The expected annual loss amount is the value of losses that could occur in the future, equalized on an annual basis based on the frequency of occurrence. Therefore, it is the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the annual frequency of occurrence (ALO).

〇：Software Escrow

If you do not have access to the software, but the developer may be out of business, you should plan for what to do after that out-of-business event. Software escrow means that the third party retains the source and compiled code, backup manuals, and other support materials. The agreement between the software vendor, the customer, and the third party would typically be that the customer would only have access to the source code when the vendor goes out of business and in the event of the vendor’s inability to fulfill its stated responsibilities or breach of the original agreement. The customer is protected because they can gain access to the source code and other materials through a third-party escrow agent.

×：Reciprocal Treatment Agreement

Although the term “reciprocal treatment agreement” does not exist, a close concept is mutual assistance agreements. A Mutual Assistance Agreement (MAA) is a promise to support each other in the event of a disaster by sharing facilities. There are times when you want to do something about a disaster, but you don’t have the funds to do it. In such a case, you can find a similar organization and agree to cooperate with each other in the event of a disaster.

×：Electronic Data Vault

Electronic data vaulting (e-vaulting) is the use of a remote backup service to electronically transmit backups off-site at regular intervals or when files are changed.

×：Business interruption insurance

Although the term business interruption insurance does not exist, it can be interpreted as a concept similar to insurance in the event of business interruption. Insurance is typically applied against financial risk. In this issue, software escrow is more appropriate because we want to continue access to the software.

〇：Check for errors caused by principal code modifications.

Regression testing finds defects after code changes have occurred. It looks for reduced or lost functionality, including old bugs. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Check for errors due to changes in the main code.” will be.

×：Install the developed software on the customer’s hardware.

This is not a test, but part of the release.

×：Checking the detection and processing when faced with a failure.

This is so-called troubleshooting and is accomplished by handing over the operational plan and procedures to the operations team.

×：Checking the interfaces of software components.

This is testing against the interface and is performed as part of the test items for internal and external coupling tests.

〇：Replay attacks

Replay attacks occur when an intruder stores the acquired information and uses it to gain unauthorized access later. In this case, Emily uses a technique called electronic monitoring (sniffing) to retrieve passwords sent over the wire to an authentication server. She can later use the password to access network resources. Even if the password is encrypted, resending valid credentials can be enough to gain access.

×：Brute force attacks

Brute force attacks are incorrect because the cycle is done through many possible combinations of letters, numbers, and symbols, using tools to discover the password.

×：Dictionary attacks

Dictionary attacks are incorrect because they involve an automatic comparison of a user’s password to a file of thousands of words.

×：Social Engineering attack

A social engineering attack is incorrect because in a social engineering attack, the attacker mistakenly convinces an individual that she has the necessary permissions to access certain resources.

〇：Test the restore procedure.

The ability to successfully restore from a backup must be tested periodically. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test the restore procedure.” will be

×：Ensure that all user data is backed up.

Making copies of user data is important, but copies are useless unless it is ensured that the copies can be restored.

×：Back up the database management system (DBMS) to your own specifications.

While it is a good idea to use measures to meet the proprietary specifications of the DBMS to ensure that transactional copies are usable, those copies will not be trusted unless the restores are tested.

×：Ensure that the backup log files are complete.

Monitoring backup logs for completion is good operational practice, but it is wrong because it is no substitute for regular testing of the backups themselves and their ability to truly recover from data loss.

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks usually do not provide financial gain to the attacker. Often, the motivation is revenge, disagreement with the organization’s policy decisions, or the attacker proving the extent of his or her animosity toward the organization. Certainly, it can be used to bloat the cost of a pay-as-you-go cloud service by causing it to consume more resources than expected by accessing it in large volumes, but it is a mistake in that it is not the financial objective of the parties involved.

Service Organization Control (SOC) is a rule established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) to assure the internal control of the party contracted to perform services. Sometimes, work is contracted out to other firms. In order to guarantee the quality of its own work, the company that is contracted to perform the work must also have appropriate controls in place. For this reason, we check the internal control of the outsourcing company to which the work is outsourced.

• SOC-1 (Internal Control over Financial Reporting (ICFR)) Audits the accounting of the trustee company.
  SOC-2 (Trust Services Criteria): Checks security and other controls other than accounting for the fiduciary company. Usually takes six months to complete.
  SOC-3 (Trust Services Criteria for General Use Report) Confirms security and other controls other than accounting for unspecified persons (users).

Circuit switching is a dedicated communication channel through a network. The circuit guarantees full bandwidth. The circuit functions as if the nodes were physically connected by cables.

〇：Zachman Framework

The Zachman Framework is an enterprise architecture that determines the what, how, where, who, when, and why for each mandate. Enterprise architecture is to create a management structure to achieve business goals. We create an organization to achieve business goals, and basically, the larger the business goals, the larger the organization. If the structure of the organization is not in place, the organization will not run efficiently, as there may be residual work that needs to be done, or there may be friction between jobs due to authority that is covered by others. Therefore, it is necessary to clarify the scope of each job authority in order to put the organization in order. The job authority here is different from the perspectives of human resources or sales. It is easier to think of them as hierarchically separated to achieve business goals. Clarify the scope in Executive, Business Management, Architecture, Engineers, Subcontractors, and Stakeholders, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Zachman Framework.

×：SABSA

SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework to ensure that security measures are working properly in achieving business goals. Unlike the Zachman Framework, the tasks to be organized are hierarchical elements. Business Requirements > Conceptual Architecture > Logical Service Architecture > Physical Infrastructure Architecture > Technology and Products, each with a 5W1H practice.

×：Five-W method

There is no such term. If there is, it is a term coined to make it easier to interpret.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

Unfortunately, security components usually affect system performance but go unnoticed by the user. If system performance is significantly slower, security controls may be enforced. The reason controls must be transparent is so that users and intruders do not know enough to disable or bypass them.

While it is important to understand the term “transparent” in the realm of security, there is another way to answer the question in terms of solving it. If there is only one answer to a four-answer question, then answers that mean the same thing cannot be correct. Therefore, by grouping, the only answer that is correct is the one that does not belong to a group.

And the key point in this question is whether the user knows. The other choices indicate that the situation is communicated on the server side as an outsider, whether a legitimate user or an attacker, whereas only one is acknowledged on the server administrator’s side.

〇：Completing the Business Impact Analysis

Of the steps listed in this question, completing the Business Impact Analysis is the highest priority. The BIA is essential in determining the most critical business functions and identifying the threats associated with them. Qualitative and quantitative data must be collected, analyzed, interpreted, and presented to management.

×：Test and Drill Plan

Test and drill is wrong because it is part of the last step in disaster recovery and contingency planning. Because the environment is constantly changing, it is important to test your business continuity plan on a regular basis. Testing and disaster recovery drills and exercises should be performed at least once a year. The exercises should be done in sections or at specific times that require logistical planning, as most firms cannot afford these exercises to disrupt production or productivity.

×：Determining alternatives for off-site backup facilities

This is incorrect because it is part of the contingency strategy that is done in the middle of the disaster recovery and contingency planning process. In the event of a major disaster, an alternate off-site backup capability is required. Typically, contracts are established with third-party vendors to provide such services. The client pays a monthly fee to retain the right to use the facility when needed and then pays an activation fee when they need to use that facility.

×：Organize and prepare related documentation

This is incorrect because the relevant documentation is organized and created around the time the disaster recovery and contingency planning process is completed. Procedures should be documented. This is because time-consuming schedules are confusing when they are actually needed. Documentation should include information on how to install images, configure the operating system and server, and install utilities and proprietary software. Other documentation should include call trees and contact information for specific vendors, emergency agencies, off-site facilities, etc.

〇：Risk Mitigation

Risk can be addressed in four basic ways: transfer, avoidance, mitigation, and acceptance. Sue reduces the risk posed by her e-mail system by implementing security controls such as antivirus and anti-spam software. This is also referred to as risk mitigation, where risk is reduced to a level considered acceptable. Risk can be mitigated by improving procedures, changing the environment, erecting barriers to threats, and implementing early detection techniques to stop threats when they occur and reduce damage.

×：Risk Acceptance

This is inappropriate because risk acceptance does not involve spending on protection or countermeasures such as anti-virus software. When accepting a risk, one should be aware of the level of risk faced and the potential damage costs and decide to keep it without implementing countermeasures. If the cost/benefit ratio indicates that the cost of countermeasures exceeds the potential losses, many companies will accept the risk.

×：Risk Avoidance

Wrong because it would mean discontinuing the activity that is causing the risk. In this case, Sue’s firm decides to continue using e-mail. A company may choose to terminate an activity that introduces risk if the risk outweighs the business needs of the activity. For example, a company may choose to block social media websites in some departments because of the risk to employee productivity.

×：Risk Transfer

This is incorrect because it involves sharing risk with other entities, as in the purchase of insurance to transfer some of the risk to the insurance company. Many types of insurance are available to firms to protect their assets. If a company determines that its total or excess risk is too high to gamble, it can purchase insurance.

