〇：Zero Knowledge Proof

Zero Knowledge Proof means that someone can tell you something without telling you more information than you need to know. In cryptography, it means proving that you have a certain key without sharing that key or showing it to anyone. Zero knowledge proof (usually mathematical) is an interactive way for one party to prove to another that something is true without revealing anything sensitive.

×：Key Clustering

Key clustering is the phenomenon of encrypting the same plaintext with different keys, but with the same ciphertext.

×：Avoiding Birthday Attacks

An attacker can attempt to force a collision, called a birthday attack. This attack is based on the mathematical birthday paradox present in standard statistics. This is a cryptographic attack that uses probability theory to exploit the mathematics behind the birthday problem.

×：Provides data confidentiality

Provided via encryption when data is encrypted with a key, which is incorrect.

〇：Operating system patching is easier.

This is an incorrect choice question. Virtualization does not simplify operating system patching. In fact, it complicates it by adding at least one additional operating system. Each operating system differs from the typical version configuration, adding to the complexity of patching. The server’s own operating system runs as a guest within the host environment. In addition to patching and maintaining the traditional server operating system, the virtualization software itself must be patched and maintained.

For this question, we do not require an understanding of all the technical systems of virtualization. What is required here is a selection of answers based on a process of elimination.

×：I can build a secure computing platform.

Building a secure computing platform may not be a feature of virtualization per se. However, can we build a secure environment? This is not a false choice because it cannot be ruled out.

×：It can provide fault and error containment.

Virtualization can be host independent. In terms of containment, it can be interpreted as being able to provide fault and error containment through independence from physical servers. Therefore, it cannot be denied and is therefore not an incorrect choice.

×：It can provide powerful debugging capabilities.

Virtualization can reproduce a unique environment, not just put up a clean virtual host. Therefore, it is undeniable and therefore out of the wrong choice.

〇：Interface test is intended to verify correct operation in the correct state. Misuse case testing is intended to verify that problems occur in error conditions.

All applications must undergo interface testing to ensure proper function and use. They should undergo misuse case testing to determine if their intentional misuse could cause errors that would harm the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data to which the application provides access.

×：Interface test is intended to determine if a problem occurs in an error condition. Misuse case testing is intended to verify correct operation in the correct state.

While it may be possible to find incorrect behavior based on the assumption that the correct behavior occurs, the sentence is backwards in terms of the purpose of the test as well.

×：Interface testing is intended to check for proper usability. Misuse case testing monitors when errors occur.

Interfaces are not limited to usability. It is also a test for the API for server-to-server communication.

×：Interface testing and misuse case testing are essentially the same.

Essentially, the purpose of the test and the creation of an environment to achieve that purpose are different.

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.

〇：Make the mail relay server available to everyone.

This is a question of choosing the “ineffective” one. An open mail relay server is not an effective countermeasure against spam. In fact, spammers often use spammers to distribute spam, because the attackers can hide their identities. An open mail relay server is an SMTP server configured to allow inbound SMTP connections from anyone on the Internet, and many relays are properly configured to prevent attackers from distributing spam and pornography. Thus, the correct answer is “have an email relay server available to everyone.” will be.

×：Build a properly configured mail relay server.

A properly configured mail relay server can also suppress spam mail.

×：Perform filtering at the e-mail gateway.

Filtering emails that are considered spam mail at the gateway will help to prevent spam mail.

×：Filtering at the client.

Filtering spam mail at the client, i.e., in a mailing application such as Outlook, is considered to be a countermeasure against spam mail.

〇：All failed access attempts should be logged and reviewed.

The physical access control system may use software and auditing capabilities to generate an audit trail or access log associated with access attempts. The date and time of the entry point when access was attempted, the user ID used when access was attempted, and any failed access attempts, among others, should be recorded.

×：Failed access attempts are recorded and only security personnel are entitled to review them.

Unless someone actually reviews them, the access logs are as useless as the audit logs generated by the computer. Security guards should review these logs, but security professionals and facility managers should review these logs on a regular basis. The administrator must know the existence and location of entry points into the facility.

×：Only successful access attempts should be logged and reviewed.

Wrong, as unsuccessful access attempts should be logged and reviewed. Audit should be able to alert you to suspicious activity even though you are denying an entity access to a network, computer, or location.

×：Failed access attempts outside of business hours should be logged and reviewed.

Incorrect, as all unauthorized access attempts should be logged and reviewed regardless. Unauthorized access can occur at any time.

