are performed within the security department, security functions within a silo and is not integrated throughout the organization. In companies that have a security governance program in place, security responsibilities are pervasive throughout the organization, from senior management down the chain of command. A common scenario is executive management with the executive director of operations responsible for risk management activities for a particular business unit. Additionally, employees are responsible for malicious or accidental security breaches.

×：Officers will be updated quarterly on the company’s security status.

Incorrect. Security governance is providing strategic guidance, ensuring that goals are being met, risks are properly managed, and resources are used responsibly. Organizations with a security governance program have a board of directors that understands the importance of security and is aware of the organization’s security performance and breaches.

×：Deploy security products, services, and consultants in an informed manner.

Security governance is incorrect because it is a cohesive system of integrated security components that includes products, people, training, and processes. Therefore, organizations that have a security governance program in place will assist consultants with security products, management services, and consultants in an informed manner. They are also constantly reviewed to ensure they are cost effective.

×：The organization establishes metrics and goals for improving security.

inaccurate because security governance requires performance measurement and oversight mechanisms. Organizations that have a security governance program in place are continually reviewing their processes, including security, with the goal of continuous improvement. On the other hand, an organization lacking a security governance program may proceed without analyzing its performance, thus repeating the same mistakes.

In white box software testing, the tester has full knowledge of the program’s source code, data structures, variables, etc.

〇：A review by another coder after the coder has completed coding.

A static code review is a review performed by another engineer to mitigate points that were not apparent to the author. Thus, the correct answer is “Reviewed by another coder after the coder’s coding is complete.” will be.

×：To allow coders to see each other’s coding and work in parallel.

Extreme programming (XP, extreme programming) is a flexible method of developing a program while discussing it in pairs. It is not code review.

×：Ensuring that proper transaction processing is applied before check-in.

This is a statement about database commitment.

×：Ensuring that the appropriate questions and answers exist.

The presence of appropriate question and answer may be part of what is performed during the code review, but it is not a description of the code review itself.

〇：The attacker knows nothing about the organization other than the information that is publicly available.

In black box testing (zero-knowledge), the attacker has no knowledge about the organization other than the publicly available information. The focus is on what the external attacker does. Therefore, the correct answer is “knows nothing about the organization other than the information that is publicly available.” The result will be

×：I know everything.

White box testing is testing to verify the operation of a program, which is done after knowing what is in the program.

×：I keep the product manual and retain privileged access.

A gray box test is a test that is performed by a pen tester to some extent, with the attacker having only limited knowledge of the program.

This is a white box test or gray box test.

×：The vendor retains an accessible level of information.

In a black box test, the attacker has no information in principle.

〇：Ensure the security of customer, company, and employee data.

The Chief Privacy Officer (CPO) is responsible for ensuring the security of customer, company, and employee data; the CPO is directly involved in setting policies regarding how data is collected, protected, and distributed to third parties. The CPO is usually an attorney and reports reports and findings to the Chief Security Officer (CSO). Thus, the correct answer is “Ensure that customer, company, and employee data is protected.” The answer is “Yes.

Perhaps you did not know what a CPO is. The point of this question is to see if you can conceive of the protection of personal information from the word privacy. When you see some words you don’t know in the actual exam, don’t throw them away because you don’t know what they mean. There are always hints.

×：Ensure the protection of partner data.

CPOs are responsible for ensuring the security of customer, company, and employee data.

There can be protection of partner data, but not in the sense of a primary role.

×：Ensuring the accuracy and protection of company financial information.

This is not considered to be a protection of privacy.

×：Ensuring that security policies are defined and implemented.

This is a common objective for all personnel/responsible parties and is not focused in the context of your role as Chief Privacy Officer (CPO).

Computer worms are standalone malware computer programs that replicate themselves and spread to other computers. They typically operate at OSI reference layers 5-7.