〇：Cost-benefit analysis

To require that controls be put in place to reduce risk within acceptable limits, measures need to be selected that are identified as realistic, sufficiently likely, and sufficiently impactful. Simply analyzing the costs and benefits of possible measures will help determine what measures should be taken.

×：Risk Analysis

This is incorrect because risk determination is only the first step in identifying what may be needed to control risk within acceptable thresholds.

×：ALE Consequences

Wrong because ALE informs the firm of what it could lose if a particular threat becomes real. The value of the ALE goes into the cost-benefit analysis, but the ALE does not address the costs of the countermeasure and the benefits of the countermeasure.

×：Identifying vulnerabilities and threats that pose a risk

This is incorrect because although the vulnerability and threat assessments make the need for countermeasures known, the assessments alone do not determine what the cost-effectiveness of the competing countermeasures is expected to be.

In white box software testing, the tester has full knowledge of the program’s source code, data structures, variables, etc.

〇：The security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor

The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is a complete combination of protection mechanisms for a system. These are in the form of hardware, software, and firmware. These same components also comprise the security kernel. Reference monitors are access control concepts implemented and enforced by the security kernel via hardware, software, and firmware. In doing so, it ensures that the security kernel, the subject, has the proper permissions to access the object it is requesting. The subject, be it a program, user, or process, cannot access the requesting file, program, or resource until it is proven that it has the proper access rights.

×：The reference monitor is the core of the Trusted Computing Base (TCP), which is comprised of the security kernel.

This is incorrect because the reference monitor is not the core of the TCB. The core of the TCB is the security kernel, and the security kernel implements the concepts of the reference monitor. The reference monitor is a concept about access control. It is often referred to as an “abstract machine” because it is not a physical component.

×：The reference monitor implements and executes the security kernel.

The reference monitor does not implement and execute the security kernel, which is incorrect. On the contrary, the security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor. The reference monitor is an abstract concept, while the security kernel is a combination of hardware, software, and firmware in a trusted computing base.

×：The security kernel, i.e., the abstract machine, implements the concept of a reference monitor.

This is incorrect because abstract machine is not another name for security kernel. Abstract machine is another name for the reference monitor. This concept ensures that the abstract machine acts as an intermediary between the subject and the object, ensuring that the subject has the necessary rights to access the object it is requesting and protecting the subject from unauthorized access and modification. The security kernel functions to perform these activities.

〇：Purge by overwriting

Purging means making data unavailable even by physical forensic efforts. This is typically accomplished by overwriting each sector of the medium on which the data is stored.

×：Deleting data

Wrong. Deleting data by operating system command typically leaves the data on the storage medium while marking the clusters or blocks that are stored for later reuse.

Personally, I feel that this option is better prepared for the exam. This is because the choice uses the general language of deleting data, which allows the answer to be given in a short time and in a broad sense. However, the term purge is a stronger fit for the question than the answer to this question.

×：Sanitizing media

Wrong. Although more powerful than simply deleting data with an operating system command, sanitization usually refers to making storage media reusable within the same security context.

The method-specific option “purge” is a stronger fit for the problem, since you asked for “using special skills, such as physical or forensic.”

×：None of these work!

Wrong. With appropriate prudence, purging techniques can successfully handle data residuals.

Sabotage is an attack by an insider.

Onion routing is characterized by multiple layers of encryption because encryption is applied each time it passes through a router. However, there is no security feature at the final router because all encryption is decrypted at the final point of the router and becomes plaintext.

〇：Provisioning accounts, modifying accounts, auditing account usage, and deactivating accounts.

All phases of the authenticated access lifecycle should be considered. Access should not be granted without proper instructions, nor should access be granted or denied without expected authorization. Suspension of access must also be auditable.

×：Provisioning or adding accounts, changing accounts, and suspending accounts.

Incorrect because it does not include auditing of account usage.

×：Adding an account, deleting an account, or deleting a user’s data.

Incorrect because deletion of user data may conflict with data retention requirements.

×：Verifying account passwords, checking account usage, and deleting accounts.

Incorrect because it is merely an authentication step and not related to account management.

〇：(A) Web Service Description Language – (B) Universal Description, Discovery and Integration

Services in service-oriented architectures (SOA) are typically provided via Web services, which enable Web-based communication to occur seamlessly using Web-based standards such as Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP), HTTP, Web Service Description Language (WSDL), Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration （WSDL provides a machine-readable description of the specific operations provided by a service; UDDI is an XML-based registry that lists available services UDDI provides a way for services to be registered by service providers and deployed by service consumers.

×：(A) generic description, discovery and integration – (B) web service description language

Incorrect because the terms are not in the correct order and do not map to the definitions provided within the question.

×：(A) Web Service Description Language – (B) Simple Object Access Protocol

SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) is incorrect because it is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web services environment. SOAP defines an XML schema for how communication is actually going to take place. SOAP XML schema defines how objects communicate directly.

×：(A) Simple Object Access Protocol (B) Universal Description, Discovery and Integration

SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol) is incorrect because it is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web services environment. SOAP defines the XML schema of how communication is actually going to take place. SOAP XML Schema defines how objects communicate directly.

Measures have been implemented to reduce the overall risk to an acceptable level. However, no system or environment is 100% safe, and risks remain with all countermeasures. The residual risk after countermeasures have been taken is called residual risk. Residual risk is different from total risk. Total risk is the risk of not implementing countermeasures. While total risk can be determined by calculating (threat x vulnerability x asset value = total risk), residual risk can be determined by calculating (threat x vulnerability x asset value) x control gap = residual risk. The control gap is the amount of protection that the control cannot provide.

〇：Normalization

Normalization is the process of efficiently organizing data by eliminating redundancy, reducing the potential for anomalies during data manipulation, and improving data consistency within a database. It is a systematic method of ensuring that database structures are correctly designed so that undesirable characteristics (insert, update, and delete anomalies) do not occur and data integrity is lost.

×：Polymorphism

Polymorphism is incorrect because different objects are given the same input and react differently.

×：Database View Implementation

A database view is a logical access control, implemented so that one group or specific user can see certain information and another group is restricted from seeing it completely, which is incorrect. For example, a database view could be implemented so that middle management can see the profits and expenses of a department without seeing the profits of the entire enterprise. Database views do not minimize duplicate data. Rather, it manipulates how the data is displayed by a particular user/group.

×：Schema Construction

Schemas in database systems are incorrect because they are structures described in a formal language. In a relational database, a schema defines tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, procedures, queues, database links, directories, etc. A schema describes the database and its structure, but not the data that exists in the database itself.

〇：The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.

A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of digitally signing means encrypting the hash value of the message with his/her private key. The sender would encrypt that hash value using her private key. When the recipient receives the message, she performs a hash function on the message and generates the hash value herself. She then decrypts the hash value (digital signature) sent with the sender’s public key. The receiver compares the two values and, if they are the same, can verify that the message was not altered during transmission.

×：The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.

The sender is wrong because if the message encrypts the digest with his/her public key, the recipient cannot decrypt it. The recipient needs access to the sender’s private key, which must not occur. The private key must always be kept secret.

×：The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.

The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.

×：The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.

The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.

Risk is the multiplication of threats and vulnerabilities. If the threat is at least as great as the vulnerability is fatal, it is a significant impact, or risk. Therefore, the best illustration of the relationship between the four rules is the multiplier.

Web access management (WAM) software controls what users can access when interacting with Web-based corporate assets using a Web browser. This type of technology is continually becoming more robust and experiencing increased deployment. This is due to the increased use of e-commerce, online banking, content delivery, and Web services. The basic components and activities of the Web access control management process are

• The user submits credentials to the web server.
• The web server requests the WAM platform to authenticate the user. WAM authenticates to the LDAP directory and obtains credentials from the policy database.
• The user requests access to a resource (object).
• The web server verifies that object access is allowed and grants access to the requested resource.

When the complicated term WAM is mentioned, the journey begins to search for a definition of WAM that may be at the end of one’s brain. But as these thoughts begin, you will want the hard answers, like the X.500 database. But if you don’t know, it is straightforward to interpret and answer to the best of your understanding; if you interpret WAM as software that controls access to a Web server, then the question is, “Which is the correct definition of WAM?” Rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does?” rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does? However, it is still tempting to factor in the possibility that WAM is a solution that uses a specific technology that may be unfamiliar to you.

〇：Approval of the attack to the target organization

Permission must be obtained from the target organization for the attack during the planning phase. Even though it is a test, it takes an action that is similar to an attack. During the implementation, the target system cannot be updated, so approval must be obtained. We also need to understand the system to be penetrated in great detail, so that the information itself is not leaked to the outside world. Also, a successful intrusion will indicate that the system has been compromised. It is necessary to make an arrangement such as not waiting until a report is generated to inform the company of the situation. Therefore, the correct answer is “Approval of attack on the target organization.

×：Share the target organization’s design documents.