〇：Software Configuration Management

Products that provide software configuration management (SCM) identify software attributes at various points in time and provide systematic control of change to maintain software integrity and traceability throughout the software development life cycle. It defines the need to track changes and provides the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the approved changes that are supposed to be included in the release. During a software development project, it is stored in a system that can be managed as a centralized code repository and perform SCM functions to track revisions made by multiple people to a single master set.

×：Software Change Control Management

This is incorrect as it is not an official term for this type of function. Software Change Control Management is only part of Software Configuration Management. Software configuration management systems provide concurrency management, version control, and synchronization.

×：Software Escrow

A software escrow framework in which a third party holds a copy of the source code that will be released to the customer in the event of certain circumstances, such as bankruptcy of the vendor who developed the code.

×：Software Configuration Management Escrow

Incorrect, as this is not an official term for this type of functionality.

〇：The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.

A digital signature is a hash value encrypted with the sender’s private key. The act of digitally signing means encrypting the hash value of the message with his/her private key. The sender would encrypt that hash value using her private key. When the recipient receives the message, she performs a hash function on the message and generates the hash value herself. She then decrypts the hash value (digital signature) sent with the sender’s public key. The receiver compares the two values and, if they are the same, can verify that the message was not altered during transmission.

×：The sender encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.

The sender is wrong because if the message encrypts the digest with his/her public key, the recipient cannot decrypt it. The recipient needs access to the sender’s private key, which must not occur. The private key must always be kept secret.

×：The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her private key.

The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.

×：The receiver encrypts the message digest with his/her public key.

The receiver is wrong because the message must decrypt the digest with the sender’s public key. The message digest is encrypted with the sender’s private key, which can only be decrypted with the sender’s public key.

〇：CEO

Security measures should be raised together with business strategy and should be issued from the top, the CEO. Therefore, the correct answer is “CEO.

×：CIO

Abbreviation for Chief Information Officer. Certainly, security measures may be issued by the CIO. However, the CIO is not the correct answer here, because it is “more desirable” to have the CEO, who is the top manager responsible for management, issue the security measures.

×：Site Manager

The person who issues or is responsible for security measures should be the person responsible for management. This is not the correct answer.

×：CTO

Abbreviation for Chief Technology Officer. The Chief Technology Officer’s main role is to promote and protect the organization’s research and technology. This is not the correct answer here, as the CEO is “more desirable” when security measures, including organizational management and governance, are issued.

Diameter is an authentication protocol that implements the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, Accounting) service, the successor to RADIUS. This can cause performance degradation and data loss. This can lead to performance degradation and data loss.

〇：The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.

Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.

There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer

×：The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.

IaaS Description.

×：The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.

This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.

×：The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.

SaaS Description.

〇：Review the schedule.

Unit testing is testing to confirm that the developed module works as a stand-alone unit. Acceptance testing is testing to make sure that the customer who ordered the development actually uses it and is satisfied with it. Acceptance testing cannot take the place of unit testing. It is not upward compatible as a test, and the perspectives are different. Therefore, the correct answer is “Review the schedule.” The correct answer is “Review the schedule.

×：Unit testing is not performed for the sake of work efficiency.

It does not mean that unit tests are not performed.

×：Increase the number of items in the acceptance test for the unit test that could not be done.

The items that should have been done in the actual unit test are simply accounted for as acceptance tests, and the unit test is not considered to have been completed. This is an action that is close to concealment.

×：Report to your supervisor.

You are in charge of project management.

〇：Meetings should be conducted with a fixed number of members and should be as small as possible.

The BCP committee should be large enough to represent each department within the organization. It should consist of people who are familiar with the different departments within the company, as each department has unique functions and unique risks and threats. All issues and threats will be formulated when they are brought in and discussed. This cannot be done effectively with a few divisions or a few people. The committee must consist of at least business unit, senior management, IT, security, communications, and legal personnel.

Conducting meetings with a fixed number of members and as few as possible is certainly not a misinterpretation of “elite few. However, one must know what is the “best” answer and answer it.

×：Committee members should be involved in the planning, testing, and implementation phases.

The answer is incorrect because it is correct that committee members need to be involved in the planning, testing, and implementation phases. If Matthew, the coordinator of the BCP, is a good business leader, he will consider that it is best to make team members feel ownership over their duties and roles. The people who develop the BCP must also be the ones who implement it. If some critical tasks are expected to be performed during a time of crisis, additional attention should be given during the planning and testing phase.

×：The business continuity coordinator should work with management to appoint committee members.