〇：How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

×：Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

×：Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

×：A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

〇：Known Plaintext Attacks

A known-plaintext attack is a situation in which a decryptor can obtain plaintext indiscriminately. A ciphertext-alone attack is a situation where a decryptor can acquire ciphertext indiscriminately. A known-plaintext attack acquires the plaintext but does not know what ciphertext it is paired with, meaning that decryption is attempted with only two random ciphertexts. In this situation, it is difficult to decrypt. Therefore, the correct answer is “known-plaintext attack.

×：Selective Plaintext Attack

A choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose the plaintext to acquire and obtain the ciphertext.

×：Adaptive Choice Plaintext Attack

An adaptive choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose which plaintext to acquire and acquire the ciphertext, and can repeat the acquisition again after seeing the result.

×：None of the above

It is rare for the answer to be “none of the above” when the choice is “most of the above.

〇：Level of insurance required to cover assets.

This question is about choosing what is not used. There are several ways to calculate asset value (AV, Asset Value): the market approach, which refers to similar assets in the market, the income approach, which measures it by the profit it will earn in the future, and the cost approach, which measures it by the cost spent on the asset. The level of insurance needed to cover an asset is a decision made after identifying the asset value and conducting an appropriate risk analysis, allowing the organization to more easily determine the level of insurance coverage to purchase for that asset. Therefore, the correct answer is “level of insurance required to cover the asset”.

×：Value of the asset in the external market.

The technique of referring to similar assets in the market is known as the market approach.

×：Initial costs and outlay for purchasing, licensing, and supporting the asset.

The method of measuring by the cost spent on an asset is known as the cost approach.

×：The value of the asset to the organization’s production operations.

The method of measuring by the profit that will be earned in the future is known as the revenue approach.

The data link layer or Layer 2 of the OSI model adds a header and trailer to the packet to prepare the packet in binary format in local area network or wide area network technology for proper line transmission. Layer 2 is divided into two functional sublayers. The upper sublayer is logical link control (LLC), which is defined in the IEEE 802.2 specification. It communicates with the network layer above the data link layer. Below the LLC is the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer, which specifies interfaces with the protocol requirements of the physical layer.

The Health Insurance Interoperability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) has three rules: the Privacy Rule, the Security Rule, and the Breach Notification Rule. The rules mandate administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.

〇：Conduct business impact analysis

While no specific scientific equation must be followed to create a continuity plan, certain best practices have been proven over time. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) organization is responsible for developing and documenting many of these best practices so that they are readily available to all. NIST outlines seven steps in Special Publication 800-34 Rev 1, Continuity Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems. Conduct a business impact analysis. Identify preventive controls. Develop a contingency strategy. Develop an information systems contingency plan. Ensure testing, training, and exercises of the plan. Ensure the plan is maintained. Conduct a business impact analysis by identifying critical functions and systems and prioritize them as needed. It also includes identifying vulnerabilities and threats and calculating risks.

×：Identify preventive controls

Wrong because critical functions and systems are prioritized and preventive controls need to be identified after their vulnerabilities, threats, and identified risks (all of which are part of a business impact analysis). Conducting a business impact analysis involves step 2, which is to create a continuity plan, and step 3, which is to identify preventive controls.

×：Develop a Continuity Plan Policy Statement

This is incorrect because you need to create a policy that provides the guidance needed to develop a business continuity plan and assigns authority to the roles needed to perform these tasks. This is the first step in creating a business continuity plan and is done before identifying and prioritizing critical systems and functions that are part of the business impact analysis.

×：Create contingency strategies

Creating a contingency strategy is incorrect because it requires formulating a method to ensure that systems and critical functions are brought online quickly. Before this can be done, a business impact analysis must be performed to determine critical systems and functions and prioritize them during recovery.

〇：The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.

A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of digitally signing means encrypting the hash value of the message with his/her private key. The sender would encrypt that hash value using her private key. When the recipient receives the message, she performs a hash function on the message and generates the hash value herself. She then decrypts the hash value (digital signature) sent with the sender’s public key. The receiver compares the two values and, if they are the same, can verify that the message was not altered during transmission.

×：The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.

