〇：Security

Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) refers to a transmission technology that delivers voice communications over an IP network; IP telephony uses technology that is similar to TCP/IP and therefore similar in its vulnerabilities. Voice systems are vulnerable to application manipulation and unauthorized administrative access. It is also vulnerable to denial of service attacks against gateway and network resources. Eavesdropping is also a concern since data traffic is transmitted in clear text unless encrypted.

The term security is a difficult answer to choose from because it has a very broad meaning. However, information security scriptures such as CISSP are persistent in saying that VoIP has vulnerabilities. Although this answer is a bit over the top in practical terms, it was made to educate the public, because depending on the creator’s intentions, this issue may arise.

×：Cost

Wrong, because cost is an advantage of VoIP; with VoIP’s, a company becomes a dedicated alternative to a separate network dedicated to data transmission and voice transmission. For telephony features such as conference calling, call forwarding, and automatic redialing are freed up in VoIP, which is open source, while companies that use traditional communications charge for VoIP.

×：Convergence

Wrong because convergence is the advantage of VoIP. Convergence means the integration of traditional IP networks with traditional analog telephone networks.

×：Flexibility

Wrong, because flexibility is an advantage of VoIP. The technology is very simple, easy and supports multiple calls over a single Internet broadband connection.

〇：To allow the database to execute transactions as a single unit without interruption.

Online transaction processing (OLTP) is used when databases are clustered to provide high fault tolerance and performance. It provides a mechanism to monitor and address problems as they occur. For example, if a process stops functioning, the monitoring function within OLTP will detect and attempt to restart the process. If the process cannot be restarted, the transaction that occurred is rolled back to ensure that no data has been corrupted or that only a portion of the transaction occurred; OLTP records when the transaction occurred (in real time). Usually multiple databases in a distributed environment are updated.

This classification by the extent to which transaction processing is appropriate is very complex. Therefore, database software must implement ACID characteristics. Among them is atomicity, which means that the transaction is either executed entirely or not executed at all. It is the property that a transaction must either be executed completely or not at all.

When a question like this is answered incorrectly, judging that you could not solve it because you did not know OLTP will hinder your future study methods. Although the question text is worded in a complicated way, it is more important to understand what atomicity is in ACID than to memorize the definition of OLTP to solve the actual question.

×：To be able to establish database consistency rules.

It enforces the consistency rules as stated in the database security policy, but does not imply transaction atomicity.

×：To prevent rollbacks from occurring.

Transaction atomicity does not refer to suppressing rollbacks.

×：To prevent concurrent processes from interacting with each other.

This falls under independence, isolation, and segregation. Independence, isolation, and quarantine (isolation) means that the processes are hidden from other operations during processing. It is the property that even if multiple transactions are executed simultaneously, they must not produce the same processing results as if they were executed alone.

〇：Tell your business partner that your company is not ready

Planned business continuity procedures can provide an organization with many benefits. In addition to the other response options listed previously, organizations can provide a quick and appropriate response to an emergency, mitigate the impact on their business, and work with outside vendors during the recovery period. Efforts in these areas should communicate to business partners that they are prepared in the event of a disaster.

×：Resuming Critical Business Functions

This is incorrect because a business continuity plan allows an organization to resume critical business functions. As part of the BCP development, the BCP team conducts a business impact analysis that includes identifying the maximum allowable downtime for critical resources. This effort helps the team prioritize recovery efforts so that the most critical resources can be recovered first.

×：Protecting Lives and Ensuring Safety

Business continuity planning allows organizations to protect lives and ensure safety, which is wrong. People are a company’s most valuable asset. Therefore, human resources are an integral part of the recovery and continuity process and must be fully considered and integrated into the plan. Once this is done, a business continuity plan will help a company protect its employees.

×：Ensure business viability

This is a fallacy because a well-planned business continuity plan can help a company ensure the viability of its business. A business continuity plan provides methods and procedures for dealing with long-term outages and disasters. It involves moving critical systems to another environment while the original facility is being restored and conducting business operations in a different mode until normal operations return. In essence, business continuity planning addresses how business is conducted after an emergency.

〇：Digital Signature

A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of signing means encrypting a hash value of a message with a private key. A message can be digitally signed, providing authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The hash function guarantees the integrity of the message, and the signature of the hash value provides authentication and non-repudiation.

×：Encryption Algorithms

Encryption algorithms are wrong because they provide confidentiality. Encryption is most commonly performed using symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity as well as confidentiality.

×：Hash Algorithms

Hash algorithms are wrong because they provide data integrity. Hash algorithms generate a message digest, which detects whether modifications have been made (also called a hash value). The sender and receiver individually generate their own digests, and the receiver compares these values. If they differ, the receiver can know the message has been modified. Hash algorithms cannot provide authentication or non-repudiation.

×：Encryption paired with digital signatures

This is incorrect because encryption and digital signatures provide confidentiality, authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. Encryption alone provides confidentiality. And digital signatures provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. The question requires that it can provide authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity. It is a nasty question.

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

〇：Conforms to the X.509 standard and assigns a namespace to each object accessed in the database by LDAP.

Most companies have directories that contain information about company network resources and users. Most directories use a hierarchical database format based on the X.500 standard (not X.509) and a type of protocol such as LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) that allows subjects and applications to interact with the directory The application can then use LDAP to access the directory. Applications can request information about a particular user by making an LDAP request to the directory, and users can request information about a particular resource using a similar request. The directory service assigns an Distinguished Name (DN) to each object in the database based on the X.500 standard to be accessed. Each distinguished name represents a set of attributes about a particular object and is stored as an entry in the directory.

×：Namespaces are used to manage objects in the directory.

This is incorrect because objects in a hierarchical database are managed by a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage identification, authentication, permissions, and access control for the network. Objects in the directory are labeled and identified by namespace, which is how the directory service keeps objects organized.

×：Enforce security policies by performing access control and identity management functions.

This is incorrect because directory services enforce the security policy set by performing access control and identity management functions. For example, when a user logs into a domain controller in a Windows environment, the directory service (Active Directory) determines which network resources are accessible and which are not.

×：Administrators can configure and manage how identification takes place within the network.

Directory service is incorrect because it allows the administrator to configure and manage identification within the network. It also allows for the configuration and management of authentication, authorization, and access control.

Service Organization Control (SOC) is a rule established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA) to assure the internal control of the party contracted to perform services. Sometimes, work is contracted out to other firms. In order to guarantee the quality of its own work, the company that is contracted to perform the work must also have appropriate controls in place. For this reason, we check the internal control of the outsourcing company to which the work is outsourced.

• SOC-1 (Internal Control over Financial Reporting (ICFR)) Audits the accounting of the trustee company.
  SOC-2 (Trust Services Criteria): Checks security and other controls other than accounting for the fiduciary company. Usually takes six months to complete.
  SOC-3 (Trust Services Criteria for General Use Report) Confirms security and other controls other than accounting for unspecified persons (users).

〇：OSI reference model

The OSI reference model is a seven-layer classification of network communication. The concepts of application communication and session are separated, which would be clearly communicated based on the OSI reference model. Therefore, the correct answer is “OSI reference model.

×：TCP/IP model

The TCP/IP model is a layer design that is closer to the concept of a system than the OSI reference model; in the TCP/IP model, the application layer, presentation layer, and session layer of the OSI reference model are represented by a single application layer.

×：Data link model

There is no such model.

×：Biba model

Biba model is one of the security models that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

〇：Encryption and decryption are more efficient.

Elliptic curves are rich mathematical structures that have shown usefulness in many different types of applications. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) differs from other asymmetric algorithms because of its efficiency; ECC is efficient because it is computationally less expensive than other asymmetric algorithms. In most cases, the longer the key, the more bloated the computation to secure it, but ECC can provide the same level of protection with a shorter key size than RSA requires.

×：Provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption.

ECC is wrong because it is not the only asymmetric algorithm that provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption provided by other asymmetric algorithms such as RSA.

×：Calculated in finite discrete logarithms.

Wrong because Diffie-Hellman and El-Gamal compute with finite discrete logarithms.

×：Uses a large percentage of resources to perform the encryption.

Incorrect because ECC when compared to other asymmetric algorithms uses much less resources. Some devices, such as wireless devices and cell phones, have limited processing power, storage, power, and bandwidth. Resource utilization efficiency is very important for the encryption methods used in this type.

〇：Identity Theft

Identity theft is a situation in which a person obtains important personal information, such as driver’s license numbers, bank account numbers, identification cards, or social security numbers, and uses that information to impersonate another person. Typically, identity thieves use personal information to obtain credit, goods, or services in the victim’s name. This can have consequences such as destroying the victim’s credit rating, creating a false criminal record, and issuing an arrest warrant to the wrong individual. Identity theft can be categorized in two ways: true name and account takeover. True name identity theft means that the thief uses your personal information to open a new account. The thief might open a new credit card account, establish cell phone service like Sam’s, or open a new checking account to obtain blank checks.