This is incorrect because the BCP coordinator should work with management to appoint committee members. However, management’s involvement does not end there. The BCP team should work with management to finalize the goals of the plan, identify the critical parts of the business that must be handled first in the event of a disaster, and identify department and task priorities. Management also needs to help direct the team on the scope and specific goals of the project.

×：The team should consist of people from different departments within the company.

This is incorrect because the team should consist of people from different departments within the company. This will be the only way for the team to consider the risks and threats that each department faces according to the organization.

〇：The expiration date should be set short.

Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.

×：Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.

This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.

×：Keys must not be made public.

Of course. It is a key.

×：Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.

Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.

〇：System logs that operate and are acquired on a daily basis

It is necessary to show that the logs are different from common usage in order to determine whether the access is unauthorized or not. Also, it is less reliable as legal evidence regarding logs that are not routinely obtained.

×：System logs from sophisticated products that comply with international standards

Market sophistication is not a requirement for legal evidence. Conversely, it is unlikely that software developed in-house cannot be used for legal archives.

×：System logs printed and stored as physical media

Whether or not logs are printed is not necessarily a legal requirement. Since the records are printed out as software, they are not purely physical evidence.

×：System logs close to the infrastructure recorded at the OS layer

Logs close to the OS layer have greater systemic traceability, but they are also less relevant to user operations and are not suitable as evidence of unauthorized access.

VoIP uses UDP. It is real-time oriented, and it is probably better to lose one or two packets than to retransmit a few seconds later in a connectionless fashion.

The 2001 terrorist attacks triggered the development of various laws against terrorism. Therefore, the correct answer is “2001,September 11 attacks”.

Each IPSec VPN device will have at least one security association (SA) for each secure connection it uses; the SA, which is critical to the IPSec architecture, is the device’s need to support IPSec connections over VPN connections This is a record of the configuration that needs to be in place.

〇：Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an access control that enforces access privileges by pre-classifying resources into levels. There are several types of access rights to data files. There are several types of access rights to data files: the user of the data file, the owner who creates the data file, and the administrator who decides which owner can create the data. SELinux, TOMOYO Linux, Trusted BSD, and Trusted Solaris are methods used by MACs.

×：Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control method that allows the owner of an access target to change access privileges.

×：Role Access Control (RAC)

There is no such term. A close equivalent is role-based access control, which divides accounts by role and applies access control to those roles.

×：Voluntary Access Control (VAC)

There is no such term.

〇：Conforms to the X.509 standard and assigns a namespace to each object accessed in the database by LDAP.

Most companies have directories that contain information about company network resources and users. Most directories use a hierarchical database format based on the X.500 standard (not X.509) and a type of protocol such as LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) that allows subjects and applications to interact with the directory The application can then use LDAP to access the directory. Applications can request information about a particular user by making an LDAP request to the directory, and users can request information about a particular resource using a similar request. The directory service assigns an Distinguished Name (DN) to each object in the database based on the X.500 standard to be accessed. Each distinguished name represents a set of attributes about a particular object and is stored as an entry in the directory.

×：Namespaces are used to manage objects in the directory.

This is incorrect because objects in a hierarchical database are managed by a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage identification, authentication, permissions, and access control for the network. Objects in the directory are labeled and identified by namespace, which is how the directory service keeps objects organized.

×：Enforce security policies by performing access control and identity management functions.

This is incorrect because directory services enforce the security policy set by performing access control and identity management functions. For example, when a user logs into a domain controller in a Windows environment, the directory service (Active Directory) determines which network resources are accessible and which are not.

×：Administrators can configure and manage how identification takes place within the network.

Directory service is incorrect because it allows the administrator to configure and manage identification within the network. It also allows for the configuration and management of authentication, authorization, and access control.

Deleting a file is physically recoverable. Shredding, demagnetizing, and overwriting are all methods that render the file physically unrecoverable.

〇：DNS Hijacking

The DNS plays a great role in the transmission of traffic on the Internet; it directs traffic to the appropriate IP address corresponding to a given domain name DNS queries can be classified as either recursive or iterative. In a recursive query, the DNS server forwards the query to another server, which returns the appropriate response to the inquirer. In an iterative query, the DNS server responds with the address of another DNS server that may be able to answer the question and then proceeds to further ask for a new DNS server. Attackers use recursive queries to pollute the caches of DNS servers.

The attacker sends a recursive query to the victim’s DNS server asking for the IP address of the domain; the DNS server forwards the query to another DNS server. Before the other DNS server responds, the attacker inserts his IP address. The victim server receives the IP address and stores it in its cache for a specific period of time. The next time the system queries the server for resolution, the server directs the user to the attacker’s IP address.