The sender is wrong because if the message encrypts the digest with his/her public key, the recipient cannot decrypt it. The recipient needs access to the sender’s private key, which must not occur. The private key must always be kept secret.

×：The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.

The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.

×：The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.

The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.

〇：Ensure that some systems are executed at the alternate site.

Parallel testing compares how some systems run at the alternate site and how the results are processed at the primary site. This is to assure that systems run at the alternate site and does not affect service productivity.

×：All departments will be sent a copy of the disaster recovery plan for completeness.

This alternative is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

×：Representatives from each department meet to validate the plan.

This option is incorrect because it describes a structured walk-through test.

×：The normal operation system is taken down.

This option is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

〇：Business Continuity Processes Integrate Change Management Processes

Unfortunately, business continuity plans can quickly become outdated. An outdated BCP can give a company a false sense of security, which can be fatal if a disaster actually occurs. One of the simplest, most cost-effective, and process-efficient ways to keep your plan current is to incorporate it into your organization’s change management process. Are new applications, equipment, and services documented? Are updates and patches documented? The change management process should be updated to incorporate fields and triggers that alert the BCP team when significant changes occur and provide a means to update recovery documentation. Ensure that the BCP is kept up-to-date, and other measures include maintaining personnel evaluations of the plan and conducting regular training on using the plan, such as making business continuity part of all business decisions.

×：Update hardware, software, and application changes

Wrong because hardware, software, and application changes occur frequently; unless the BCP is part of a change management process, these changes are not included in the BCP. The BCP should be updated when changes to the environment occur. If it is not updated after a change, it is out of date.

×：Infrastructure and Environment Change Updates

Incorrect because infrastructure and environment changes occur frequently. Unless the BCP is part of a change management process, as with software, hardware, and application changes, infrastructure and environment changes are unlikely to result in a transition to the BCP.

×：Personnel changes

Incorrect, as the plan may become obsolete. It is not uncommon for BCPs to be abandoned when the person or persons responsible for maintenance leave the company. These responsibilities must be reassigned. To ensure this, maintenance responsibilities must be built into job descriptions and properly monitored.

〇：Information used to reconstruct data

RAID can improve system performance by providing fault tolerance to the hard drive and the data it holds. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting the data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also distributed across each disk. This is called parity, and if one disk fails, the other disks can work together to recover the data.

×：Information used to create new data

This is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data, but rather as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to erase data

Parity information is not used to erase data. This is incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to construct data

Parity information is not used to create data. Incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

A security document documents the security to be achieved.” To achieve “strong security” a clear definition is needed. Since the definition varies from organization to organization, it is necessary to put it in writing. There are five documents, with policy at the top, each of which is mandatory or optional.

Cryptographic algorithms refer to the calculations to be encrypted, and even if the cryptographic algorithms were publicly available, it would take an enormous amount of effort to decipher them. cryptographic algorithms that provide modern cryptography, such as AES, are publicly available. On the other hand, in-house development is not recommended because, although it has the security of concealment, it requires a great deal of resources to be allocated.

〇：Well-Formed Transaction

In the Clark-Wilson model, subjects cannot access objects without going through some type of application or program that controls how this access is done. The subject (usually the user) can access the required object based on access rules within the application software, defined as “Well-Formed Transaction,” in conjunction with the application.

×：Childwall model

This is incorrect because it is another name for the Brewer Nash model created to provide access control that can be dynamically modified according to the user’s previous behavior. It is shaped by access attempts and conflicts of interest and does not allow information to flow between subjects and objects. In this model, a subject can only write to an object if the subject cannot read another object in a different data set.

×：Access tuples

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it uses access triples instead of access tuples. The access triple is the subject program object. This ensures that the subject can only access the object through the authorized program.

×：Write Up and Write Down

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because there is no Write Up and Write Down. These rules relate to the Bell-LaPadula and Biba models. The Bell-LaPadula model contains a simple security rule that has not been read and a star property rule that has not been written down. The Biba model contains an unread simple completeness axiom and an unwritten star completeness axiom.