This is done as necessary. Although there are various design documents, detailed design documents such as detailed design documents and program design documents are generally not presented, but only the usage of the service and basic server configuration are generally shared.

×：Confirmation of OS version

As a rule, this is not done. Penetration testing is generally conducted from the investigation of the attack. In particular, there are few cases where the OS version is informed to the penetration tester.

×：Deployment of the attack tools to be used

It is not uncommon for attack tools to be deployed from the organization that possesses the system that is the target of the penetration. This in itself is an act of limiting the attack methods, as it does not constitute a realistic test.

〇：Conduct a risk analysis.

The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.

×：Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.  

The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.

×：Design program.  

Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.

×：Implement countermeasures.  

Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.

〇：Conflict condition

A race condition is present when a process performs a task on a shared resource and the sequence could be in the wrong order. 2 or more processes can have a race condition if they use a shared resource, like data in a variable. It is important that processes perform their functions in the correct sequence.

×：Backdoors

Backdoors are incorrect because they are “listening” services on certain ports. Backdoors are implemented by attackers to allow easy access to the system without authenticating as a normal system user.

×：Maintenance Hooks

Maintenance hooks are specific software codes that allow easy and unauthorized access to sensitive parts of a software product. Software programmers use maintenance hooks to allow them to get quick access to the code so that they can make fixes in immediate, but this is dangerous.

×：Data validation errors

Data validation errors are wrong because an attacker cannot operate on the process execution sequence.

〇：ISO / IEC 27005 – Guidelines for Bodies Providing Audits and Certification of Information Security Management Systems

The ISO / IEC 27005 standard is a guideline for information security risk management. ISO / IEC 27005 is an international standard on how risk management should be implemented within the framework of an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27002 – Code of practice for information security management

This is not correct because it is a code of practice for information security management. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. ISO / IEC 27002 provides best practice recommendations and guidelines for starting, implementing, or maintaining an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27003 – ISMS Implementation Guidelines

This is incorrect as it is a guideline for ISMS implementation. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. Focuses on the key aspects necessary for the successful design and implementation of an ISMS according to ISO / IEC 27001:2005. It describes the ISMS specification and design process from its inception to the creation of an implementation plan.

×：ISO / IEC 27004 – Guidelines for Information Security Management Measurement and Metrics Framework

This is incorrect because it is a guideline for an information security management measurement and metrics framework. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. It provides guidance on the development and use of measures to assess the effectiveness of an ISMS and a group of controls or controls, as specified in ISO / IEC 27001.

〇：A Comprehensive Executive Summary

No matter how technically comprehensive a report to management may be, it is not always desirable to be too informative; IT security professionals must understand that the risk to the enterprise from a data breach is only one of many concerns that senior management must understand and prioritize. C-level executives must be attentive to many risks and may have difficulty properly categorizing the often unfamiliar, highly technical threats. In short, the IT security professional’s primary job is to summarize the risks in as short a time as possible in a way that suits the management.

×：List of Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Likelihood of Occurrence

This is incorrect because it is not the most important element to report to management. Such a list is essential to a comprehensive security report, but providing it to senior management is unlikely to result in effective action without a skillful executive summary.

×：A comprehensive list of the probability and impact of expected adverse events

This is incorrect because it is not the most important element of the report to management. Such lists are important in technical reports, but summaries are critical to achieving risk mitigation goals.

×：A comprehensive list of threats, vulnerabilities, and likelihood of occurrence, a comprehensive list of the probability and impact of expected adverse events, and a written summary thereof to meet technical comprehensiveness

incorrect because it describes the most common and significant obstacles to reporting to management.

〇：The most common method used is to change the most significant bit.

Steganography is a method of hiding data in other media types. One of the most common ways to embed messages in some types of media is using the least significant bit (LSB). This is because many types of files are modified and this is where sensitive data can be made visible and hidden without modifying the file. the LSB approach has been successful in hiding information within the graphics of high-resolution or sound-heavy audio files (high bit rate).

×：Hiding by abstraction.

Steganography is incorrect because it is concealment by abstraction. Security by obscurity means that someone uses secrecy as a way to protect an asset, rather than actually using the measure to secure something.

×：Just as encryption does, steganography is not a front for the existence of the sensitive data itself.

It is true that steganography does not draw attention to itself as does encryption. In other words, it is concealment by abstraction.

×：Media files are ideal for steganographic transmissions that are large in size.

This is incorrect because it is true that larger media files are ideal for steganographic transmissions because everyone needs to privately use multiple bits to manipulate with low likelihood of noticing.

〇：Execution Domain Switching

Execution domain switching occurs when the CPU needs to move between executing instructions for a more trusted process versus a less trusted process. Trusted Computing Base (TCB) allows processes to switch domains in a secure manner to access different levels of information based on sensitivity. Execution domain switching occurs when a process needs to invoke a process in a higher protection ring. The CPU executes the user-mode instruction back into privileged mode.

At first glance, this is a geeky problem that does not make sense. But don’t give up. Since there is no such thing as skipping, you can only get a right or wrong answer when the question is posed, so it is preferable to answer the question with some degree of prediction.

From this point on, let’s consider how to answer the questions. If you look at the question text and read it to the point where it reads, “You moved from one area to the other, and that was a security breach?” If you can read to that point, then you have two choices: deny or “stop the process,” or change or “switch the domain of execution. Next, the question text reads “if you need to access it,” which is asking how to accomplish this objective, not whether or not you should.

×：Execution of I/O operations

This is incorrect because input/output (I/O) operations are not initiated to ensure security when a process in one domain needs to access another domain in order to retrieve sensitive information. I/O operations are performed when input devices (such as a mouse or keyboard) and output devices (such as a monitor or printer, etc.) interact with an application or applications.

×：Stopping a Process

A process deactivation is one that occurs when a process instruction is fully executed by the CPU or when another process with a higher priority calls the CPU, which is incorrect. When a process is deactivated, new information about the new requesting process must be written to a register in the CPU. The TCB component must ensure that this is done, since the data replaced in the registers may be confidential.

×：Mapping from virtual memory to real memory

Incorrect because memory mapping occurs when a process needs its instructions and data processed by the CPU. The memory manager maps logical addresses to physical addresses so that the CPU knows where to place the data. This is the responsibility of the operating system’s memory manager.

〇：DDoS attacks

Availability is one of the properties of the CIA triad that indicates service continuity. An attack that threatens the continuity of service corresponds to a DDoS attack that sends a large number of requests and causes a service outage. Therefore, the correct answer is “DDoS attack”.

×: Wheeling

Whaling is a spear-phishing attack that targets a socially recognized person or organization.

×: TOC/TOU

TOC/TOU is a software bug that occurs when the system is modified between the time a condition is checked and the time the results of that check are used. In many cases, the attack replaces one file with another between looking for the file and reading the file.

×: DRAM

RAM (Random Access Memory) is memory used for CPU and screen displays, etc. DRAM is RAM that is only stored for short periods of time and requires periodic refreshing.

Defense-in-Depth is the concept that protection should not be monolithic, but should be multi-layered in all aspects. The term “defense-in-depth” comes close to the alternative, as multiple layers of protection are required to protect against a single vulnerability.

〇：Buffer overflow

A buffer is an area reserved by an application to store something in it, like some user input. After the application receives input, the instruction pointer is put into the buffer. A buffer overflow occurs when the application accidentally allows the input to overwrite the instruction pointer in the code and write it to the buffer area. Once the instruction pointer is overwritten, it can be executed under the application’s security context.

×：Traffic Analysis

Traffic Analysis is incorrect because it is a method of revealing information by looking at traffic patterns on the network.

×：Race Condition

Incorrect because it does not indicate a race condition attack; if two different processes need to perform their tasks on a resource, they need to follow the correct order.

×：Covert Storage

Incorrect because in a covert storage channel, processes are capable of communicating through some type of storage space on the system.

〇：3-tier architecture

The 3-tier architecture clearly distinguishes the three layers: the client has the user interface responsible for input and displaying results, and the server has the functional process logic responsible for data processing and data storage for accessing the database. The user interface role is generally handled by the front-end web server with which the user interacts. It can handle both static and cached dynamic content. The functional process logic is where requests are reformatted and processed. It is typically a dynamic content processing and generation level application server. Data storage is where sensitive data is held. It is the back-end database and holds both the data and the database management system software used to manage and provide access to the data.

×：2-tier architecture

Two-tier, or client/server, is incorrect because it describes an architecture in which a server serves one or more clients that request those services.

×：Screened Subnets

A screen-subnet architecture is for one firewall to protect one server (basically a one-tier architecture). The external, public-side firewall monitors requests from untrusted networks like the Internet. If one layer, the only firewall, is compromised, an attacker can access sensitive data residing on the server with relative ease.

×：Public and Private DNS Zones

Separating DNS servers into public and private servers provides protection, but this is not the actual architecture.

Disposable passwords and one-time pads are passwords but generated from something you own, not something you know. In other words, possession.

〇：Primary entry doors should have controlled access via swipe card or cryptographic locks. Secondary doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry. 