×：Phishing Scams

Incorrect because it is a type of social engineering attack intended to obtain personal information, letters of credit, credit card numbers, and financial data. Attackers use a variety of methods to entice users to divulge sensitive data. While the goal of phishing scams is to get victims to hand over their personal information, the goal of identity theft is to use that personal information for personal or financial gain. Attackers can use phishing attacks as a means of committing identity theft.

Since the specific technique is not described in the question text, it cannot be said to be a phishing scam.

×：Pharming

Incorrect, as this is a technical attack in which the victim is deceived into submitting personal information to the attacker via an unauthorized website.The victim types a web address such as “www.nicebank.com” into their browser. The victim’s system sends a request to the victimized DNS server that directs the victim to a website under the attacker’s control. The site looks like the requested Web site, and the user enters his or her personal information. The personal information can be used by the attacker for identity theft.

We cannot say that this is pharming because the specific technique is not described in the question text.

×：Account takeover

Account takeover identity theft is incorrect because it means using personal information to access a person’s existing account rather than opening a new account. Typically, the mailing address on the account is changed and a huge bill is filed before the person whose account was stolen is aware of the problem. The Internet has made it easier for identity thieves to use stolen information because they can conduct transactions without personal interaction.

War Dialing is the indiscriminate and repeated act of cracking dial-ups in search of dial-up lines, such as those for non-public internal networks. It automatically scans a list of telephone numbers, usually dialing all numbers in the local area code, and searches modems, computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.

〇：Council of Europe Convention on Cybercrime

The Council of Europe (CoE) Convention on Cybercrime is an example of an attempt to create a standard international response to cybercrime. It is the first international treaty to address computer crime by coordinating national laws and improving investigative techniques and international cooperation. The treaty’s objectives include creating a framework to bind the jurisdiction of the accused and the perpetrators of the crimes. For example, extradition is possible only if the case is a crime in both countries.

×：World Congress Council on Cybercrime

The World Congress Council on Cybercrime is misleading and therefore wrong. The official name of the Convention is the Council of Europe’s Convention on Cybercrime. It establishes comprehensive legislation against cybercrime and serves as a framework for international cooperation among the signatories to the Convention to guide all countries.

×：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

Image C is wrong because the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an international organization that brings together different governments to help address the economic, social, and governance challenges of a globalized economy. For this reason, the OECD has developed national guidelines to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone adheres to the same kinds of rules.

×：Organization for Cooperation and Development in Cybercrime

Organization for Cooperation and Development of Cybercrime is the wrong answer. There is no formal entity of this name.

〇：Entity integrity

Entity integrity ensures that a tuple is uniquely identified by its primary key value. A tuple is a row in a two-dimensional database. The primary key is the corresponding column value that makes each row unique. For entity integrity, every tuple must contain one primary key. If a tuple does not have a primary key, the tuple will not be referenced by the database.

×：Concurrent Maintainability

Concurrent integrity is not a formal term in database software and is therefore incorrect. There are three main types of integrity services: semantic, reference, and entity. Concurrency is software that is accessed by multiple users or applications simultaneously. Without controls in place, two users can access and modify the same data at the same time.

×：Referential Integrity

Referential integrity is incorrect because it references all foreign keys that refer to an existing primary key. There must be a mechanism to ensure that foreign keys do not contain references to non-existent records or null-valued primary keys. This type of integrity control allows relationships between different tables to work properly and communicate properly with each other.

×：Semantic Integrity

The semantic integrity mechanism is incorrect because it ensures that the structural and semantic rules of the database are in place. These rules concern data types, boolean values, uniqueness constraints, and operations that may adversely affect the structure of the database.

There are many different types of distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks; there is no IPSec flood; UDP flood, SYN flood, and MAC flood are all distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

〇：SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms.

Email spoofing is easy to perform if the SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms. An attacker can spoof the sender address of an e-mail by sending a Telnet command to port 25 of the mail server. The spammer uses e-mail spoofing to prevent himself from being identified.

×：The administrator forgot to configure a setting that prevents inbound SMTP connections for non-functioning domains.

If it is spoofed, the email sender is also spoofed. This can happen even if you prevent inbound SMTP connections for a domain.

×：Technically abolished by keyword filtering.

Filtering is not very effective against spoofing. Therefore, even if it is technically obsolete, it is unlikely to be the cause.

×：The blacklist function is not technically reliable.

If an email is spoofed, the sender of the email is also spoofed. This can happen even if the filtering function is not reliable.

Deleting a file is physically recoverable. Shredding, demagnetizing, and overwriting are all methods that render the file physically unrecoverable.

Cryptographic algorithms refer to the calculations to be encrypted, and even if the cryptographic algorithms were publicly available, it would take an enormous amount of effort to decipher them. cryptographic algorithms that provide modern cryptography, such as AES, are publicly available. On the other hand, in-house development is not recommended because, although it has the security of concealment, it requires a great deal of resources to be allocated.

〇：The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

×：Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

×：Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

×：A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

Ethernet is a way of communication used for local area networks; LANs and such communicate over Ethernet. In other words, most communication is now done over Ethernet.

〇：Trademarks

Intellectual property can be protected by several different laws, depending on the type of resource. Trademarks are used to protect words, names, symbols, sounds, shapes, colors, or combinations of these, such as logos. The reason a company registers one of these trademarks, or a combination of these trademarks, is to represent their company (brand identity) to the world. Therefore, the correct answer is “trademark”.

×：Patent

A patent is a monopoly right to use a technology for something that is very difficult to invent, such as a medicine.

×：Copyright

A copyright is a right to something that is not technical, such as music or a book, but something that is thought up and created.

×：Trade Secrets

Trade secrets are information that is useful and confidential as a business activity, such as customer information, product technology and manufacturing methods.

The data link layer or Layer 2 of the OSI model adds a header and trailer to the packet to prepare the packet in binary format in local area network or wide area network technology for proper line transmission. Layer 2 is divided into two functional sublayers. The upper sublayer is logical link control (LLC), which is defined in the IEEE 802.2 specification. It communicates with the network layer above the data link layer. Below the LLC is the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer, which specifies interfaces with the protocol requirements of the physical layer.

〇：Well-Formed Transaction

In the Clark-Wilson model, subjects cannot access objects without going through some type of application or program that controls how this access is done. The subject (usually the user) can access the required object based on access rules within the application software, defined as “Well-Formed Transaction,” in conjunction with the application.

×：Childwall model

This is incorrect because it is another name for the Brewer Nash model created to provide access control that can be dynamically modified according to the user’s previous behavior. It is shaped by access attempts and conflicts of interest and does not allow information to flow between subjects and objects. In this model, a subject can only write to an object if the subject cannot read another object in a different data set.

×：Access tuples

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it uses access triples instead of access tuples. The access triple is the subject program object. This ensures that the subject can only access the object through the authorized program.

×：Write Up and Write Down

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because there is no Write Up and Write Down. These rules relate to the Bell-LaPadula and Biba models. The Bell-LaPadula model contains a simple security rule that has not been read and a star property rule that has not been written down. The Biba model contains an unread simple completeness axiom and an unwritten star completeness axiom.

〇：Increased Processing Power

The increased processing power of personal computers and servers has increased the probability of successful brute force and cracking attacks against security mechanisms that were not feasible a few years ago. Today’s processors can execute an incredible number of instructions per second. These instructions can be used to break passwords, encryption keys, or direct malicious packets to be sent to the victim’s system.

×：Increased circuitry, cache memory, and multiprogramming

This is incorrect because an increase does not make a particular type of attack more powerful. Multiprogramming means loading multiple programs or processes into memory at the same time. It allows antivirus software, word processors, firewalls, and e-mail clients to run simultaneously. Cache memory is a type of memory used for fast write and read operations. If the system expects that the program logic will need to access certain information many times during processing, the information is stored in cache memory for easy and quick access.

×：Dual-mode computation

The answer is not specific and does not measure conformance to the problem. When examining microprocessor advances, there is no actual dual-mode calculation.

×：Direct Memory Access I/O

Incorrect because this method transfers instructions and data between I/O (input/output) devices and the system’s memory without using the CPU. Direct Memory Access I/O significantly increases data transfer speed.

VoIP uses UDP. It is real-time oriented, and it is probably better to lose one or two packets than to retransmit a few seconds later in a connectionless fashion.

〇：It encompasses network and code analysis and is sometimes referred to as electronic data discovery.