×：Manipulating the hosts file

Manipulating the hosts file is wrong because it does not use recursive queries to pollute the DNS server cache. The client queries the hosts file before issuing a request to the first DNS server. Some viruses add the antivirus vendor’s invalid IP address to the hosts file to prevent the virus definition file from being downloaded and to prevent detection.

×：Social engineering

Social engineering is wrong because it does not require querying DNS servers. Social engineering refers to manipulation by an individual for the purpose of gaining unauthorized access or information.

×：Domain Litigation

Domain litigation is wrong because it does not involve poisoning the DNS server cache. Domain names are at trademark risk, including temporary unavailability or permanent loss of established domain names.

〇：Ensure the security of customer, company, and employee data.

The Chief Privacy Officer (CPO) is responsible for ensuring the security of customer, company, and employee data; the CPO is directly involved in setting policies regarding how data is collected, protected, and distributed to third parties. The CPO is usually an attorney and reports reports and findings to the Chief Security Officer (CSO). Thus, the correct answer is “Ensure that customer, company, and employee data is protected.” The answer is “Yes.

Perhaps you did not know what a CPO is. The point of this question is to see if you can conceive of the protection of personal information from the word privacy. When you see some words you don’t know in the actual exam, don’t throw them away because you don’t know what they mean. There are always hints.

×：Ensure the protection of partner data.

CPOs are responsible for ensuring the security of customer, company, and employee data.

There can be protection of partner data, but not in the sense of a primary role.

×：Ensuring the accuracy and protection of company financial information.

This is not considered to be a protection of privacy.

×：Ensuring that security policies are defined and implemented.

This is a common objective for all personnel/responsible parties and is not focused in the context of your role as Chief Privacy Officer (CPO).

The Kerckhoffs’s principle is the idea that cryptography should be secure even if everything but the private key is known. When encrypting data, one decides on a private key and how to encrypt it using that private key. Kerckhoffs says that even if it is known how it is encrypted, it should not be deciphered as long as the secret key is not discovered. Encryption has been with the history of human warfare. The main purpose is to communicate a strategy to one’s allies without being discovered by the enemy. In battle, its designs and encryption devices may be stolen by spies. Therefore, the encryption must be such that it cannot be solved without the key, no matter how much is known about how it works.

〇：Time-Based Synchronous Dynamic Token

A synchronous token device synchronizes with the authentication service using time or a counter as a core part of the authentication process. When synchronization is time-based, the token device and authentication service must maintain the same time within their internal clocks. The time values of the token device and private key are used to generate a one-time password that is displayed to the user. The user then passes this value and user ID to the server running the authentication service and enters this value and user ID into the computer. The authentication service decrypts this value and compares it to the expected value. If both match, the user is authenticated and allowed to use the computer and resources.

×：Counter-Based Synchronous Dynamic Token

If the token device and authentication service use counter synchronization, it is incorrect because it is not based on time. When using a counter-synchronized token device, the user must initiate the creation of a one-time password by pressing a button on the token device. This causes the token device and authentication service to proceed to the next authentication value. This value, the base secret, is hashed and displayed to the user. The user enters this resulting value along with the user ID to be authenticated. For either time or counter-based synchronization, the token device and authentication service must share the same secret base key used for encryption and decryption.

×：Asynchronous Tokens

Asynchronous token generation methods are incorrect because they use a challenge/response method for the token device to authenticate the user. Instead of using synchronization, this technique does not use separate steps in the authentication process.

×：Mandatory Tokens

Wrong because there is no such thing as a mandatory token. This is an incorrect answer.

〇：OSI reference model

The OSI reference model is a seven-layer classification of network communication. The concepts of application communication and session are separated, which would be clearly communicated based on the OSI reference model. Therefore, the correct answer is “OSI reference model.

×：TCP/IP model

The TCP/IP model is a layer design that is closer to the concept of a system than the OSI reference model; in the TCP/IP model, the application layer, presentation layer, and session layer of the OSI reference model are represented by a single application layer.

×：Data link model

There is no such model.

×：Biba model

Biba model is one of the security models that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

〇：Subject

The functionality table identifies the access rights that a particular subject owns with respect to a particular object. Each subject is mapped for a function (capability) such as read or write perform. Therefore, the subject is the one that seems to fit in the choices.

×：Objects

Incorrect because the Object is bound to an Access Control List (ACL), not a functional component.

×：Product

Product is incorrect because it is just an example to implement a subject, object, or feature table.