Data centers, server rooms, and wiring closets should be located in the core areas of the facility, near wiring distribution centers. Strict access control mechanisms and procedures should be implemented for these areas. Access control mechanisms can lock smart card readers, biometric readers, or a combination of these. These restricted areas should have only one access door, but fire code requirements typically dictate that there must be at least two doors in most data centers and server rooms. Only one door should be used for daily entry and exit and the other door should be used only in case of an emergency, i.e., if a fire breaks out in a data center or server room, the door should be locked. This second door should not be an access door, meaning people should not be able to come through this door. It should be locked, but should have a panic bar that will release the lock if it is used as an exit, pushed from the inside.

×：The primary and secondary entry doors must have control access via swipe cards or cryptographic locks.  

This is incorrect because even two entry doors should not be allowed to pass through with the identification, authentication, and authorization process. There should only be one entry point into the server room. No other door should provide an entry point, but can be used for an emergency exit. Therefore, secondary doors should be protected from the inside to prevent intrusion.

×：The primary entry door should have controlled access via a guard. Two doors should not be secured from the inside and allowed entry.

The main entry door to the server room is incorrect as it requires an identification, authentication, and authorization process to be performed. Swipe cards and cryptographic locks perform these functions. Server rooms should ideally not be directly accessible from public areas such as stairways, hallways, loading docks, elevators, and restrooms. This helps prevent foot traffic from casual passersby. Those who are by the door to the area to be secured should have a legitimate reason for being there, as opposed to those on the way to the meeting room, for example.

×：The main entry door must have controlled access via swipe card or crypto lock. Two doors must have security guards.  

Two doors should not have security guards, because it is wrong. The door should be protected from the inside simply so it cannot be used as an entry. Two-door must function as an emergency exit.

In an asymmetric algorithm, every user must have at least one key pair (private and public key). In a public key system, each entity has a separate key. The formula for determining the number of keys needed in this environment is by the number N × 2, where N is the number of people to distribute. In other words, 260 x 2 = 520. Therefore, the correct answer is 520.

〇：Vulnerability assessments can help prioritize weaknesses that need to be addressed.

The most important aspect of an internal or third-party vulnerability assessment is that it can enumerate all potential vulnerabilities a company has and prioritize corrective actions.

×：Third-party security audits are only required if regulations require it.

Even if some organizations do not require an independent review, it can often help find minor weaknesses that might have been overlooked.

×：Vulnerability assessments and penetration tests are essentially the same.

A vulnerability assessment is wrong because it enumerates all weaknesses and ensures that countermeasures are properly prioritized. Penetration testing aims to examine the likelihood that a real-world attacker will exploit a given weakness to achieve a goal.

×：Internal assessments are of little value.

Internal audits of enterprise security are usually not sufficient and can be very beneficial when conducted in conjunction with third-party reviews. However, it can often help find minor weaknesses that may have been overlooked.

Disasters are classified by cause into natural, human, and environmental categories. Natural disasters are natural, human errors are human, and facilities and equipment are environmental.

〇：CA signs certificates.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.

×：RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.

Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.

×：RA signs certificates.

The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.

×：The user signs the certificate.

Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.

〇：Business Case

The most important part of establishing and maintaining a current continuity plan is management support. Management may need to be convinced of the need for such a plan. Therefore, a business case is needed to obtain this support. The business case should include current vulnerabilities, legal obligations, current status of the recovery plan, and recommendations. Management is generally most interested in cost-benefit issues, so preliminary figures can be gathered and potential losses estimated. Decisions about how a company should recover are business decisions and should always be treated as such.

×：Business Impact Analysis

Incorrect because the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) was conducted after the BCP team gained management’s support for its efforts. A BIA is conducted to identify areas of greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. It identifies the company’s critical systems required for survival and estimates the amount of downtime the company can tolerate as a result of a disaster or disruption.

×：Risk Analysis

Incorrect, as this is a method of identifying risks and assessing the potential damage that could be caused to justify security protection measures. In the context of BCP, risk analysis methods should be used in a BIA to identify which processes, devices, or operations are critical and should be recovered first.

×：Threat reports

The answer is wrong because it is unintended. However, it is important for management to understand what the actual threats are to the enterprise, the consequences of those threats, and the potential loss value for each threat. Without this understanding, management pays lip service to continuity planning and in some cases may be worse than if it did not plan because of the false awareness of security it creates.

〇：Make the mail relay server available to everyone.

This is a question of choosing the “ineffective” one. An open mail relay server is not an effective countermeasure against spam. In fact, spammers often use spammers to distribute spam, because the attackers can hide their identities. An open mail relay server is an SMTP server configured to allow inbound SMTP connections from anyone on the Internet, and many relays are properly configured to prevent attackers from distributing spam and pornography. Thus, the correct answer is “have an email relay server available to everyone.” will be.

×：Build a properly configured mail relay server.

A properly configured mail relay server can also suppress spam mail.

×：Perform filtering at the e-mail gateway.

Filtering emails that are considered spam mail at the gateway will help to prevent spam mail.

×：Filtering at the client.

Filtering spam mail at the client, i.e., in a mailing application such as Outlook, is considered to be a countermeasure against spam mail.

〇：Trademarks

Intellectual property can be protected by several different laws, depending on the type of resource. Trademarks are used to protect words, names, symbols, sounds, shapes, colors, or combinations of these, such as logos. The reason a company registers one of these trademarks, or a combination of these trademarks, is to represent their company (brand identity) to the world. Therefore, the correct answer is “trademark”.

×：Patent

A patent is a monopoly right to use a technology for something that is very difficult to invent, such as a medicine.

×：Copyright

A copyright is a right to something that is not technical, such as music or a book, but something that is thought up and created.

×：Trade Secrets

Trade secrets are information that is useful and confidential as a business activity, such as customer information, product technology and manufacturing methods.

〇：Cessation of activities that pose a risk.

This question is about choosing what is not included. Discontinuing an activity that introduces risk is a way to address risk through avoidance. For example, there are many risks surrounding the use of instant messaging (IM) within a company. If a company decides not to allow the use of IM because there is no business need to do so, banning this service is an example of risk avoidance. The risk assessment does not include the implementation of such measures. Therefore, the correct answer is “discontinue the activity that poses a risk”.

×：Asset Identification

This is incorrect because identifying the asset is part of the risk assessment and is required to identify what is not included in the risk assessment. To determine the value of an asset, the asset must first be identified. Identifying and valuing assets is another important task of risk management.

×：Threat Identification

This is incorrect because identifying threats is part of risk assessment and requires identifying what is not included in the risk assessment. A risk exists because a threat could exploit a vulnerability. If there are no threats, there are no risks. Risk links vulnerabilities, threats, and the resulting potential for exploitation to the business.

×：Risk analysis in order of cost

Analyzing risks in order of cost or criticality is part of the risk assessment process and is inappropriate because questions are asked to identify what is not included in the risk assessment. A risk assessment examines and quantifies the risks a company faces. Risks must be addressed in a cost-effective manner. Knowing the severity of the risk allows the organization to determine how to effectively address it.

〇：Security

Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) refers to a transmission technology that delivers voice communications over an IP network; IP telephony uses technology that is similar to TCP/IP and therefore similar in its vulnerabilities. Voice systems are vulnerable to application manipulation and unauthorized administrative access. It is also vulnerable to denial of service attacks against gateway and network resources. Eavesdropping is also a concern since data traffic is transmitted in clear text unless encrypted.

The term security is a difficult answer to choose from because it has a very broad meaning. However, information security scriptures such as CISSP are persistent in saying that VoIP has vulnerabilities. Although this answer is a bit over the top in practical terms, it was made to educate the public, because depending on the creator’s intentions, this issue may arise.

×：Cost

Wrong, because cost is an advantage of VoIP; with VoIP’s, a company becomes a dedicated alternative to a separate network dedicated to data transmission and voice transmission. For telephony features such as conference calling, call forwarding, and automatic redialing are freed up in VoIP, which is open source, while companies that use traditional communications charge for VoIP.

×：Convergence

Wrong because convergence is the advantage of VoIP. Convergence means the integration of traditional IP networks with traditional analog telephone networks.

×：Flexibility

Wrong, because flexibility is an advantage of VoIP. The technology is very simple, easy and supports multiple calls over a single Internet broadband connection.

〇：Increased Processing Power

The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.

×：Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming

This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.

×：Dual-mode computation

The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.

×：Direct Memory Access I/O

Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.

〇：Striping

RAID redundant arrays is a technology used for redundancy and performance. It combines multiple physical disks and aggregates them into a logical array; RAID appears as a single drive to applications and other devices. With striping, data is written to all drives. With this activity, data is split and written to multiple drives. Since multiple heads are reading and writing data at the same time, write and read performance is greatly improved.

×：Parity

Parity is used to reconstruct corrupted data.

×：Mirroring

Writing data to two drives at once is called mirroring.