Forensics is the analysis of electronic data that may have been affected by technology, authentication, and criminal activity requiring special techniques to ensure the preservation of information. It comes together of computer science, information technology and engineering in the legal system. When discussing digital forensics with others, it may be described as computer forensics, network forensics, electronic data discovery, cyber forensics, etc.

×：The study of computer technology.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it involves information technology rather than research. It encompasses the study of information technology, but also includes collecting and protecting evidence and working within specific legal systems.

×：A set of hardware-specific processes that must be followed in order for evidence to be admissible in court.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it does not refer to hardware or software. It is a set of specific processes related to computer usage, examination of residual data, technical analysis and description of technical characteristics of the data, and reconstruction of the authentication of data by computer usage that must be followed for the evidence to be admissible in court.

×：Before an incident occurs, digital forensics roles and responsibilities should be assigned to network administrators.

This is wrong because digital forensics must be done by people with the proper training and skill set who could not possibly be administrators or network administrators. Digital forensics can be fragile and must have been worked on properly. If someone reboots an attacked system or inspects various files, it could corrupt and change executable evidence, key file timestamps, and erase any footprints the criminal may have left behind.

〇：Common Criteria

Common Criteria was created in the early 1990s as a way to combine the strengths of both the Trustworthy Computer Systems Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) and eliminate their weaknesses. Common Criteria is more flexible than TCSEC and easier than ITSEC. Common Criteria is recognized worldwide and assists consumers by reducing the complexity of assessments and eliminating the need to understand the definitions and meanings of different assessments in different assessment schemes. This also helps manufacturers because they can now build a specific set of requirements when they want to market their products internationally, rather than having to meet several different evaluation criteria under different rules and requirements.

×：ITSEC

This is incorrect because it is not the most widely used information technology security evaluation standard. ITSEC was the first attempt to establish a single standard for evaluating the security attributes of computer systems and products in many European countries. In addition, ITSEC separates functionality and assurance in its evaluations, giving each a separate rating. It was developed to provide greater flexibility than TCSEC and addresses integrity, availability, and confidentiality in networked systems. The goal of ITSEC was to become the global standard for product evaluation, but it failed to achieve that goal and was replaced by Common Criteria.

×：Red Book

Wrong, as it is a U.S. government publication that addresses the topic of security evaluation of networks and network components. Formally titled Trusted Network Interpretation, it provides a framework for protecting different types of networks. Subjects accessing objects on the network must be controlled, monitored, and audited.

×：Orange Book

Incorrect as this is a U.S. Government publication that addresses government and military requirements and expectations for operating systems. The Orange Book is used to evaluate whether a product is suitable for the security characteristics and specific applications or functions required by the vendor. The Orange Book is used to review the functionality, effectiveness, and assurance of the product under evaluation, using classes designed to address typical patterns of security requirements. It provides a broad framework for building and evaluating trusted systems, with an emphasis on controlling which users have access to the system. We call it the Orange Book, but another name for it is Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC).

〇：OCSP is a protocol developed specifically to check CRLs during the certificate validation process.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for creating certificates, maintaining and distributing them, and revoking them when necessary. Revocation is handled by the CA and the revoked certificate information is stored in a Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of all revoked certificates. This list is maintained and updated periodically. A certificate is revoked if the key owner’s private key has been compromised, if the CA has been compromised, or if the certificate is incorrect. If a certificate is revoked for any reason, the CRL is a mechanism for others to inform you of this information. The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) uses this CRL; when using CRLs, the user’s browser must examine the CRL value to the client to see if the accreditation has been revoked or the CA is constantly checking to make sure they have an updated CRL. If OCSP is implemented, it will do this automatically in the background. It performs real-time verification of the certificate and reports back to the user whether the certificate is valid, invalid, or unknown.

×：CRL was developed as a more efficient approach to OCSP.

CRLs are often incorrect because they are a cumbersome approach; OCSP is used to deal with this tediousness; OCSP does this work in the background when using CRLs; OCSP checks the CRL to see if the certificate has been revoked by Checks.

×：OCSP is a protocol for submitting revoked certificates to CRLs.

OCSP is incorrect because it does not submit revoked certificates to the CRL; the CA is responsible for certificate creation, distribution, and maintenance.

×：CRL provides real-time validation of certificates and reports to OCSP.

Incorrect because CRL does not provide real-time validation of certificates to OCSP.

〇：Test with reference to OSSTMM.

OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) is an open source penetration testing standard. Open source is basically free and has many amazing features. Because it is free and anyone can use it, there is a view that trust is low. However, there is nothing like it if you properly understand the risks. That is why we are trying to create a testing standard for open source to ensure trust. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test with reference to OSSTMM.” will be “OSSTMM”.

×：Since open source is fully tested at the point of development, the testing process can be omitted.

Even if it is open source, you need to test it according to your own organization.

×：Secure contact information for the developer and conduct testing with both developers.

If you contact the open source developer, these responses will probably not go through.

Most open source developers are doing this in good faith and may be brazen about further pursuit from the organization.

×：Ask other organizations to share completed tests.

The process of getting test results that may be confidential from other organizations is unreasonable.

〇：Password authentication and secret questions

Passwords are a memory-based authentication method. The secret question is also a memory-based authentication method, and is not a combination of two-factor authentication methods. Therefore, the correct answer is “password authentication and secret question.

×：Password authentication and fingerprint authentication

It is memory authentication information x body authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

×：Password authentication and one-time password authentication using a token machine.

This is memory authentication information x possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

×：Password authentication and IC card authentication

This is memory authentication information × possession authentication information. This is a multi-factor authentication.

〇：Operating system patching is easier.

This is an incorrect choice question. Virtualization does not simplify operating system patching. In fact, it complicates it by adding at least one additional operating system. Each operating system differs from the typical version configuration, adding to the complexity of patching. The server’s own operating system runs as a guest within the host environment. In addition to patching and maintaining the traditional server operating system, the virtualization software itself must be patched and maintained.

For this question, we do not require an understanding of all the technical systems of virtualization. What is required here is a selection of answers based on a process of elimination.

×：I can build a secure computing platform.

Building a secure computing platform may not be a feature of virtualization per se. However, can we build a secure environment? This is not a false choice because it cannot be ruled out.

×：It can provide fault and error containment.

Virtualization can be host independent. In terms of containment, it can be interpreted as being able to provide fault and error containment through independence from physical servers. Therefore, it cannot be denied and is therefore not an incorrect choice.

×：It can provide powerful debugging capabilities.

Virtualization can reproduce a unique environment, not just put up a clean virtual host. Therefore, it is undeniable and therefore out of the wrong choice.

〇：Unified Threat Management

Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance products have been developed to provide firewall, malware, spam, IDS / IPS, content filtering, data leak prevention, VPN capabilities, and continuous monitoring and reporting in computer networks.

Since this question asks for a definition of Unified Threat Management that is unfamiliar or not even mentioned in the course material, it is inefficient to buy and study a new book just to get this score. To avoid ending up with “I don’t know = I can’t solve it,” be sure to develop the habit of choosing a “better answer.

If you think in terms of the classification Concepts/Standards > Solutions/Implementation Methods, ISCM (NIST SP800-137) and centralized access control systems are the former, while Unified Threat Management and cloud-based security solutions are the latter. Therefore, it is still better to bet on unified threat management and cloud-based security solutions.

×：ISCM (NIST SP800-137)

Because continuous monitoring in the security industry is most commonly Information Security Continuous Monitoring ISCM (NIST SP800-137), which enables companies to gain situational awareness, continuous awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support business risk management decisions , is incorrect.

×：Centralized Access Control System

Wrong because a centralized access control system does not attempt to combine all of the security products and capabilities mentioned in the issue. A centralized access control system is used so that its access control can be enforced in a standardized manner across different systems in a network environment.

×：Cloud-based security solutions

Cloud-based security solutions include security managed services that allow an outsourced company to manage and maintain a company’s security devices and solutions, but this is not considered a cloud-based solution. The cloud-based solution provides the infrastructure environment, platform, or application to the customer so that the customer does not have to spend time and money maintaining these items themselves.

Risk is the multiplication of threats and vulnerabilities. If the threat is at least as great as the vulnerability is fatal, it is a significant impact, or risk. Therefore, the best illustration of the relationship between the four rules is the multiplier.

There is an unfamiliar term: data classification program. This is not a dictionary definition of the term. You want to classify data, what do you do to do that? What is the first step in this process? Since you are being asked about the “first step” in doing this, you can answer by listing the options in order and choosing the first option. Do not search the dictionary in your mind for the word “data classification,” think of the process flow of data classification, and recall the name of the first process.

In order, you might go from understanding the level of protection you need to provide, to specifying the data classification criteria, to determining the protection mechanisms for each classification level, to identifying the data controller. Whatever you do, the first step should be research. Then the problem is defined and the best answer is derived, which is the general solution to the problem.