〇：Cost-benefit analysis

To require that controls be put in place to reduce risk within acceptable limits, measures need to be selected that are identified as realistic, sufficiently likely, and sufficiently impactful. Simply analyzing the costs and benefits of possible measures will help determine what measures should be taken.

×：Risk Analysis

This is incorrect because risk determination is only the first step in identifying what may be needed to control risk within acceptable thresholds.

×：ALE Consequences

Wrong because ALE informs the firm of what it could lose if a particular threat becomes real. The value of the ALE goes into the cost-benefit analysis, but the ALE does not address the costs of the countermeasure and the benefits of the countermeasure.

×：Identifying vulnerabilities and threats that pose a risk

This is incorrect because although the vulnerability and threat assessments make the need for countermeasures known, the assessments alone do not determine what the cost-effectiveness of the competing countermeasures is expected to be.

〇：DOM-based

Mary exploits a cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerability called Document Object Model (DOM) Local Cross-Site Scripting.The DOM is a standard structural layout for representing HTML and XML documents in a browser. In such attacks, components of the document such as form fields and cookies can be referenced via JavaScript. The attacker uses the DOM environment to modify the client-side JavaScript. The result is to cause the victim’s browser to execute malicious JavaScript code. The most effective way to prevent these attacks is to disable scripting support in the browser.

×：Secondary

Secondary, or persistent XSS vulnerabilities are incorrect because they target websites that populate databases or data stored elsewhere, such as forums or message boards.

×：Persistent

Persistent XSS vulnerability is incorrect because it is simply another name for a secondary vulnerability.

×：Non-Persistent

A non-persistent XSS vulnerability, called a reflection vulnerability, is incorrect because it uses a malicious script to open a programmed URL in order to steal sensitive information from someone who holds cookies, etc. The principle behind this attack lies in the lack of proper input or output validation on dynamic websites.

〇：The ability to control access close to the resource.

Central access control has various advantages such as uniform rules and reduced operational burden. Distributed access control allows access control in close proximity to resources, thus protecting resources independently.

×：It should be possible to design a comprehensive

Distributed access control is not a comprehensive design because the authentication and authorization functions are distributed.

×：Relatively low cost.

Whether or not costs can be kept down cannot be determined by this design concept alone.

×：Logs from various devices make it easier to understand the current status.

Both central access control and distributed access control can acquire logs from various devices.

Awareness is to inform the organization’s members of the information they already have in order to make them more vigilant again. Tranning is the input of information that is unknown to the members of the organization. Therefore, the difference between awareness-raising and tranning is whether the target audience is already aware of the information.

〇：OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.

×：CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.

CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.

×：OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.

OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.

×：CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.

Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.

Student numbers, which are left to the control of each school, cannot be considered privacy information because they are not sufficient information to identify an individual.

A structured change management process must be established to direct staff to make appropriate configuration changes. Standard procedures keep the process under control and ensure that it can be implemented in a predictable manner. Change management policies should include procedures for requesting changes, approving changes, documenting, testing and viewing changes, implementing, and reporting changes to management. The configuration management change control process is not typically associated with service level agreement approvals.

〇：Review the schedule.

Unit testing is testing to confirm that the developed module works as a stand-alone unit. Acceptance testing is testing to make sure that the customer who ordered the development actually uses it and is satisfied with it. Acceptance testing cannot take the place of unit testing. It is not upward compatible as a test, and the perspectives are different. Therefore, the correct answer is “Review the schedule.” The correct answer is “Review the schedule.

×：Unit testing is not performed for the sake of work efficiency.

It does not mean that unit tests are not performed.

×：Increase the number of items in the acceptance test for the unit test that could not be done.

The items that should have been done in the actual unit test are simply accounted for as acceptance tests, and the unit test is not considered to have been completed. This is an action that is close to concealment.

×：Report to your supervisor.

You are in charge of project management.

〇：SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms.