×：Hot Swap

Hot swap refers to a type of disk found on most RAID systems. A RAID system with hot-swap disks allows the drives to be swapped out while the system is running. When a drive is swapped out or added, parity data is used to rebuild the data on the new disk that was just added.

〇：Interface test is intended to verify correct operation in the correct state. Misuse case testing is intended to verify that problems occur in error conditions.

All applications must undergo interface testing to ensure proper function and use. They should undergo misuse case testing to determine if their intentional misuse could cause errors that would harm the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data to which the application provides access.

×：Interface test is intended to determine if a problem occurs in an error condition. Misuse case testing is intended to verify correct operation in the correct state.

While it may be possible to find incorrect behavior based on the assumption that the correct behavior occurs, the sentence is backwards in terms of the purpose of the test as well.

×：Interface testing is intended to check for proper usability. Misuse case testing monitors when errors occur.

Interfaces are not limited to usability. It is also a test for the API for server-to-server communication.

×：Interface testing and misuse case testing are essentially the same.

Essentially, the purpose of the test and the creation of an environment to achieve that purpose are different.

Within the U.S. military complex and national security apparatus, the most common names for data classification become unclassified and classified. “Classified” information includes classified, critical secret, and top secret (Top Secret). Classified data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could harm national security. Top Secret data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could cause “serious” harm to national security. Finally, Top Secret data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could cause “serious” harm to national security.

〇：Security Management Committee

Steve serves on the Security Steering Committee, which is responsible for making decisions on tactical and strategic security issues within the company. The committee consists of individuals from across the organization and should meet at least quarterly. In addition to the responsibilities outlined in this question, the Security Steering Committee is responsible for establishing a clearly defined vision statement that supports it in cooperation with the organizational intent of the business. It should provide support for the goals of confidentiality, integrity, and availability as they relate to the business goals of the organization. This vision statement should be supported by a mission statement that provides support and definition to the processes that apply to the organization and enable it to reach its business goals.

Each organization may call it by a different name, or they may be entrusted with a series of definition-to-approval processes for security. In this case, the term “operations” is the closest that comes to mind.

×：Security Policy Committee

This is incorrect because senior management is the committee that develops the security policy. Usually, senior management has this responsibility unless they delegate it to an officer or committee. The security policy determines the role that security plays within the organization. It can be organizational, issue specific, or system specific. The Governing Board does not directly create the policy, but reviews and approves it if acceptable.

×：Audit Committee

Incorrect because it provides independent and open communication between the Board of Directors, management, internal auditors, and external auditors. Its responsibilities include the system of internal controls, the engagement and performance of the independent auditors, and the performance of the internal audit function. The Audit Committee reports its findings to the Governing Board, but does not fail to oversee and approve the security program.

×：Risk Management Committee

Incorrect as it is to understand the risks facing the organization and work with senior management to bring the risks down to acceptable levels. This committee does not oversee the security program. The Security Steering Committee typically reports its findings to the Risk Management Committee on information security. The risk management committee should consider the entire business risk, not just the IT security risk.

The Health Insurance Interoperability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) has three rules: the Privacy Rule, the Security Rule, and the Breach Notification Rule. The rules mandate administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.

〇：To make information physically unrecoverable by any special effort.

Purging is the removal of sensitive data from disk. Software deletion of files on disk does not actually erase the data, only disconnects it from the location of the on-disk data. This means that if the data on the disk containing sensitive information cannot be completely erased, physical destruction is also necessary.

×：To change the polarization of atoms on a medium.

This is not a description of purging.

×：Do not authorize the reuse of media in the same physical environment for the same purpose.

While such an approval process may exist in practice, it is not a description of purging as data deletion.

×：To make data on media unrecoverable by overwriting it.

Simply overwriting media with new information does not eliminate the possibility of recovering previously written information.

Therefore, it does not fit the description of purging.

〇：Creating Data Collection Techniques

Of the steps listed, the first step in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to create a data collection technique. The BCP committee will use questionnaires, surveys, and interviews to collect key person information on how different tasks are accomplished within the organization, along with any relevant dependencies of processes, transactions, or services. Process flow diagrams should be created from this data and used throughout the BIA and planning and development phases.

×：Risk calculations for each different business function

This is incorrect because the risk for each business function is calculated after the business function has been identified. And before that happens, the BCP team needs to collect data from key personnel. To calculate the risk for each business function, qualitative and quantitative impact information must be collected, properly analyzed, and interpreted. Once the data analysis is complete, it should be reviewed with the most knowledgeable people in the company to ensure that the results are relevant and to explain the actual risks and impacts facing the organization. This will flush out any additional data points that were not captured initially and allow for a full understanding of all possible business impacts.

×：Identifying Critical Business Functions

Image B is incorrect because the identification of critical business functions is done after the BCP committee has learned about the business functions that exist by interviewing and surveying key individuals. Once the data collection phase is complete, the BCP committee conducts an analysis to determine which processes, devices, or business activities are critical. If a system stands on its own, does not affect other systems, and is less critical, it can be classified as a Tier 2 or Tier 3 recovery step. In other words, these resources are not processed in the recovery phase until the most critical (Tier 1) resources are up and running.

×：Vulnerability and Threat Identification to Business Functions

This is not the first step and is incorrect because it identifies vulnerabilities and threats to business functions toward the end of the business impact analysis. It is the last of the steps listed in the answer. Threats can be man-made, natural, or technical. It is important to identify all possible threats and estimate their likelihood of occurring. When developing these plans, some issues may not be immediately apparent. These issues are best addressed by groups conducting scenario-based exercises. This ensures that when the threat becomes reality, the plan will have an impact on all business tasks, departments, and critical operations. The more issues that are planned for, the better prepared you will be should these events occur.

Freeware is free software and can be used for free. Shareware is fully functional proprietary software that is initially free to use. Often a trial to test the software requires a fee to continue using it after 30 days. Thus, the correct answer is, “Freeware is free in perpetuity, while shareware is free for a set period of time.” will be.

〇：RAID Level 3

RAID redundant arrays provide fault tolerance capability for hard drives and can improve system performance. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve requested information. At this time, recovery data is also created. This is called parity; if one disk fails, the parity data can be used to reconstruct the corrupted or lost information. Different levels of RAID systems experience different activities that provide fault tolerance or improved performance. RAID level 3 is a method that uses byte-level striping and dedicated parity disks.

×：RAID Level 0

Wrong because only striping occurs at level 0.

×：RAID Level 5

RAID 5 is incorrect because it uses block-level striping and interleaved parity on all disks.

×：RAID Level 10

Level 10 is incorrect because it is associated with striping and mirroring.

〇：Encryption and decryption are more efficient.

Elliptic curves are rich mathematical structures that have shown usefulness in many different types of applications. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) differs from other asymmetric algorithms because of its efficiency; ECC is efficient because it is computationally less expensive than other asymmetric algorithms. In most cases, the longer the key, the more bloated the computation to secure it, but ECC can provide the same level of protection with a shorter key size than RSA requires.

×：Provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption.

ECC is wrong because it is not the only asymmetric algorithm that provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption provided by other asymmetric algorithms such as RSA.

×：Calculated in finite discrete logarithms.

Wrong because Diffie-Hellman and El-Gamal compute with finite discrete logarithms.

×：Uses a large percentage of resources to perform the encryption.

Incorrect because ECC when compared to other asymmetric algorithms uses much less resources. Some devices, such as wireless devices and cell phones, have limited processing power, storage, power, and bandwidth. Resource utilization efficiency is very important for the encryption methods used in this type.

〇：Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED)

Crime Prevention by Environmental Design (CPTED) is a method by which crime can be reduced through proper design of the physical environment. It provides guidance on appropriate facility construction and environmental elements and crime prevention. It is used to guide the physical environment to behavioral effects that reduce crime.

×：Multi-layered defense model  

The multi-layered defense model is incorrect because it is a hierarchical architecture of physical, logical, and administrative security controls. The concept is that if one layer fails, the asset is protected by other layers. Layers should be moved from the perimeter toward the asset and implemented.

×：Hiding by Ambiguity

Concealment by ambiguity is a technique of concealment secured by concealment of information and is incorrect. Basically, it is better not to consider something to be a true secret if it is logically reachable, even if it is not public.

×：Access Control

Access control is incorrect because it is guidance by the placement of doors, fences, lighting, and landscaping as people enter. It is an abstract concept and would not fit into a concrete definition that combines sociology.

〇：Known Plaintext Attacks

A known-plaintext attack is a situation in which a decryptor can obtain plaintext indiscriminately. A ciphertext-alone attack is a situation where a decryptor can acquire ciphertext indiscriminately. A known-plaintext attack acquires the plaintext but does not know what ciphertext it is paired with, meaning that decryption is attempted with only two random ciphertexts. In this situation, it is difficult to decrypt. Therefore, the correct answer is “known-plaintext attack.

×：Selective Plaintext Attack

A choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose the plaintext to acquire and obtain the ciphertext.