〇：Information used to reconstruct data

RAID can improve system performance by providing fault tolerance to the hard drive and the data it holds. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting the data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also distributed across each disk. This is called parity, and if one disk fails, the other disks can work together to recover the data.

×：Information used to create new data

This is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data, but rather as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to erase data

Parity information is not used to erase data. This is incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to construct data

Parity information is not used to create data. Incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks usually do not provide financial gain to the attacker. Often, the motivation is revenge, disagreement with the organization’s policy decisions, or the attacker proving the extent of his or her animosity toward the organization. Certainly, it can be used to bloat the cost of a pay-as-you-go cloud service by causing it to consume more resources than expected by accessing it in large volumes, but it is a mistake in that it is not the financial objective of the parties involved.

〇：Brewer-Nash Model

The Chinese Wall Model is a security model that focuses on the flow of information within an organization, such as insider trading. Insider trading occurs when inside information leaks to the outside world. In reality, information can spread to unexpected places as it is passed on orally to unrelated parties. In order to take such information flow into account, access privileges are determined in a simulation-like manner. Therefore, the correct answer is the “Chinese Wall Model (Brewer-Nash Model).

×：Lattice-based Access Control

Lattice-based access control is to assume that a single entity can have multiple access rights and to consider access control as all possible relationships under a certain condition.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

×：Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman Model

The Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman model is a model that aggregates the eight rules of the Graham-Denning model into six rules using an access control matrix.

Brute force can be used to decrypt the plaintext, given enough time. This is valid for all key-based ciphers except one-time pads. Eventually the data will be decrypted, but so many false positives will occur that the data will be rendered useless.

〇：Declare the impact and consequences of the disaster.

The final step in the damage assessment is to declare the disaster. After the information from the damage assessment has been collected and evaluated, determine if the BCP actually needs to be activated. The BCP coordinator and team should determine the activation criteria before the disaster occurs.

×：Determine the cause of the disaster.

Determining the cause of the disaster is incorrect as it is the first step in the damage assessment process.

×：Identify resources that need to be replaced immediately.

Incorrect because identifying resources that need to be replaced immediately is not the last step in damage assessment.

×：Determine how long it will take to bring critical functions back online.

Incorrect because determining how long it will take to bring critical functions back online is the second-to-last step in damage assessment.

Penetration testing is an attempt to penetrate a system connected to a network. Penetration allows for any kind of manipulation and can bring the service itself to a halt. Therefore, the focus of testing is on penetration. The sequence is: planning, preliminary investigation, search for vulnerabilities, evaluation, attack, and reporting. Therefore, the correct answer is “report generation.

〇：Striping

RAID redundant arrays is a technology used for redundancy and performance. It combines multiple physical disks and aggregates them into a logical array; RAID appears as a single drive to applications and other devices. With striping, data is written to all drives. With this activity, data is split and written to multiple drives. Since multiple heads are reading and writing data at the same time, write and read performance is greatly improved.

×：Parity

Parity is used to reconstruct corrupted data.

×：Mirroring

Writing data to two drives at once is called mirroring.

×：Hot Swap

Hot swap refers to a type of disk found on most RAID systems. A RAID system with hot-swap disks allows the drives to be swapped out while the system is running. When a drive is swapped out or added, parity data is used to rebuild the data on the new disk that was just added.

〇：Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities

This is a problem of selecting unrelated items. Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities is a confidentiality issue. Although it is complicatedly worded, the operations on the data are unauthorized and extraction, and none of them include the destruction of data, which is the primary focus of integrity. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities.

In solving this problem, it is not necessary to know what an entity is. The focus is on whether any modification or destruction has taken place.

×：Unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data

Mistake. Because integrity is associated with unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data. Integrity is maintained when unauthorized modification is prevented. Hardware, software, and communication mechanisms must work together to correctly maintain and process data and move data to its intended destination without unexpected changes. Systems and networks must be protected from outside interference and contamination.

×：Unauthorized data modification

Unauthorized data modification is a mistake as it relates to integrity. Integrity is about protecting data, not changing it by users or other systems without authorization.

×：Intentional or accidental data substitution

Incorrect because intentional or accidental data substitution is associated with integrity. Integrity is maintained when assurances of the accuracy and reliability of information and systems are provided along with assurances that data will not be tampered with by unauthorized entities. An environment that enforces integrity prevents attacks, for example, the insertion of viruses, logic bombs, or backdoors into the system that could corrupt or replace data. Users typically incorrectly affect the integrity of the system and its data (internal users may also perform malicious acts). For example, a user may insert incorrect values into a data processing application and charge a customer $3,000 instead of $300.

〇：Capability Maturity Model Integration

Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a comprehensive set of integration guidelines for developing products and software. It addresses the various phases of the software development life cycle, including concept definition, requirements analysis, design, development, integration, installation, operation, maintenance, and what should happen at each stage. The model describes the procedures, principles, and practices underlying the maturation of the software development process. It was developed to help software vendors improve their development processes. It will improve software quality, shorten the development life cycle, create and meet milestones in a timely manner, and adopt a proactive approach rather than a reactive approach that is less effective.

×：Software Development Life Cycle

Incorrect because the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) describes how a system should be developed and maintained throughout its life cycle and does not involve process improvement.

×：ISO/IEC 27002

Incorrect because ISO/IEC 27002 is an international standard that outlines how the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) create and maintain an organizational information security management system (ISMS). ISO/IEC 27002 has a section dealing with the acquisition, development, and maintenance of information systems, but does not provide a process improvement model for software development.

×：Certification and Accreditation Process

This is incorrect because the certification and accreditation (C&A) process handles testing and evaluation of systems against predefined criteria. This has nothing to do with improving the software development process.

〇：Software Configuration Management

Products that provide software configuration management (SCM) identify software attributes at various points in time and provide systematic control of change to maintain software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. It defines the need to track changes and provides the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the approved changes that are supposed to be included in the release. During a software development project, it is stored in a system that can be managed as a centralized code repository and perform SCM functions to track revisions made by multiple people to a single master set.

×：Software Change Control Management

This is incorrect as it is not an official term for this type of function. Software Change Control Management is only part of Software Configuration Management. Software configuration management systems provide concurrency management, version control, and synchronization.

×：Software Escrow

A software escrow framework in which a third party holds a copy of the source code that will be released to the customer in the event of certain circumstances, such as bankruptcy of the vendor who developed the code.

×：Software Configuration Management Escrow

Incorrect, as this is not an official term for this type of functionality.

〇：Password synchronization between different systems

Password synchronization is designed to reduce the complexity of maintaining different passwords for different systems. Password synchronization technology allows a single password to be maintained across multiple systems by transparently synchronizing passwords to other systems in real time. This reduces help desk call volume. However, one of the disadvantages of this approach is that only one password is used to access different resources. This means that a hacker only needs to figure out one set of credentials to gain unauthorized access to all resources. Therefore, the correct answer is “password synchronization between different systems”.

×：Password reset by administrator query

This does not reduce the amount of help desk support because the end user must contact the administrator.

×：End-user manual password reset by self-service

This is the so-called “self-service” password reset, in which end users change their passwords themselves from their profile pages.

This is the most practical way to reduce the amount of helpdesk support, but it does not meet the requirement of easy access to multiple resources in case of a password compromise.

×：Password reset by inquiry

This does not reduce the amount of helpdesk support because it requires the end user to contact the administrator. An inquiry is an inquiry whether or not an administrator is attached.

Copyright applies to books, art, music, software, etc. It is granted automatically and is valid for 70 years after the creator’s death and 95 years after creation. Therefore, the correct answer is “70 years”.

〇：Softphones are safer than IP phones. 

IP softphones should be used with caution. A softphone is a software application that allows users to make calls via computer over the Internet. Replacing dedicated hardware, a softphone works like a traditional telephone. Skype is an example of a softphone application. Compared to hardware-based IP phones, softphones are more receptive to IP networks. However, softphones are no worse than other interactive Internet applications because they do not separate voice traffic from data, as IP phones do, and also because data-centric malware can more easily enter the network through softphones. network.

×：VoIP networks should be protected with the same security controls used on data networks.

The statement is incorrect because it correctly describes the security of an IP telephony network. an IP telephony network uses the same technology as a traditional IP network, which allows it to support voice applications. Therefore, IP telephony networks are susceptible to the same vulnerabilities as traditional IP networks and should be protected accordingly. This means that IP telephony networks should be designed to have adequate security.

×：As an endpoint, IP telephony can be a target of attack.

Incorrect because true: An IP phone on an IP telephony network is equivalent to a workstation on a data network in terms of vulnerability to attack. Thus, IP phones should be protected with many of the same security controls implemented on traditional workstations. For example, the default administrator password must be changed. Unnecessary remote access functions need to be disabled. Logging should be enabled and the firmware upgrade process should be secured.