Email spoofing is easy to perform if the SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms. An attacker can spoof the sender address of an e-mail by sending a Telnet command to port 25 of the mail server. The spammer uses e-mail spoofing to prevent himself from being identified.

×：The administrator forgot to configure a setting that prevents inbound SMTP connections for non-functioning domains.

If it is spoofed, the email sender is also spoofed. This can happen even if you prevent inbound SMTP connections for a domain.

×：Technically abolished by keyword filtering.

Filtering is not very effective against spoofing. Therefore, even if it is technically obsolete, it is unlikely to be the cause.

×：The blacklist function is not technically reliable.

If an email is spoofed, the sender of the email is also spoofed. This can happen even if the filtering function is not reliable.

〇：DNSSEC

DNSSEC is a set of extensions to the DNS that provide DNS clients (resolvers) with authentication of the origin of DNS data to reduce the threat of DNS poisoning, spoofing, and similar attack types. It is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) specification for securing services.

×：Resource Record

DNS servers contain records that map hostnames to IP addresses, called resource records. The answer is incorrect. When a user’s computer needs to resolve a hostname to an IP address, it looks in its network configuration to find its DNS server. The computer then sends a request containing the hostname to the DNS server for resolution; the DNS server looks at its resource records, finds a record with this particular hostname, retrieves the address, and responds to the computer with the corresponding IP address.

×：Zone Transfer

Primary and secondary DNS servers synchronize their information via zone transfers. The answer is incorrect. After changes are made to the primary DNS server, these changes must be replicated to the secondary DNS server. It is important to configure the DNS servers so that zone transfers can take place between specific servers.

×：Resource Transfer

Equivalent to transferring DNS resource records, but the answer is incorrect.

〇：Zero Knowledge Proof

Zero Knowledge Proof means that someone can tell you something without telling you more information than you need to know. In cryptography, it means proving that you have a certain key without sharing that key or showing it to anyone. Zero knowledge proof (usually mathematical) is an interactive way for one party to prove to another that something is true without revealing anything sensitive.

×：Key Clustering

Key clustering is the phenomenon of encrypting the same plaintext with different keys, but with the same ciphertext.

×：Avoiding Birthday Attacks

An attacker can attempt to force a collision, called a birthday attack. This attack is based on the mathematical birthday paradox present in standard statistics. This is a cryptographic attack that uses probability theory to exploit the mathematics behind the birthday problem.

×：Provides data confidentiality

Provided via encryption when data is encrypted with a key, which is incorrect.

〇：ACL

Access Control List (ACL) A map value from the Access Control Matrix to an object; ACLs are used in several operating system, application, and router configurations. They are lists of items that are authorized to access a particular object and they define the level of authorization to be granted. Authorization can be specified to an individual or to a group. Therefore, ACLs are bound to an object and indicate which subjects can access it, and feature tables are bound to a subject and indicate which objects the subject can access.

×：Function table

The function table is a row in the access control matrix.

×：Constraint Interface

Constraint interfaces are wrong because they limit the user’s access ability by not allowing them to request certain functions or information or have access to certain system resources.

×：Role-based values

The role-based access control (RBAC) model, called non-discretionary access control, is wrong because it uses a centralized set of controls to determine how subjects and objects interact.

In an asymmetric algorithm, every user must have at least one key pair (private and public key). In a public key system, each entity has a separate key. The formula for determining the number of keys needed in this environment is by the number N × 2, where N is the number of people to distribute. In other words, 260 x 2 = 520. Therefore, the correct answer is 520.

MTD represents the time it takes to signify severe and irreparable damage to the reputation and bottom line of an organization; RTO values are smaller than MTD values; RTO assumes that there is a period of acceptable downtime.

A well-known port is a port number from 0 to 1023 that is reserved for standard services. There are three port number combinations. Well-known port numbers (0-1023) are port numbers officially registered with IANA. Registered port numbers (1024-49151) are port numbers that are officially registered with IANA. A dynamic/private port number (49152-65535) is a port number that is not officially registered with IANA.

〇：Operating system patching is easier.