×：Adaptive Choice Plaintext Attack

An adaptive choice-plaintext attack is a situation in which the decryptor can freely choose which plaintext to acquire and acquire the ciphertext, and can repeat the acquisition again after seeing the result.

×：None of the above

It is rare for the answer to be “none of the above” when the choice is “most of the above.

〇：One-time pad

Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.

×：AES

AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.

×：Block ciphers

Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.

×：RSA

RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.

〇：Digital Signature

A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of signing means encrypting a hash value of a message with a private key. A message can be digitally signed, providing authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The hash function guarantees the integrity of the message, and the signature of the hash value provides authentication and non-repudiation.

×：Encryption Algorithms

Encryption algorithms are wrong because they provide confidentiality. Encryption is most commonly performed using symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity as well as confidentiality.

×：Hash Algorithms

Hash algorithms are wrong because they provide data integrity. Hash algorithms generate a message digest, which detects whether modifications have been made (also called a hash value). The sender and receiver individually generate their own digests, and the receiver compares these values. If they differ, the receiver can know the message has been modified. Hash algorithms cannot provide authentication or non-repudiation.

×：Encryption paired with digital signatures

This is incorrect because encryption and digital signatures provide confidentiality, authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. Encryption alone provides confidentiality. And digital signatures provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The question requires that it can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. It is a nasty question.

〇：Graham-Denning Model

The Graham-Denning model addresses how access rights between subjects and objects are defined, developed, and integrated. It defines a basic set of rights in terms of the commands that a particular subject can execute on an object. The model has eight basic protective rights or rules on how to safely perform these types of functions

×：Brewer-Nash Model

It is incorrect because its purpose is to provide access control that can be changed dynamically according to the user’s previous actions. The main purpose is to protect against conflicts of interest due to user access attempts. For example, if a large marketing firm provides marketing promotions and materials for two banks, the employee responsible for the Bank A project should not be able to see information about Bank B, the marketing firm’s other bank customer. A conflict of interest could arise because the banks are competitors. If the project manager of the marketing firm’s Project A can see information about Bank B’s new marketing campaign, he may attempt to execute it rather than promote it to please more direct customers. Marketing firms have a bad reputation when internal employees can act irresponsibly.

×：Clark-Wilson Model

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it is implemented to protect data integrity and ensure that transactions are properly formatted within the application. Subjects can only access objects through authorized programs. Segregation of duties is enforced. Auditing is required. The Clark-Wilson model addresses three integrity goals: preventing changes by unauthorized users, preventing inappropriate changes by unauthorized users, and maintaining internal and external consistency.

×：Bell-LaPadula Model

This model was developed to address concerns about the security of U.S. military systems and the leakage of classified information, and is incorrect. The primary goal of the model is to prevent unauthorized access to classified information. It is a state machine model that enforces the confidentiality aspect of access control. Matrices and security levels are used to determine if a subject has access to different objects. Specific rules are applied to control how objects interact with each other compared to the subject’s object classification.

〇：Lock out the account for a certain period of time after reaching the clipping level.

Brute force attack is an attack that continuously tries different inputs to achieve a predefined goal that can then be used to qualify for unauthorized access. A brute force attack to discover the password means that the intruder is trying all possible sequences of characters to reveal the correct password. This proves to be a good countermeasure if the account will be disabled (or locked out) after this type of attack attempt is made.

×：Increase the clipping level.

Clipping levels are wrong because they need to be implemented to establish a baseline of user activity and acceptable error. Entities attempting to log into an account after the clipping level is met should be locked out. A high clipping level gives the attacker more attempts during a warning or lockout. Lowering the clipping level is a good countermeasure.

×：After the threshold for failed login attempts is met, the administrator should physically lock out the account.

This is incorrect because it is impractical to have an administrator physically lock out an account. This type of activity can easily be taken care of through automated software mechanisms. Accounts should be automatically locked out for a certain amount of time after a threshold of failed login attempts is met.

×：Encrypt password files and choose a weaker algorithm.

Encrypting passwords and/or password files and using a weaker algorithm is incorrect as it increases the likelihood of a successful brute force attack.

Disaster Recovery Planning includes the Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery life cycles.

• Mitigation: Reduces the impact and likelihood of a disaster.
• Prepare: Create programs, procedures, and tools for response.
• Response: follow procedures and how to respond to a disaster.
• Recovery: re-establish basic functionality and return to a full production environment.

〇：Declare the impact and consequences of the disaster.

The final step in the damage assessment is to declare the disaster. After the information from the damage assessment has been collected and evaluated, determine if the BCP actually needs to be activated. The BCP coordinator and team should determine the activation criteria before the disaster occurs.

×：Determine the cause of the disaster.

Determining the cause of the disaster is incorrect as it is the first step in the damage assessment process.

×：Identify resources that need to be replaced immediately.

Incorrect because identifying resources that need to be replaced immediately is not the last step in damage assessment.

×：Determine how long it will take to bring critical functions back online.

Incorrect because determining how long it will take to bring critical functions back online is the second-to-last step in damage assessment.

War Dialing is the indiscriminate and repeated act of cracking dial-ups in search of dial-up lines, such as those for non-public internal networks. It automatically scans a list of telephone numbers, usually dialing all numbers in the local area code, and searches modems, computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.

Greenfield is undeveloped land that has not yet been built upon. The perspectives for selecting a site as a data center site include topography, utilities, and public safety.

• Topography refers to the physical shape of the landscape-hills, valleys, trees, streams.
• Utility refers to the degree to which power and internet in the area are reliable.
• Public safety is in terms of how high is the crime rate in the area and how close is the police force.

〇：Considering an architecture that can handle health information.

Carol is a systems engineer and is expected to explore systemic realities. It is likely that she is deviating from her role to preemptively explain why it cannot be done systemically, to modify approvals other than the system configuration, or to initiate legal work. The correct answer, therefore, is, “Think about an architecture that can handle health information.” The correct answer would be

×：To address the dangers of handling health information in the system.

The basic stance of a system engineer is to obtain feasibility as a system. Although it is necessary to supplement the danger to the proposed idea, appealing the danger should not be the main purpose.

×：Obtaining permission to entrust health information from a medical institution.

A contract should be signed and the legal scope of responsibility should be clarified. This is outside the scope of the system engineer’s scope.

×：To prepare a written consent to use for handling health information.

It is necessary to obtain consent for end users before using the service, and the scope of legal responsibility needs to be clarified. This is outside the scope object of the system engineer’s scope.

Type 1 authentication treats what you know as credentials. This is accomplished through passwords, passphrases, PINs, etc., and is also referred to as the knowledge factor.

〇：Differential Backup

Backups can be taken in full, differential, or incremental. Most files are not changed daily to save very much time and resources, and it is better to develop a backup plan that does not back up for data that is not continually changing. In backup software, when a file is modified or created, the file system sets the archive bit and the backup software determines if that file should be backed up. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup.

×：Incremental Backup

An incremental backup backs up all data that has changed since the last backup.

×：Full Backup

A full backup backs up the entire database or the entire system.

×：Partial Backup

Not in the backup category.

〇：Intercept anti-malware calls to the operating system for file system information.

This is a “no” question. Polymorphic viruses attempt to fool anti-malware scanners. In particular, they use methods to generate operational copies. Even if the anti-malware software detects and disables one or two copies, the other copies remain active in the system.

This problem must be solved by process of elimination. What definitions are polymorphic viruses? If you remember the word list “what is a polymorphic virus,” you may not understand what makes a polymorphic virus unique. The most striking feature of polymorphic viruses is that they repeatedly change entities.

×：Using noise, mutation engines, or random number generators to change the sequence of instructions.

Polymorphic-type viruses may change the sequence of instructions by including noise or false instructions along with other useful instructions. They can also use mutation engines and random number generators to alter the sequence of instructions in the hope that they will not be detected. The original functionality remains intact, but the code is altered, making it nearly impossible to identify all versions of the virus using a fixed signature.

×：Different encryption schemes that require different decryption routines can be used.

Polymorphic-type viruses can use different encryption schemes that require different decryption routines. This requires an anti-malware scan to identify all copies of this type of virus, one for each possible decryption method. Polymorphic virus creators hide the encrypted virus payload and add decryption methods to the code. Once encrypted, the code becomes meaningless, but that does not necessarily mean that the encrypted virus is a polymorphic virus and thus escapes detection.

×：Create multiple and various copies.

Polymorphic viruses generate multiple, varied copies in order to avoid detection by anti-malware software.

〇：Review labeling and treat as critical confidential information.

Labeling is the process of sorting data according to its level of confidentiality. Labeling helps clarify the confidentiality level of data management. If the labeling is incorrect, it should be corrected at any time to manage the data in accordance with the confidentiality level. Therefore, “Review the labeling and treat it as critical confidential information.” is the correct answer.

×：The entire sentence should be treated as confidential information because the business should be flexible.

This is not an appropriate operation because the text containing critical confidential information is treated as confidential information.

×：As supplemental information to the document, state that “a part of the text contains material confidential information.