×：The current Internet architecture in which voice is transmitted is more secure than physical phone lines.

True and therefore incorrect. In most cases, the current Internet architecture in which voice is transmitted is more secure than physical telephone lines. Physical phone lines provide a point-to-point connection, which is difficult to leverage over the software-based tunnels that make up the bulk of the Internet. This is an important factor to consider when protecting IP telephony networks because the network is now transmitting 2 valuable asset data and voice. It is not unusual for personal information, financial information, and other sensitive data to be spoken over the phone; intercepting this information over an IP telephony network is as easy as intercepting regular data. Currently voice traffic should also be encrypted.

〇：Virtual Container for Data from Multiple Sources
Network directories are containers for users and network resources. Because one directory does not contain all the users and resources in an enterprise, a collection of directories must be used. A virtual directory collects the necessary information used from sources scattered throughout the network and stores it in a central virtual directory (virtual container). This provides a unified view of digital identity information for all users across the enterprise. The virtual directory is regularly synchronized with all identity stores (individual network directories) to ensure that up-to-date information is being used by all applications and identity management components in the enterprise.

×：Metadirectory

Virtual directories are similar to metadirectories, but incorrect because metadirectories work with one directory and virtual directories work with multiple data sources. When the Identity Management component calls the virtual directory, it can scan different directories across the enterprise, but the metadirectory only has the ability to scan one directory it is associated with.

×：User attribute information stored in the HR database

Incorrect because it describes an identity store. Much of the information stored in identity management directories is scattered throughout the enterprise. User attribute information (employee status, job description, department, etc.) is typically stored in the HR database. Authentication information can be stored in a Kerberos server, and resource-oriented authentication information can be stored in the domain controller’s Active Directory. These are commonly referred to as identity stores and are located elsewhere on the network. Many identity management products use virtual directories to call up the data in these identity stores.

×：Services that allow administrators to configure and manage the way identities are

This is incorrect because it describes a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage how identification, authentication, permissions, and access control are performed within a network. It uses namespaces to manage objects in the directory and enforces security policies configured by performing access control and identity management functions.

〇：Considering an architecture that can handle health information.

Carol is a systems engineer and is expected to explore systemic realities. It is likely that she is deviating from her role to preemptively explain why it cannot be done systemically, to modify approvals other than the system configuration, or to initiate legal work. The correct answer, therefore, is, “Think about an architecture that can handle health information.” The correct answer would be

×：To address the dangers of handling health information in the system.

The basic stance of a system engineer is to obtain feasibility as a system. Although it is necessary to supplement the danger to the proposed idea, appealing the danger should not be the main purpose.

×：Obtaining permission to entrust health information from a medical institution.

A contract should be signed and the legal scope of responsibility should be clarified. This is outside the scope of the system engineer’s scope.

×：To prepare a written consent to use for handling health information.

It is necessary to obtain consent for end users before using the service, and the scope of legal responsibility needs to be clarified. This is outside the scope object of the system engineer’s scope.

〇：Subject

The functionality table identifies the access rights that a particular subject owns with respect to a particular object. Each subject is mapped for a function (capability) such as read or write perform. Therefore, the subject is the one that seems to fit in the choices.

×：Objects

Incorrect because the Object is bound to an Access Control List (ACL), not a functional component.

×：Product

Product is incorrect because it is just an example to implement a subject, object, or feature table.

×：Application

Application is incorrect because it is just a concrete example of an object.

〇：A Comprehensive Executive Summary

No matter how technically comprehensive a report to management may be, it is not always desirable to be too informative; IT security professionals must understand that the risk to the enterprise from a data breach is only one of many concerns that senior management must understand and prioritize. C-level executives must be attentive to many risks and may have difficulty properly categorizing the often unfamiliar, highly technical threats. In short, the IT security professional’s primary job is to summarize the risks in as short a time as possible in a way that suits the management.

×：List of Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Likelihood of Occurrence

This is incorrect because it is not the most important element to report to management. Such a list is essential to a comprehensive security report, but providing it to senior management is unlikely to result in effective action without a skillful executive summary.

×：A comprehensive list of the probability and impact of expected adverse events

This is incorrect because it is not the most important element of the report to management. Such lists are important in technical reports, but summaries are critical to achieving risk mitigation goals.

×：A comprehensive list of threats, vulnerabilities, and likelihood of occurrence, a comprehensive list of the probability and impact of expected adverse events, and a written summary thereof to meet technical comprehensiveness

incorrect because it describes the most common and significant obstacles to reporting to management.

Sabotage is an attack by an insider.

Users can logically guess the URL or path to access resources they should not. If an organization’s network has access to a report name ending in “financials_2017.pdf”, it is possible to guess other file names that should not be accessed, such as “financials_2018.pdf” or “financials.pdf”.

〇：Zero Knowledge Proof

Zero Knowledge Proof means that someone can tell you something without telling you more information than you need to know. In cryptography, it means proving that you have a certain key without sharing that key or showing it to anyone. Zero knowledge proof (usually mathematical) is an interactive way for one party to prove to another that something is true without revealing anything sensitive.

×：Key Clustering

Key clustering is the phenomenon of encrypting the same plaintext with different keys, but with the same ciphertext.

×：Avoiding Birthday Attacks

An attacker can attempt to force a collision, called a birthday attack. This attack is based on the mathematical birthday paradox present in standard statistics. This is a cryptographic attack that uses probability theory to exploit the mathematics behind the birthday problem.

×：Provides data confidentiality

Provided via encryption when data is encrypted with a key, which is incorrect.

〇：Data User

An individual who uses data for work-related tasks is a data user. Users must have the necessary level of access to data to perform their job duties. They are also responsible for adhering to operational security procedures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data to others. This means that users must take appropriate precautions and follow both security policies and data classification rules.

×：Data Owners

This is incorrect because the data owner has a higher level of responsibility in protecting the data. The data owner is responsible for classifying the data, regularly reviewing the classification level, and delegating responsibility for the data protection position to the data controller. The data owner is usually a manager or executive within the organization and is responsible for the protection of the company’s information assets.

×：Data Controller

Incorrect, as the data controller is responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls as directed by the data owner. In other words, the data administrator is the technician of the controls that protect the data. Her duties include creating backups, restoring data, implementing and maintaining countermeasures, and managing controls.

×：Information Systems Auditor

Incorrect, as they are responsible for evaluating controls. After evaluating the controls, the auditor submits a report to management, mapping the results to the organization’s acceptable level of risk. This has nothing to do with using data or being meticulous in the use of data.

〇：Business Continuity Processes Integrate Change Management Processes

Unfortunately, business continuity plans can quickly become outdated. An outdated BCP can give a company a false sense of security, which can be fatal if a disaster actually occurs. One of the simplest, most cost-effective, and process-efficient ways to keep your plan current is to incorporate it into your organization’s change management process. Are new applications, equipment, and services documented? Are updates and patches documented? The change management process should be updated to incorporate fields and triggers that alert the BCP team when significant changes occur and provide a means to update recovery documentation. Ensure that the BCP is kept up-to-date, and other measures include maintaining personnel evaluations of the plan and conducting regular training on using the plan, such as making business continuity part of all business decisions.

×：Update hardware, software, and application changes

Wrong because hardware, software, and application changes occur frequently; unless the BCP is part of a change management process, these changes are not included in the BCP. The BCP should be updated when changes to the environment occur. If it is not updated after a change, it is out of date.

×：Infrastructure and Environment Change Updates

Incorrect because infrastructure and environment changes occur frequently. Unless the BCP is part of a change management process, as with software, hardware, and application changes, infrastructure and environment changes are unlikely to result in a transition to the BCP.

×：Personnel changes

Incorrect, as the plan may become obsolete. It is not uncommon for BCPs to be abandoned when the person or persons responsible for maintenance leave the company. These responsibilities must be reassigned. To ensure this, maintenance responsibilities must be built into job descriptions and properly monitored.

〇：Calculate the potential impact for fatal errors.

Software testing is a must, but when that testing reveals numerous defects, it must be handled with care. Systems do not have the same concept as human forgetfulness, but it is not realistic to ask someone who scored 30 on this week’s test to score 100 on next week’s test.

Before any corrections can be made, the data taken from the test must be analyzed with the test completed, including log reviews. Priority must be given to determining what to implement first and what is acceptable and unacceptable. Think about qualitative risk analysis; if it is unlikely and has little impact, it can be left alone and focus on high priority items. Thus, the correct answer is, “Calculate the likelihood of impact for fatal errors.” will be.

×：Fix them all.

If many defects are found, it is likely that a lot of time will be taken to deal with their correction.