×：Application

Application is incorrect because it is just a concrete example of an object.

Freeware is free software and can be used for free. Shareware is fully functional proprietary software that is initially free to use. Often a trial to test the software requires a fee to continue using it after 30 days. Thus, the correct answer is, “Freeware is free in perpetuity, while shareware is free for a set period of time.” will be.

Unfortunately, security components usually affect system performance but go unnoticed by the user. If system performance is significantly slower, security controls may be enforced. The reason controls must be transparent is so that users and intruders do not know enough to disable or bypass them.

While it is important to understand the term “transparent” in the realm of security, there is another way to answer the question in terms of solving it. If there is only one answer to a four-answer question, then answers that mean the same thing cannot be correct. Therefore, by grouping, the only answer that is correct is the one that does not belong to a group.

And the key point in this question is whether the user knows. The other choices indicate that the situation is communicated on the server side as an outsider, whether a legitimate user or an attacker, whereas only one is acknowledged on the server administrator’s side.

〇：Business Case

The most important part of establishing and maintaining a current continuity plan is management support. Management may need to be convinced of the need for such a plan. Therefore, a business case is needed to obtain this support. The business case should include current vulnerabilities, legal obligations, current status of the recovery plan, and recommendations. Management is generally most interested in cost-benefit issues, so preliminary figures can be gathered and potential losses estimated. Decisions about how a company should recover are business decisions and should always be treated as such.

×：Business Impact Analysis

Incorrect because the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) was conducted after the BCP team gained management’s support for its efforts. A BIA is conducted to identify areas of greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. It identifies the company’s critical systems required for survival and estimates the amount of downtime the company can tolerate as a result of a disaster or disruption.

×：Risk Analysis

Incorrect, as this is a method of identifying risks and assessing the potential damage that could be caused to justify security protection measures. In the context of BCP, risk analysis methods should be used in a BIA to identify which processes, devices, or operations are critical and should be recovered first.

×：Threat reports

The answer is wrong because it is unintended. However, it is important for management to understand what the actual threats are to the enterprise, the consequences of those threats, and the potential loss value for each threat. Without this understanding, management pays lip service to continuity planning and in some cases may be worse than if it did not plan because of the false awareness of security it creates.

〇：Teardrop

Teardrop is an attack to bring a system to a halt by forging the offset of IP packets when they are returned before splitting.

×：Fraggle attack

Fraggle attack is an attack that uses the CHARGEN function to generate an appropriate string.

×：CHARGEN attack

There is no attack with such a name.

×：War Driving

Wardriving is the act of driving around a city looking for vulnerable wireless LAN access points.

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

It is a good thing for a module to have low coupling and high condensibility. The higher the degree of condensation, the easier it is to update and modify, and it does not affect other modules with which it interacts. This also means that modules are easier to reuse and maintain. Coupling degree is a measure of the amount of interaction a single module requires to perform its task. If a module’s coupling is low, it means that the module does not need to communicate with many other modules to perform its job. It is easier to understand and reuse than a module that depends on many other modules to perform its tasks. It will also be easier to modify modules without affecting the many modules around them. Therefore, the correct answer is “low-coupling, high-cohesion”.

〇：Continuity of Operations Plan

A continuity of operations plan (COOP) establishes senior management and post-disaster headquarters. It also outlines roles and authorities and individual role tasks.Creating a COOP begins with an assessment of how the organization operates to identify mission-critical staff, resources, procedures, and equipment. Suppliers, partners, and contractors identify other companies with whom they routinely interact and create a list of these companies. Therefore, the correct answer is the Continuity of Operations Plan.

×：Cyber Incident Response Plan

Cyber Incident Recovery is a plan for recovery from a cyber attack.

×：Crew Emergency Plan

A Crew Emergency Plan is a plan for the smooth transition of a facility’s staff to a secure environment.

×：IT Contingency Plan

A contingency plan is a plan that outlines the measures to be taken in the event of an accident, disaster, or other emergency.

〇：To allow the database to execute transactions as a single unit without interruption.

Online transaction processing (OLTP) is used when databases are clustered to provide high fault tolerance and performance. It provides a mechanism to monitor and address problems as they occur. For example, if a process stops functioning, the monitoring function within OLTP will detect and attempt to restart the process. If the process cannot be restarted, the transaction that occurred is rolled back to ensure that no data has been corrupted or that only a portion of the transaction occurred; OLTP records when the transaction occurred (in real time). Usually multiple databases in a distributed environment are updated.