This is not a fundamental solution because stating this as supplementary information is in effect treating the information as different confidential levels.

×：Destroy the document because it is impossible for different confidential information to be crossed.

Destroying the document is not an appropriate operation because it is a damage to one’s own assets.

Translated with www.DeepL.com/Translator (free version)

〇：XACML

XACML allows two or more companies to have a trust model set up to share identity, authentication, and authorization methods. This means that when you authenticate against your own software, you can pass the authentication parameters to your partner. This allows them to interact with their partner’s software without having to authenticate more than once. This is done via XACML (Extensible Access Control Markup Language), which allows multiple organizations to share application security policies based on a trust model XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML. It declares access control policies and describes how to interpret access control policies.

×：XML (Extensible Markup Language)

XML (Extensible Markup Language) is incorrect because it is a way to electronically code documents and represent data structures such as web services. XML is not used to share security information. XML is an open standard that is more robust than traditional HTML. In addition to serving as a markup language, XML also serves as the foundation for other industry-specific XML standards. With XML, companies can communicate with each other while using a markup language that meets their specific needs.

×：SPML

Service Provisioning Markup Language (SPML) is incorrect because it is used by companies to exchange user, resource, and service provisioning information rather than application security information. SPML is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS that allows enterprise platforms, such as web portals and application servers, to provision requests to multiple companies for the purpose of securely and quickly setting up web services and applications. It is intended to enable the generation of.

×：GML

Incorrect because GML (Generalized Markup Language) is a method created by IBM for document formatting. It describes a document in terms of parts (chapters, paragraphs, lists, etc.) and their relationships (heading levels). GML was the predecessor of SGML (Standard Generalized Markup Language) and HTML (Hypertext Markup Language).

〇：Tell your business partner that your company is not ready

Planned business continuity procedures can provide an organization with many benefits. In addition to the other response options listed previously, organizations can provide a quick and appropriate response to an emergency, mitigate the impact on their business, and work with outside vendors during the recovery period. Efforts in these areas should communicate to business partners that they are prepared in the event of a disaster.

×：Resuming Critical Business Functions

This is incorrect because a business continuity plan allows an organization to resume critical business functions. As part of the BCP development, the BCP team conducts a business impact analysis that includes identifying the maximum allowable downtime for critical resources. This effort helps the team prioritize recovery efforts so that the most critical resources can be recovered first.

×：Protecting Lives and Ensuring Safety

Business continuity planning allows organizations to protect lives and ensure safety, which is wrong. People are a company’s most valuable asset. Therefore, human resources are an integral part of the recovery and continuity process and must be fully considered and integrated into the plan. Once this is done, a business continuity plan will help a company protect its employees.

×：Ensure business viability

This is a fallacy because a well-planned business continuity plan can help a company ensure the viability of its business. A business continuity plan provides methods and procedures for dealing with long-term outages and disasters. It involves moving critical systems to another environment while the original facility is being restored and conducting business operations in a different mode until normal operations return. In essence, business continuity planning addresses how business is conducted after an emergency.

〇：Password authentication and secret questions

Passwords are a memory-based authentication method. The secret question is also a memory-based authentication method, and is not a combination of two-factor authentication methods. Therefore, the correct answer is “password authentication and secret question.

×：Password authentication and fingerprint authentication

It is memory authentication information x body authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

×：Password authentication and one-time password authentication using a token machine.

This is memory authentication information x possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

×：Password authentication and IC card authentication

This is memory authentication information × possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

〇：Representatives from each department meet and undergo validation.

Structured walk-through testing allows functional personnel to review the plan as it is fulfilled to ensure its accuracy and validity.

×：Ensures that some systems will run at alternate sites.

This is incorrect because it describes parallel testing.

×：Send a copy of the disaster recovery plan to all departments to verify its completeness.

This is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

×：Take down the normal operation system.

This is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

〇：IGRP

The Internal Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) is a distance vector routing protocol developed by and proprietary to Cisco Systems, Inc. Whereas the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) uses one criterion to find the optimal path between source and destination, IGRP uses five criteria to make an “optimal route” determination. The network administrator can set weights on these different metrics so that the protocol works optimally in its particular environment.

×：RIP  

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is incorrect because it is not proprietary; RIP allows routers to exchange routing table data and calculate the shortest distance between source and destination. It is considered a legacy protocol due to poor performance and lack of features. It should be used in smaller networks.

×：BGP

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is incorrect because it is an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP); BGP allows routers in different ASes to share routing information to ensure effective and efficient routing between different networks. BGP is used by Internet Service Providers.

×：OSPF  

OSPF is incorrect because it is not proprietary; it uses a link-state algorithm to transmit information in the OSPF routing table. Smaller and more frequent routing table updates.

〇：Promptly deactivate the use of employee-only accounts.

Provisioning is the process of adding accounts for use in the system. Conversely, de-provisioning is the removal of an account. An employee’s account should be deactivated at the time the employee leaves the organization. Giving a former employee access to the organization’s resources is an information leak. Therefore, the correct answer is “promptly deactivate the employee’s dedicated account.” will be

×：Retrieve the employee’s loaner computer.

This is not provisioning, but should be done at the time the employee leaves the company.

×：Signing an NDA.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA, Non-Disclosure Agreement) is an agreement that prohibits the disclosure to others of trade secrets, etc. of the other party learned in the course of business. It is not provisioning.

×：Securing the personal contact information of employees.

A normal company would not attempt to collect such private information upon separation from employment. It is not provisioning.

Student numbers, which are left to the control of each school, cannot be considered privacy information because they are not sufficient information to identify an individual.

〇：Password synchronization between different systems

Password synchronization is designed to reduce the complexity of maintaining different passwords for different systems. Password synchronization technology allows a single password to be maintained across multiple systems by transparently synchronizing passwords to other systems in real time. This reduces help desk call volume. However, one of the disadvantages of this approach is that only one password is used to access different resources. This means that a hacker only needs to figure out one set of credentials to gain unauthorized access to all resources. Therefore, the correct answer is “password synchronization between different systems”.

×：Password reset by administrator query

This does not reduce the amount of help desk support because the end user must contact the administrator.

×：End-user manual password reset by self-service

This is the so-called “self-service” password reset, in which end users change their passwords themselves from their profile pages.

This is the most practical way to reduce the amount of helpdesk support, but it does not meet the requirement of easy access to multiple resources in case of a password compromise.

×：Password reset by inquiry

This does not reduce the amount of helpdesk support because it requires the end user to contact the administrator. An inquiry is an inquiry whether or not an administrator is attached.

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

〇：How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

×：Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

×：Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

×：A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

〇：Reviewing and evaluating against security documentation.

Provisioning refers to the management of account information. Reviewing documents is not part of provisioning. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Review and evaluate security documentation.” The answer will be

×：When an employee leaves the company, the account should be deactivated as soon as possible.

This is proper provisioning for users and account usage that belong to the organization.

×：Periodic review and adherence to the principle of least privilege.

This is appropriate provisioning for account access privileges.

×：Appropriate deletion of accounts that are no longer needed.

This is appropriate provisioning for the management of minimum account information.

Gates and fences are used as physical deterrents and preventative measures. Fences as small as 3 feet can be a deterrent, but as tall as 8 feet can be a deterrent and prevention mechanism. The purpose of the fence is to limit the routes in and out of the facility so that they occur only through doors, gates, and turnstiles.

〇：Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.

For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.

×：Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.

That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.

×：Much faster operation than asymmetric systems

Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.

×：Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed

Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.

〇：A process that is running concurrently. If not properly controlled, the integrity of the database can be adversely affected.

Databases are used simultaneously by many different applications and many users interact with them at once. Concurrency means that different processes (applications and users) are accessing the database at the same time. If this is not properly controlled, processes can overwrite each other’s data or cause deadlock situations. The worst consequence of concurrency problems is poor integrity of the data held in the database. Database integrity is provided by concurrency protection mechanisms; one concurrency control is locking, which prevents users from accessing or modifying data being used by other users.

×：Processes running at different levels. If not properly controlled, they can adversely affect the integrity of the database.

Concurrency is incorrect because it refers to processes running at the same time, not at different levels. Concurrency problems occur when the database can be accessed simultaneously by different users or applications. If controls are not in place, two users can access and modify the same data at the same time, which can be detrimental to a dynamic environment.

×：The process of inferring new information from a review of accessible data. Inference attacks may occur.

The ability to infer new information from reviewing accessible data occurs when subjects at lower security levels indirectly infer data at higher levels. This can lead to an inference attack, but is not related to concurrency.

×：Storing data in multiple locations in the database. If not properly controlled, it can negatively impact database integrity.

Storing data in multiple locations is incorrect because there is no concurrency issue. Concurrency becomes an issue when two subjects or applications are trying to modify the same data at the same time.

〇：Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities

This is a problem of selecting unrelated items. Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities is a confidentiality issue. Although it is complicatedly worded, the operations on the data are unauthorized and extraction, and none of them include the destruction of data, which is the primary focus of integrity. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities.