×：Leave them alone because of the huge number.

In principle, it is unacceptable to leave defects unattended.

×：Calculate the potential impact for all errors.

Performing an analysis for all errors can also be very work intensive.

Web access management (WAM) software controls what users can access when interacting with Web-based corporate assets using a Web browser. This type of technology is continually becoming more robust and experiencing increased deployment. This is due to the increased use of e-commerce, online banking, content delivery, and Web services. The basic components and activities of the Web access control management process are

• The user submits credentials to the web server.
• The web server requests the WAM platform to authenticate the user. WAM authenticates to the LDAP directory and obtains credentials from the policy database.
• The user requests access to a resource (object).
• The web server verifies that object access is allowed and grants access to the requested resource.

When the complicated term WAM is mentioned, the journey begins to search for a definition of WAM that may be at the end of one’s brain. But as these thoughts begin, you will want the hard answers, like the X.500 database. But if you don’t know, it is straightforward to interpret and answer to the best of your understanding; if you interpret WAM as software that controls access to a Web server, then the question is, “Which is the correct definition of WAM?” Rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does?” rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does? However, it is still tempting to factor in the possibility that WAM is a solution that uses a specific technology that may be unfamiliar to you.

The expected annual loss amount is the value of losses that could occur in the future, equalized on an annual basis based on the frequency of occurrence. Therefore, it is the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the annual frequency of occurrence (ALO).

〇：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

Almost every country has its own set of rules regarding what constitutes private data and how it should be protected. With the advent of the digital and information age, these different laws have begun to adversely affect business and international trade. Thus, the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) created guidelines for different countries to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone follows the same rules.

×：COSO

An organization that studies fraudulent financial reporting and which elements lead to them is fraudulent because the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) was established in 1985. The acronym COSO refers to a model of corporate governance that addresses IT at the strategic level, corporate culture, and financial accounting principles.

×：COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology)

Incorrect, as this framework defines control objectives to ensure that IT is properly managed and that IT is responsive to business needs. It is an international open standard that provides control and security requirements for sensitive data and reference frameworks.

×：International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

Incorrect because it is an international standards organization composed of representatives of national standards bodies. Its purpose is to establish global standardization. But its standardization goes beyond the privacy of data moving across international borders. For example, some standards address quality control; others address assurance and security.

〇：CA signs certificates.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.

×：RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.

Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.

×：RA signs certificates.

The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.

×：The user signs the certificate.

Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.

〇：COBIT defines IT goals, ITIL provides process-level procedures

COBIT is a framework developed by ISACA (formerly the Information Systems Audit and Controls) and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It defines goals for controls, not just security needs, to ensure that IT is properly managed and that IT is responsive to business needs. The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the de facto standard for IT service management best practices. A customizable framework, ITIL provides goals, the general activities required to achieve these goals, and the input and output values for each process required to achieve these determined goals. In essence, COBIT addresses “what needs to be accomplished” and ITIL addresses “how to accomplish”.

×：COBIT is a model of IT governance, ITIL is a model of corporate governance.

While COBIT can be used as a model for IT governance, ITIL is wrong because it is not a model for corporate governance. In fact, the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) is a model of corporate governance. COBIT is derived from the COSO framework. COBIT can be thought of as a way to accomplish many COSO goals, but only from an IT perspective. To achieve many of the goals addressed in COBIT, organizations can use ITIL, which provides process-level steps to achieve IT service management goals.

×：COBIT is a model for corporate governance, ITIL is customizable for IT service management.

As mentioned above, COBIT is incorrect because it can be used as a model for IT governance, not corporate governance. COSO is a model of corporate governance. The second half of the answer is correct. ITIL is a customizable framework and is available as either a series of books or online for IT service management.

×：COBIT provides a business objectives framework, ITIL provides an IT service level objectives framework.

This is inappropriate because COBIT defines the control objectives that should be used to properly manage IT, enabling IT to address business needs as well as IT security needs. ITIL provides steps to achieve IT service management goals related to business needs. ITIL was created because of the increased reliance on information technology to meet business needs.

A captive portal is a mechanism that restricts communication with the outside world until user authentication, user registration, and user consent are performed when a terminal connects to the network.

Freeware is free software and can be used for free. Shareware is fully functional proprietary software that is initially free to use. Often a trial to test the software requires a fee to continue using it after 30 days. Thus, the correct answer is, “Freeware is free in perpetuity, while shareware is free for a set period of time.” will be.

Archive bits are those that have been updated since the previous backup point in time. Full backups are full backups, so there is no need to be aware of where changes have occurred. Incremental backups also do not require awareness of change points because the backup portion is predetermined. Therefore, both clear the archive bit. However, differential backups do not clear the archive bit because only the changed part is known to be backed up.

〇：Representatives from each department meet and undergo validation.

Structured walk-through testing allows functional personnel to review the plan as it is fulfilled to ensure its accuracy and validity.

×：Ensures that some systems will run at alternate sites.

This is incorrect because it describes parallel testing.

×：Send a copy of the disaster recovery plan to all departments to verify its completeness.

This is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

×：Take down the normal operation system.

This is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

The Health Insurance Interoperability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) has three rules: the Privacy Rule, the Security Rule, and the Breach Notification Rule. The rules mandate administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.

Disk mirroring means writing the same data to multiple hard disks; a RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) controller must write all data twice, requiring at least two disks. Disk striping can also be provided when parity is used, but disk striping alone cannot provide redundancy.

〇：PCI DSS

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a framework to avoid personal information leakage when making electronic payments. Therefore, the correct answer is “PCI DSS.

By the way, if you were to ask, “Which of the following are possible?” I am tempted to argue that other frameworks may be used as well. However, in the CISSP exam, you may have to choose “the most plausible” option in some cases. Therefore, we have used this phrase.

×：HITECH

The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) is an enhanced version of HIPPA that applies not only to data management but also to health care business associates.

×：OCTAVE

OCTAVE is one of the risk assessment frameworks introduced in CERT.

×：COBIT

COBIT is a framework for measuring the maturity of a company’s IT governance. It was proposed by the Information Systems Control Association of America (ISACA) and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI).

〇：Salt

A rainbow table is a pre-built list of ciphertexts that match plaintext and have hashes that match passwords. The table can contain millions of pairs. Salting is random data used as additional input to a one-way function that “hashes” a password or passphrase. The primary function of a salting is to protect against dictionary or compiled rainbow table attacks.

×：Login Attempt Restrictions

Effective against all unauthorized login methods, but not a direct or effective countermeasure against rainbow tables.

×：Key stretching

Replacing passwords with longer, random strings for encryption purposes.

×：Hashing

Password hashing is a fixed-length cipher (hash) statement for secure password storage.

〇：Stateful Inspection

Stateful Inspection detects abnormal communication in which the request and response are linked and only the response is returned from a different server. Therefore, the correct answer is “Stateful Inspection.

×：Application Gateway

Commonly referred to as WAF, this is used when filtering is performed based on strings in telegrams, such as SQL injection.

×：Packet Filtering

Used for filtering by IP address or port.

×：Session Gateway

There is no such firewall category.

〇：That the identity of the public official has been properly verified.

FIPS 201-2 establishes U.S. government standards for personal identity verification (PIV) and gives various requirements for assurance. Access to restricted information by government employees and contracting agents depends on their level of clearance and need to know it, but first the government must assure the individual that they are who they say they are.

×：That government employees are properly cleared for the work to which they are assigned.

Government employees must be properly cleared for the information to which they have been granted access, and therefore true identification must be available for review and verification prior to such access.

×：Government employees are only allowed access to data at their clearance level.

This is wrong because government employees only need to get acquainted and have access to the information they need to access. But again, this must be based on a clear level of assurance that the clearance they possess is valid.

×：That the data to which public officials have access is properly classified.

This is incorrect because the classification of data is not directly related to the validation of personal information.

〇：DDoS attacks

Availability is one of the properties of the CIA triad that indicates service continuity. An attack that threatens the continuity of service corresponds to a DDoS attack that sends a large number of requests and causes a service outage. Therefore, the correct answer is “DDoS attack”.

×: Wheeling

Whaling is a spear-phishing attack that targets a socially recognized person or organization.

×: TOC/TOU

TOC/TOU is a software bug that occurs when the system is modified between the time a condition is checked and the time the results of that check are used. In many cases, the attack replaces one file with another between looking for the file and reading the file.

×: DRAM

RAM (Random Access Memory) is memory used for CPU and screen displays, etc. DRAM is RAM that is only stored for short periods of time and requires periodic refreshing.

〇：Only during code development.

Maintenance hoc refers to functions and tools that are temporarily used by the developer for testing purposes. In fact, in system development, tools are provided to assist in confirming that individual functions are working properly. However, if maintenance hocks are left in the production environment, they may be used by attackers and must be removed.