This is an incorrect choice question. Virtualization does not simplify operating system patching. In fact, it complicates it by adding at least one additional operating system. Each operating system differs from the typical version configuration, adding to the complexity of patching. The server’s own operating system runs as a guest within the host environment. In addition to patching and maintaining the traditional server operating system, the virtualization software itself must be patched and maintained.

For this question, we do not require an understanding of all the technical systems of virtualization. What is required here is a selection of answers based on a process of elimination.

×：I can build a secure computing platform.

Building a secure computing platform may not be a feature of virtualization per se. However, can we build a secure environment? This is not a false choice because it cannot be ruled out.

×：It can provide fault and error containment.

Virtualization can be host independent. In terms of containment, it can be interpreted as being able to provide fault and error containment through independence from physical servers. Therefore, it cannot be denied and is therefore not an incorrect choice.

×：It can provide powerful debugging capabilities.

Virtualization can reproduce a unique environment, not just put up a clean virtual host. Therefore, it is undeniable and therefore out of the wrong choice.

〇：Interface test is intended to verify correct operation in the correct state. Misuse case testing is intended to verify that problems occur in error conditions.

All applications must undergo interface testing to ensure proper function and use. They should undergo misuse case testing to determine if their intentional misuse could cause errors that would harm the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data to which the application provides access.

×：Interface test is intended to determine if a problem occurs in an error condition. Misuse case testing is intended to verify correct operation in the correct state.

While it may be possible to find incorrect behavior based on the assumption that the correct behavior occurs, the sentence is backwards in terms of the purpose of the test as well.

×：Interface testing is intended to check for proper usability. Misuse case testing monitors when errors occur.

Interfaces are not limited to usability. It is also a test for the API for server-to-server communication.

×：Interface testing and misuse case testing are essentially the same.

Essentially, the purpose of the test and the creation of an environment to achieve that purpose are different.

〇：Diameter

Diameter is an authentication, authorization, and audit (AAA) protocol that not only provides the same kind of functionality as RADIUS and TACACS, but also offers more flexibility and capabilities to meet the emerging demands of today’s complex and diverse networks. Once all remote communication is done via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) connections, users can authenticate themselves via Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) to authenticated. The technology has become much more complex and there are multiple devices and protocols to choose from over the ever increasing Diameter protocol, Mobile IP, PPP, Voice over IP (VoIP), and other over Ethernet, wireless devices, smart phones, and other devices can authenticate themselves to the network using roaming protocols.

×：Watchdog

Watchdog timers are wrong because such processes are generally used to detect software failures such as abnormal termination or hangs. The watchdog function sends out “heartbeat” packets to determine if the service is responding. If not, the process can be terminated or reset. These packets help prevent software deadlocks, infinite loops, and process prioritization problems. This feature can be used in the AAA protocol to determine if a packet needs to be retransmitted and if a problem occurs and the connection should be closed and reopened, but it is not in the access control protocol itself.

×：RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is wrong because it is a network protocol and provides client/server authentication, authorization, and auditing for remote users.

×：TACACS

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS ) is incorrect because it provides essentially the same functionality as RADIUS.

〇：Converts bytecode to machine-level code.

Java is an object-oriented, platform-independent programming language. It is used as a full-fledged programming language to write programs called applets that run in the user’s browser. java is platform independent because it creates intermediate code that is not processor-specific bytecode. java virtual machine (JVM) converts bytecode into machine-level code that can be understood by processors on a particular system.

×：Converts source code to bytecode and blocks the sandbox.

Incorrect because the Java Virtual Machine converts bytecode to machine-level code. The Java compiler does not convert source code to bytecode. The JVM also creates a virtual machine in an environment called the sandbox. This virtual machine is the enclosed environment in which the applet executes its activities. The applet is typically sent via HTTP within the requested web page and is executed as soon as the applet arrives. If the applet developer fails to function properly, it may intentionally or accidentally perform a malicious act. Therefore, the sandbox strictly limits the applet’s access to system resources. The JVM mediates access to system resources to ensure that applet code runs and works within its own sandbox.