In solving this problem, it is not necessary to know what an entity is. The focus is on whether any modification or destruction has taken place.

×：Unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data

Mistake. Because integrity is associated with unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data. Integrity is maintained when unauthorized modification is prevented. Hardware, software, and communication mechanisms must work together to correctly maintain and process data and move data to its intended destination without unexpected changes. Systems and networks must be protected from outside interference and contamination.

×：Unauthorized data modification

Unauthorized data modification is a mistake as it relates to integrity. Integrity is about protecting data, not changing it by users or other systems without authorization.

×：Intentional or accidental data substitution

Incorrect because intentional or accidental data substitution is associated with integrity. Integrity is maintained when assurances of the accuracy and reliability of information and systems are provided along with assurances that data will not be tampered with by unauthorized entities. An environment that enforces integrity prevents attacks, for example, the insertion of viruses, logic bombs, or backdoors into the system that could corrupt or replace data. Users typically incorrectly affect the integrity of the system and its data (internal users may also perform malicious acts). For example, a user may insert incorrect values into a data processing application and charge a customer $3,000 instead of $300.

Penetration testing is an attempt to penetrate a system connected to a network. Penetration allows for any kind of manipulation and can bring the service itself to a halt. Therefore, the focus of testing is on penetration. The sequence is: planning, preliminary investigation, search for vulnerabilities, evaluation, attack, and reporting. Therefore, the correct answer is “report generation.

Ethernet is a way of communication used for local area networks; LANs and such communicate over Ethernet. In other words, most communication is now done over Ethernet.

〇：Restore the virus unpatched file version from the backup media.

The best practice is to install an unpatched, uninfected version of the file from the backup media. It is important to restore files that are known to be clean, as attempts to remove the files may corrupt them. The most important thing is not to spread the impact, but attempting to unilaterally delete files may make them unavailable for later investigation.

×：Replace the file with the file saved the previous day.

The file saved the previous day may also contain the virus.

×：Delete the file and contact the vendor.

This is an incorrect answer because the condition of this question is that if the file is deleted, the normal file content itself may be damaged.

×：Back up the data and delete the file.

This is an incorrect answer because backing up the data that contains the virus and deleting the file does not result in a clean situation.

〇：A review by another coder after the coder has completed coding.

A static code review is a review performed by another engineer to mitigate points that were not apparent to the author. Thus, the correct answer is “Reviewed by another coder after the coder’s coding is complete.” will be.

×：To allow coders to see each other’s coding and work in parallel.

Extreme programming (XP, extreme programming) is a flexible method of developing a program while discussing it in pairs. It is not code review.

×：Ensuring that proper transaction processing is applied before check-in.

This is a statement about database commitment.

×：Ensuring that the appropriate questions and answers exist.

The presence of appropriate question and answer may be part of what is performed during the code review, but it is not a description of the code review itself.

The Kerckhoffs’s principle is the idea that cryptography should be secure even if everything but the private key is known. When encrypting data, one decides on a private key and how to encrypt it using that private key. Kerckhoffs says that even if it is known how it is encrypted, it should not be deciphered as long as the secret key is not discovered. Encryption has been with the history of human warfare. The main purpose is to communicate a strategy to one’s allies without being discovered by the enemy. In battle, its designs and encryption devices may be stolen by spies. Therefore, the encryption must be such that it cannot be solved without the key, no matter how much is known about how it works.

〇：ACL

Access Control List (ACL) A map value from the Access Control Matrix to an object; ACLs are used in several operating system, application, and router configurations. They are lists of items that are authorized to access a particular object and they define the level of authorization to be granted. Authorization can be specified to an individual or to a group. Therefore, ACLs are bound to an object and indicate which subjects can access it, and feature tables are bound to a subject and indicate which objects the subject can access.

×：Function table

The function table is a row in the access control matrix.

×：Constraint Interface

Constraint interfaces are wrong because they limit the user’s access ability by not allowing them to request certain functions or information or have access to certain system resources.

×：Role-based values

The role-based access control (RBAC) model, called non-discretionary access control, is wrong because it uses a centralized set of controls to determine how subjects and objects interact.

〇：TOC/TOU

Certain attacks can take advantage of the way a system processes requests and performs tasks. A TOC/TOU attack handles a series of steps that the system uses to complete a task. This type of attack takes advantage of the reliance on the timing of events occurring in a multitasking operating system; TOC/TOU is a software vulnerability that allows the use of condition checking (i.e., credential verification) and the results from that condition checking function. In the scenario in this question, the fact that the web application is likely correctly configured indicates that the programming code of this application has this type of vulnerability embedded in the code itself.

×：Buffer overflow

When too much data is accepted as input to a particular process, a buffer overflow occurs. This is incorrect because it does not match the event in the problem statement. A buffer is an allocated segment of memory. A buffer can overflow arbitrarily with too much data, but to be used by an attacker, the code inserted into the buffer must be of a specific length and require a command to be executed by the attacker. These types of attacks are usually exceptional in that the fault is segmented, or sensitive data is provided to the attacker.

×：Blind SQL Injection

Blind SQL injection attacks are wrong because they are a type of SQL injection attack that sends true or false questions to the database. In a basic SQL injection, the attacker sends specific instructions in SQL format to query the associated database. In a blind SQL attack, the attacker is limited to sending a series of true-false questions to the database in order to analyze the database responses and gather sensitive information.

×：Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is incorrect because it is an attack type that attempts to trick the victim into loading a web page containing malicious requests or operations. The attack operation is performed within the context of the victim’s access rights. The request inherits the victim’s identity and performs undesirable functions for the victim. In this type of attack, the attacker can cause the victim’s system to perform unintended actions such as changing account information, retrieving account data, or logging out. This type of attack could be related to the scenario described in this question, but focuses on how the user can bypass the locking mechanism built into the web application. The logic in the programming code is incorrectly developed and the locking function is bypassed because a rigorous series of checks and usage sequences are not performed correctly.

〇：Disk Redundancy

Information that is required to be available at all times must be mirrored or duplexed. In both mirroring (also called RAID 1) and duplexing, all data write operations are performed simultaneously or nearly simultaneously at multiple physical locations.

×：Direct Access Storage

Direct access storage is incorrect because it is a general term for magnetic disk storage devices traditionally used in mainframe and minicomputer (midrange computer) environments. RAID is a type of direct access storage device (DASD).

×：Striping

Incorrect because the technique of striping is used when data is written to all drives. This activity splits the data and writes it to multiple drives. Write performance is not affected, but read performance is greatly improved because multiple heads are getting data at the same time. Parity information is used to reconstruct lost or corrupted data. Striping simply means data; parity information may be written to multiple disks.

×：Parallel Processing

Parallel processing is incorrect because a computer has multiple processing units built into it to execute multiple streams of instructions simultaneously. While mirroring may be used to implement this type of processing, it is not a requirement.

〇：Extraction of data from the database

In data classification, the data classification is used to specify which users have access to read and write data stored in the database, but it does not involve the extraction of data from the database. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data from the database.

What is this? This is a question that you may think “What is this?” but you need to calmly analyze the classification of data and the manipulation of data. The more time you spend, the more tempted you are to give a difficult answer, but keeping calm is important in solving abstract problems.

×：Grouping hierarchically classified information

This is the primary activity of data classification.

×：Ensuring that non-confidential data is not unnecessarily protected

It is written in a complicated way, but it says that what does not need to be protected does not need the ability to be protected either.

×：Understanding the impact of data leakage

Although not directly, we may check the impact of a data breach in order to understand its importance in classifying data. Ka.

〇：Business Continuity Processes Integrate Change Management Processes

Unfortunately, business continuity plans can quickly become outdated. An outdated BCP can give a company a false sense of security, which can be fatal if a disaster actually occurs. One of the simplest, most cost-effective, and process-efficient ways to keep your plan current is to incorporate it into your organization’s change management process. Are new applications, equipment, and services documented? Are updates and patches documented? The change management process should be updated to incorporate fields and triggers that alert the BCP team when significant changes occur and provide a means to update recovery documentation. Ensure that the BCP is kept up-to-date, and other measures include maintaining personnel evaluations of the plan and conducting regular training on using the plan, such as making business continuity part of all business decisions.

×：Update hardware, software, and application changes

Wrong because hardware, software, and application changes occur frequently; unless the BCP is part of a change management process, these changes are not included in the BCP. The BCP should be updated when changes to the environment occur. If it is not updated after a change, it is out of date.

×：Infrastructure and Environment Change Updates

Incorrect because infrastructure and environment changes occur frequently. Unless the BCP is part of a change management process, as with software, hardware, and application changes, infrastructure and environment changes are unlikely to result in a transition to the BCP.

×：Personnel changes

Incorrect, as the plan may become obsolete. It is not uncommon for BCPs to be abandoned when the person or persons responsible for maintenance leave the company. These responsibilities must be reassigned. To ensure this, maintenance responsibilities must be built into job descriptions and properly monitored.