×：Maintenance hooks should not be used.

The use of maintenance hooks can make the work more efficient.

×：When you want to make the software available to administrators in a simplified manner.

In some cases, attackers can exploit tools that were supposed to be available only to administrators.

×：When you want users to be able to use the software in a simplified manner.

After the actual release of the software, maintenance hooks are not made available to users.

CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

〇：Dynamic Testing

Dynamic testing is testing that is performed by actually running the developed program. Compared to static testing, it is a practical test in which the program is actually run and checked. Therefore, the correct answer is “dynamic testing.

×：Static Testing

Static testing is testing that is performed without running the developed program.

×：White box testing

White box testing is a test to confirm the operation of a program after understanding the contents of the program.

×：Black box testing

Black box testing is testing to confirm that the program does not behave unexpectedly without understanding the contents of the program.

〇：Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an access control that enforces access privileges by pre-classifying resources into levels. There are several types of access rights to data files. There are several types of access rights to data files: the user of the data file, the owner who creates the data file, and the administrator who decides which owner can create the data. SELinux, TOMOYO Linux, Trusted BSD, and Trusted Solaris are methods used by MACs.

×：Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control method that allows the owner of an access target to change access privileges.

×：Role Access Control (RAC)

There is no such term. A close equivalent is role-based access control, which divides accounts by role and applies access control to those roles.

×：Voluntary Access Control (VAC)

There is no such term.

〇：Diameter

Diameter is an authentication, authorization, and audit (AAA) protocol that not only provides the same kind of functionality as RADIUS and TACACS, but also offers more flexibility and capabilities to meet the emerging demands of today’s complex and diverse networks. Once all remote communication is done via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) connections, users can authenticate themselves via Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) to authenticated. The technology has become much more complex and there are multiple devices and protocols to choose from over the ever increasing Diameter protocol, Mobile IP, PPP, Voice over IP (VoIP), and other over Ethernet, wireless devices, smart phones, and other devices can authenticate themselves to the network using roaming protocols.

×：Watchdog

Watchdog timers are wrong because such processes are generally used to detect software failures such as abnormal termination or hangs. The watchdog function sends out “heartbeat” packets to determine if the service is responding. If not, the process can be terminated or reset. These packets help prevent software deadlocks, infinite loops, and process prioritization problems. This feature can be used in the AAA protocol to determine if a packet needs to be retransmitted and if a problem occurs and the connection should be closed and reopened, but it is not in the access control protocol itself.

×：RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is wrong because it is a network protocol and provides client/server authentication, authorization, and auditing for remote users.

×：TACACS

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS ) is incorrect because it provides essentially the same functionality as RADIUS.

〇：Test the restore procedure.

The ability to successfully restore from a backup must be tested periodically. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test the restore procedure.” will be

×：Ensure that all user data is backed up.

Making copies of user data is important, but copies are useless unless it is ensured that the copies can be restored.

×：Back up the database management system (DBMS) to your own specifications.

While it is a good idea to use measures to meet the proprietary specifications of the DBMS to ensure that transactional copies are usable, those copies will not be trusted unless the restores are tested.

×：Ensure that the backup log files are complete.

Monitoring backup logs for completion is good operational practice, but it is wrong because it is no substitute for regular testing of the backups themselves and their ability to truly recover from data loss.

This is a “non-ethics item” question.

A statement is made by the Internet Activities Board (IAB) to those who use the Internet about the correct use of Internet resources.

• Attempting to obtain unauthorized access to Internet resources.
• Disrupting the intended use of the Internet.
• Wasting resources (people, capabilities, and computers) through such activities.
• Destroying the integrity of computer-based information.
• Violating the privacy of users.

〇：IP Session Restriction via Media Gateway

The VoIP Media Gateway translates Internet Protocol (VoIP) voice over time division multiplexing (TDM) voice to and from. As a security measure, the number of calls through the Media Gateway should be limited. The Media Gateway is vulnerable to denial-of-service attacks, hijacking, and other types of attacks.

×：Identification of Rogue Devices  

Incorrect, as rogue devices on both IP telephony and data networks need to be identified.

×：Implementation of Authentication

Incorrect because authentication is recommended for both data and voice networks.

×：Encryption of packets containing sensitive information

Incorrect because sensitive data can be transmitted over either voice or data networks and must be encrypted in both cases. Eavesdropping is a very real threat for VoIP networks.

〇：To create an overview of business functions and systems

Outlining business functions and systems is not a reason to create and execute a disaster recovery plan. While these tasks are likely to be accomplished as a result of the disaster recovery plan, they are not a valid reason to implement the plan compared to other answers to the question. Usually occurring during the planning process, simply outlining business functions and systems is not enough to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan.

×：To create post-disaster recovery procedures

It is not correct to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan because providing post-disaster recovery procedures is a good reason to do so. In fact, this is exactly what a disaster recovery plan provides. The goal of disaster recovery is to take the necessary steps to minimize the impact of a disaster and ensure that resources, personnel, and business processes can resume operations in a timely manner. The goal of a disaster recovery plan is to handle the disaster and its consequences in the immediate aftermath.

×：To back up data and create backup operating procedures

Inappropriate, because not only backing up data but also extending backup operations is a good way to develop and implement a disaster recovery plan. When considering a disaster recovery plan, some companies focus primarily on backing up data and providing redundant hardware. While these items are very important, they are only a small part of a company’s overall operations. Hardware and computers need people to configure and operate them, and data is usually not useful unless it can be accessed by other systems or outside entities. All of these may require backups as well as data.

×：To establish emergency response procedures

This is incorrect because there are good reasons to establish and implement a disaster recovery plan, and providing emergency response procedures is a valid reason. Disaster recovery plans are implemented when everything is in emergency mode and everyone is scrambling to get all critical systems back online. Carefully written procedures will make this entire process much more effective.

Translated with www.DeepL.com/Translator (free version)

〇：Salvage Teams

The BCP coordinator should understand the needs of the company and the types of teams that need to be developed and trained. Employees should be assigned to specific teams based on their knowledge and skill sets. Named leaders, each team must have members and the ability to direct their activities. These team leaders will be responsible not only for ensuring that team goals are met, but also for interacting with each other to ensure that each team is operating properly. The salvage team is responsible for initiating recovery of the original site. They are also responsible for backing up data from the alternate site and restoring it within the new facility, carefully terminating any unforeseen operations, and ensuring equipment and personnel are transported to the new facility.

×：Damage Assessment Team

The Damage Assessment Team is incorrect because it is responsible for determining the extent and severity of damage.

×：BCP Team

Wrong because the BCP team is responsible for creating and maintaining a business continuity plan.

×：Recovery Team

Wrong because the Recovery Team is responsible for getting an alternate site to work and to keep the environment functioning.

〇：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activity taking place within the host system.

Virtual firewalls can be bridge-mode products that monitor individual communication links between virtual machines. They can also be integrated within a hypervisor in a virtual environment. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of guest system software. When a firewall is embedded within the hypervisor, it can monitor all activities that occur within the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual network links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is incorrect because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links between hosts and not network links. Hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activities taking place within the guest system rather than the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is wrong because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links, and the hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, but not the guest system. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of the guest system software. A firewall, when embedded within the hypervisor, can monitor all activities taking place within the system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual guest systems, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the network system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic between guest systems, and a hypervisor integrated allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, not the network system, so Wrong.

〇：Business Case

The most important part of establishing and maintaining a current continuity plan is management support. Management may need to be convinced of the need for such a plan. Therefore, a business case is needed to obtain this support. The business case should include current vulnerabilities, legal obligations, current status of the recovery plan, and recommendations. Management is generally most interested in cost-benefit issues, so preliminary figures can be gathered and potential losses estimated. Decisions about how a company should recover are business decisions and should always be treated as such.

×：Business Impact Analysis

Incorrect because the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) was conducted after the BCP team gained management’s support for its efforts. A BIA is conducted to identify areas of greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. It identifies the company’s critical systems required for survival and estimates the amount of downtime the company can tolerate as a result of a disaster or disruption.

×：Risk Analysis

Incorrect, as this is a method of identifying risks and assessing the potential damage that could be caused to justify security protection measures. In the context of BCP, risk analysis methods should be used in a BIA to identify which processes, devices, or operations are critical and should be recovered first.

×：Threat reports

The answer is wrong because it is unintended. However, it is important for management to understand what the actual threats are to the enterprise, the consequences of those threats, and the potential loss value for each threat. Without this understanding, management pays lip service to continuity planning and in some cases may be worse than if it did not plan because of the false awareness of security it creates.

〇：Database Migration

The movement of accessible data from one repository to another may be required over its lifetime, but is generally not as important as the other phases provided in response to this question.