×：It runs only on specific processors within a specific operating system.

This is incorrect because Java is an object-oriented, platform-independent programming language. Other languages are compiled into object code for specific operating systems and processors. Thus, a particular application can run on Windows, but not on the Mac OS. Intel processors do not necessarily understand machine code compiled for Alpha processors. Java is platform independent because it creates intermediate code bytecode. It is not processor-specific code bytecode.

×：Develop an applet that runs in the user’s browser.

This is incorrect because the Java Virtual Machine does not create applets. Java is adopted as a full-fledged programming language and is used to write complete and short programs called applets that run in the user’s browser. Programmers create Java applets and run them through a compiler. The Java compiler converts the source code into byte code. The user then downloads the Java applet. The bytecode is converted to machine-level code by the JVM. Finally, the applet is executed when invoked.

〇：IP Session Restriction via Media Gateway

The VoIP Media Gateway translates Internet Protocol (VoIP) voice over time division multiplexing (TDM) voice to and from. As a security measure, the number of calls through the Media Gateway should be limited. The Media Gateway is vulnerable to denial-of-service attacks, hijacking, and other types of attacks.

×：Identification of Rogue Devices  

Incorrect, as rogue devices on both IP telephony and data networks need to be identified.

×：Implementation of Authentication

Incorrect because authentication is recommended for both data and voice networks.

×：Encryption of packets containing sensitive information

Incorrect because sensitive data can be transmitted over either voice or data networks and must be encrypted in both cases. Eavesdropping is a very real threat for VoIP networks.

〇：The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

×：Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

×：Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

×：A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

Each IPSec VPN device will have at least one security association (SA) for each secure connection it uses; the SA, which is critical to the IPSec architecture, is the device’s need to support IPSec connections over VPN connections This is a record of the configuration that needs to be in place.

〇：One-time pad

Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.

×：AES

AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.

×：Block ciphers

Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.

×：RSA

RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.

〇：TOC/TOU

Certain attacks can take advantage of the way a system processes requests and performs tasks. A TOC/TOU attack handles a series of steps that the system uses to complete a task. This type of attack takes advantage of the reliance on the timing of events occurring in a multitasking operating system; TOC/TOU is a software vulnerability that allows the use of condition checking (i.e., credential verification) and the results from that condition checking function. In the scenario in this question, the fact that the web application is likely correctly configured indicates that the programming code of this application has this type of vulnerability embedded in the code itself.

×：Buffer overflow

When too much data is accepted as input to a particular process, a buffer overflow occurs. This is incorrect because it does not match the event in the problem statement. A buffer is an allocated segment of memory. A buffer can overflow arbitrarily with too much data, but to be used by an attacker, the code inserted into the buffer must be of a specific length and require a command to be executed by the attacker. These types of attacks are usually exceptional in that the fault is segmented, or sensitive data is provided to the attacker.

×：Blind SQL Injection

Blind SQL injection attacks are wrong because they are a type of SQL injection attack that sends true or false questions to the database. In a basic SQL injection, the attacker sends specific instructions in SQL format to query the associated database. In a blind SQL attack, the attacker is limited to sending a series of true-false questions to the database in order to analyze the database responses and gather sensitive information.

×：Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is incorrect because it is an attack type that attempts to trick the victim into loading a web page containing malicious requests or operations. The attack operation is performed within the context of the victim’s access rights. The request inherits the victim’s identity and performs undesirable functions for the victim. In this type of attack, the attacker can cause the victim’s system to perform unintended actions such as changing account information, retrieving account data, or logging out. This type of attack could be related to the scenario described in this question, but focuses on how the user can bypass the locking mechanism built into the web application. The logic in the programming code is incorrectly developed and the locking function is bypassed because a rigorous series of checks and usage sequences are not performed correctly.

〇：VLAN

Virtual LANs (VLANs) allow logical isolation and grouping of computers based on resource requirements, security, or business needs, despite the standard physical location of the system. Computers in the same department configured on the same VLAN network can all receive the same broadcast messages, allowing all users to access the same types of resources regardless of their physical location.