×：Data specification and classification

This is incorrect because the determination of what the data is and its classification is the first essential phase that can provide the appropriate level of protection.

×：Continuous monitoring and auditing of data access

Incorrect because without continuous monitoring and auditing of access to sensitive data, breaches cannot be identified and security cannot be guaranteed.

×：Data Archiving

Incorrect as even the most sensitive data is subject to retention requirements. This means that it must be archived for an appropriate period of time and with the same level of security as during actual use.

IEEE 802.11 is one of the wireless LAN standards established by IEEE.

〇：TOC/TOU

Certain attacks can take advantage of the way a system processes requests and performs tasks. A TOC/TOU attack handles a series of steps that the system uses to complete a task. This type of attack takes advantage of the reliance on the timing of events occurring in a multitasking operating system; TOC/TOU is a software vulnerability that allows the use of condition checking (i.e., credential verification) and the results from that condition checking function. In the scenario in this question, the fact that the web application is likely correctly configured indicates that the programming code of this application has this type of vulnerability embedded in the code itself.

×：Buffer overflow

When too much data is accepted as input to a particular process, a buffer overflow occurs. This is incorrect because it does not match the event in the problem statement. A buffer is an allocated segment of memory. A buffer can overflow arbitrarily with too much data, but to be used by an attacker, the code inserted into the buffer must be of a specific length and require a command to be executed by the attacker. These types of attacks are usually exceptional in that the fault is segmented, or sensitive data is provided to the attacker.

×：Blind SQL Injection

Blind SQL injection attacks are wrong because they are a type of SQL injection attack that sends true or false questions to the database. In a basic SQL injection, the attacker sends specific instructions in SQL format to query the associated database. In a blind SQL attack, the attacker is limited to sending a series of true-false questions to the database in order to analyze the database responses and gather sensitive information.

×：Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is incorrect because it is an attack type that attempts to trick the victim into loading a web page containing malicious requests or operations. The attack operation is performed within the context of the victim’s access rights. The request inherits the victim’s identity and performs undesirable functions for the victim. In this type of attack, the attacker can cause the victim’s system to perform unintended actions such as changing account information, retrieving account data, or logging out. This type of attack could be related to the scenario described in this question, but focuses on how the user can bypass the locking mechanism built into the web application. The logic in the programming code is incorrectly developed and the locking function is bypassed because a rigorous series of checks and usage sequences are not performed correctly.

〇：How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

×：Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

×：Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

×：A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

〇：SIEM

Many organizations have implemented security event management systems, called Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems. They attempt to correlate log data collected from various devices (servers, firewalls, routers, etc.) and provide analysis capabilities. They also have solutions with networks (IDS, IPS, anti-malware, proxies, etc.) that collect logs in various proprietary formats that require centralization, standardization, and normalization. Therefore, the correct answer is SIEM.

×：Intrusion Detection System

Intrusion Detection System (IDS, Intrusion Detection System) is a mechanism that monitors the system and leads to passive actions. It does not have the ability to collect and analyze logs.

×：SOAR

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) is a technology that enables efficient monitoring, understanding, decision-making and action on security incidents. It may be fulfilled by SOAR through intrinsic cause analysis, but it is not a solution used for the purpose of identifying if suspicious activity is taking place in the network.

×：Event correlation tools

The term “event correlation tool” does not exist, but may be a feature of a SIEM.

〇：Shoulder Surfing Attacks

Shoulder surfing is a type of browsing attack in which an attacker looks over the shoulder of another person to see what is being typed on that person’s monitor items or keyboard. Of the attacks listed, this is the easiest to perform in that it requires no knowledge of the computer system. Therefore, the correct answer is a shoulder surfing attack.

×：Dictionary attack

A dictionary attack is an unauthorized login that targets users who use words as passwords.

×：Side-channel attack

A side-channel attack is an attack that eavesdrops on system data from physical information.

×：Timing Attacks

A timing attack is an attack in which various input information is given to a device that processes ciphers, and the cipher key or other information is deduced from the difference in processing time. If processing time is taken, it can be inferred as a rough indication that the process is proceeding normally as a process, and so on.

〇：Continuity of Operations Plan

A continuity of operations plan (COOP) establishes senior management and post-disaster headquarters. It also outlines roles and authorities and individual role tasks.Creating a COOP begins with an assessment of how the organization operates to identify mission-critical staff, resources, procedures, and equipment. Suppliers, partners, and contractors identify other companies with whom they routinely interact and create a list of these companies. Therefore, the correct answer is the Continuity of Operations Plan.

×：Cyber Incident Response Plan

Cyber Incident Recovery is a plan for recovery from a cyber attack.

×：Crew Emergency Plan

A Crew Emergency Plan is a plan for the smooth transition of a facility’s staff to a secure environment.

×：IT Contingency Plan

A contingency plan is a plan that outlines the measures to be taken in the event of an accident, disaster, or other emergency.

A structured change management process must be established to direct staff to make appropriate configuration changes. Standard procedures keep the process under control and ensure that it can be implemented in a predictable manner. Change management policies should include procedures for requesting changes, approving changes, documenting, testing and viewing changes, implementing, and reporting changes to management. The configuration management change control process is not typically associated with service level agreement approvals.

RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the target value for recovering data at a point in the past when a failure occurs. When a failure occurs, the data currently handled is lost. The lost data must be recovered from backups, but it is important to know how far in the past the backups are from the current point in time.

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a target value that defines when the data should be recovered in the event of a failure. In the event of a failure, the service must not be unavailable indefinitely. Failure response procedures and disaster drills must be implemented to establish a target value for the time from the occurrence of a failure to the startup of service.

〇：Send a report labeled “No output”.

If there is nothing to report (nothing to report), you need to make sure the manager is aware that the report has no information and is not only to be held accountable.

×：Send an email notifying the manager that there is nothing to report.

It is not appropriate to suddenly keep a record of the report by e-mail, since the report is normally scheduled to be reported in the operation. Realistically, wouldn’t you be more endearing to your manager if you communicated with him or her every step of the way? No, I am not asking you to do that.

×：Re-submit last week’s report and submit the date of last week’s report as this week’s date.

Delivering last week’s report does not express that nothing was reported this week.

×：Nothing.

You are required to report that nothing happened.

The Clipper chip is a chipset developed by the National Security Agency (NSA) and implemented as an encryption device that protects “voice and data messages” as an embedded backdoor. It used SkipJack, a block cipher.

〇：ISO / IEC 27005 – Guidelines for Bodies Providing Audits and Certification of Information Security Management Systems

The ISO / IEC 27005 standard is a guideline for information security risk management. ISO / IEC 27005 is an international standard on how risk management should be implemented within the framework of an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27002 – Code of practice for information security management

This is not correct because it is a code of practice for information security management. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. ISO / IEC 27002 provides best practice recommendations and guidelines for starting, implementing, or maintaining an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27003 – ISMS Implementation Guidelines

This is incorrect as it is a guideline for ISMS implementation. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. Focuses on the key aspects necessary for the successful design and implementation of an ISMS according to ISO / IEC 27001:2005. It describes the ISMS specification and design process from its inception to the creation of an implementation plan.

×：ISO / IEC 27004 – Guidelines for Information Security Management Measurement and Metrics Framework

This is incorrect because it is a guideline for an information security management measurement and metrics framework. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. It provides guidance on the development and use of measures to assess the effectiveness of an ISMS and a group of controls or controls, as specified in ISO / IEC 27001.

〇：System logs that operate and are acquired on a daily basis

It is necessary to show that the logs are different from common usage in order to determine whether the access is unauthorized or not. Also, it is less reliable as legal evidence regarding logs that are not routinely obtained.

×：System logs from sophisticated products that comply with international standards

Market sophistication is not a requirement for legal evidence. Conversely, it is unlikely that software developed in-house cannot be used for legal archives.

×：System logs printed and stored as physical media

Whether or not logs are printed is not necessarily a legal requirement. Since the records are printed out as software, they are not purely physical evidence.

×：System logs close to the infrastructure recorded at the OS layer

Logs close to the OS layer have greater systemic traceability, but they are also less relevant to user operations and are not suitable as evidence of unauthorized access.

〇：Keys are generated from a master key.

To generate a composite key, a master key is created and a symmetric key (subkey) is generated. The key derivation function generates the encryption key from the secret value. The secret value can be a master key, passphrase, or password. The key derivation function (KDF) generates a key for symmetric key ciphers from a given password.

×：Session keys are generated from each other.

Session keys are generated from each other, not from the master key, which is incorrect.

×：Asymmetric ciphers are used to encrypt symmetric keys.

It is incorrect because key encryption is not even related to the key derivation function (KDF).

×：The master key is generated from the session key.

Reverse, incorrect. Session keys are generally generated from master keys.