×：Open Network Architecture  

Open network architecture is wrong because it describes the technology that can configure a network; the OSI model provides a framework for developing products that operate within an open network architecture.

×：Intranet

Incorrect because an intranet is a private network used by a company when it wants to use Internet and Web-based technologies in its internal network.

×：VAN  

Incorrect because a Value Added Network (VAN) is an electronic data interchange (EDI) infrastructure developed and maintained by a service bureau.

〇：It encompasses network and code analysis and is sometimes referred to as electronic data discovery.

Forensics is the analysis of electronic data that may have been affected by technology, authentication, and criminal activity requiring special techniques to ensure the preservation of information. It comes together of computer science, information technology and engineering in the legal system. When discussing digital forensics with others, it may be described as computer forensics, network forensics, electronic data discovery, cyber forensics, etc.

×：The study of computer technology.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it involves information technology rather than research. It encompasses the study of information technology, but also includes collecting and protecting evidence and working within specific legal systems.

×：A set of hardware-specific processes that must be followed in order for evidence to be admissible in court.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it does not refer to hardware or software. It is a set of specific processes related to computer usage, examination of residual data, technical analysis and description of technical characteristics of the data, and reconstruction of the authentication of data by computer usage that must be followed for the evidence to be admissible in court.

×：Before an incident occurs, digital forensics roles and responsibilities should be assigned to network administrators.

This is wrong because digital forensics must be done by people with the proper training and skill set who could not possibly be administrators or network administrators. Digital forensics can be fragile and must have been worked on properly. If someone reboots an attacked system or inspects various files, it could corrupt and change executable evidence, key file timestamps, and erase any footprints the criminal may have left behind.

〇：Extraction of data from the database

In data classification, the data classification is used to specify which users have access to read and write data stored in the database, but it does not involve the extraction of data from the database. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data from the database.

What is this? This is a question that you may think “What is this?” but you need to calmly analyze the classification of data and the manipulation of data. The more time you spend, the more tempted you are to give a difficult answer, but keeping calm is important in solving abstract problems.

×：Grouping hierarchically classified information

This is the primary activity of data classification.

×：Ensuring that non-confidential data is not unnecessarily protected

It is written in a complicated way, but it says that what does not need to be protected does not need the ability to be protected either.

×：Understanding the impact of data leakage

Although not directly, we may check the impact of a data breach in order to understand its importance in classifying data. Ka.

〇：Multiple major and used usages should be screened to make sure they work on the target browsers.

If the service is for BtoC, it is considered that more target users should be supported.

×：It should be checked if it works on a particular browser.

User cases that do not work on certain browsers may occur after release.

×：Confirm that it works on the most secure browser.

If it is secure, it is expected to work in the most restricted of browsers.

In reality, however, browser specifications also vary, including browser backs and terminals.

×：Make sure it works on OS-standard browsers.

Browsers are not just OS standard. In reality, end users also download and use their favorite browsers from app stores.

〇：Purge by overwriting

Purging means making data unavailable even by physical forensic efforts. This is typically accomplished by overwriting each sector of the medium on which the data is stored.

×：Deleting data

Wrong. Deleting data by operating system command typically leaves the data on the storage medium while marking the clusters or blocks that are stored for later reuse.

Personally, I feel that this option is better prepared for the exam. This is because the choice uses the general language of deleting data, which allows the answer to be given in a short time and in a broad sense. However, the term purge is a stronger fit for the question than the answer to this question.

×：Sanitizing media

Wrong. Although more powerful than simply deleting data with an operating system command, sanitization usually refers to making storage media reusable within the same security context.

The method-specific option “purge” is a stronger fit for the problem, since you asked for “using special skills, such as physical or forensic.”

×：None of these work!

Wrong. With appropriate prudence, purging techniques can successfully handle data residuals.

〇：Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.

For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.

×：Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.

That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.

×：Much faster operation than asymmetric systems

Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.

×：Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed

Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.