This classification by the extent to which transaction processing is appropriate is very complex. Therefore, database software must implement ACID characteristics. Among them is atomicity, which means that the transaction is either executed entirely or not executed at all. It is the property that a transaction must either be executed completely or not at all.

When a question like this is answered incorrectly, judging that you could not solve it because you did not know OLTP will hinder your future study methods. Although the question text is worded in a complicated way, it is more important to understand what atomicity is in ACID than to memorize the definition of OLTP to solve the actual question.

×：To be able to establish database consistency rules.

It enforces the consistency rules as stated in the database security policy, but does not imply transaction atomicity.

×：To prevent rollbacks from occurring.

Transaction atomicity does not refer to suppressing rollbacks.

×：To prevent concurrent processes from interacting with each other.

This falls under independence, isolation, and segregation. Independence, isolation, and quarantine (isolation) means that the processes are hidden from other operations during processing. It is the property that even if multiple transactions are executed simultaneously, they must not produce the same processing results as if they were executed alone.

CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

There are many different types of distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks; there is no IPSec flood; UDP flood, SYN flood, and MAC flood are all distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

The data link layer or Layer 2 of the OSI model adds a header and trailer to the packet to prepare the packet in binary format in local area network or wide area network technology for proper line transmission. Layer 2 is divided into two functional sublayers. The upper sublayer is logical link control (LLC), which is defined in the IEEE 802.2 specification. It communicates with the network layer above the data link layer. Below the LLC is the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer, which specifies interfaces with the protocol requirements of the physical layer.

Penetration testing is an attempt to penetrate a system connected to a network. Penetration allows for any kind of manipulation and can bring the service itself to a halt. Therefore, the focus of testing is on penetration. The sequence is: planning, preliminary investigation, search for vulnerabilities, evaluation, attack, and reporting. Therefore, the correct answer is “report generation.

〇：Buffer overflow

A buffer is an area reserved by an application to store something in it, like some user input. After the application receives input, the instruction pointer is put into the buffer. A buffer overflow occurs when the application accidentally allows the input to overwrite the instruction pointer in the code and write it to the buffer area. Once the instruction pointer is overwritten, it can be executed under the application’s security context.

×：Traffic Analysis

Traffic Analysis is incorrect because it is a method of revealing information by looking at traffic patterns on the network.

×：Race Condition

Incorrect because it does not indicate a race condition attack; if two different processes need to perform their tasks on a resource, they need to follow the correct order.

×：Covert Storage

Incorrect because in a covert storage channel, processes are capable of communicating through some type of storage space on the system.

〇：Conflict condition

A race condition is present when a process performs a task on a shared resource and the sequence could be in the wrong order. 2 or more processes can have a race condition if they use a shared resource, like data in a variable. It is important that processes perform their functions in the correct sequence.

×：Backdoors

Backdoors are incorrect because they are “listening” services on certain ports. Backdoors are implemented by attackers to allow easy access to the system without authenticating as a normal system user.

×：Maintenance Hooks

Maintenance hooks are specific software codes that allow easy and unauthorized access to sensitive parts of a software product. Software programmers use maintenance hooks to allow them to get quick access to the code so that they can make fixes in immediate, but this is dangerous.

×：Data validation errors

Data validation errors are wrong because an attacker cannot operate on the process execution sequence.

〇：Run an algorithm that identifies unused committed memory and informs the operating system that memory is available.

This answer describes the function of the garbage collector, not the memory manager. The garbage collector is a countermeasure against memory leaks. It is software that runs an algorithm to identify unused committed memory and tells the operating system to mark that memory as “available. Different types of garbage collectors work with different operating systems, programming languages, and algorithms.

In some cases, a four-choice question can be answered without knowing the exact answer; since there is only one correct answer in a four-choice question, the answers can be grouped together to reduce it to “since they are saying the same thing, it is not right that only one of them is correct, therefore they are both wrong.

There are two answers to the effect of controlling the process to handle memory appropriately, but if the memory manager does not have that functionality, both would be correct, and therefore can be eliminated from the choices in the first place.

×：If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, use complex controls to guarantee integrity and confidentiality.

If processes need to use the same shared memory segment, the memory manager uses complex controls to ensure integrity and confidentiality. This is important to protect memory and the data in it, since two or more processes can share access to the same segment with potentially different access rights. The memory manager also allows many users with different levels of access rights to interact with the same application running on a single memory segment.

×：Restrict processes to interact only with the memory segments allocated to them.

The memory manager is responsible for limiting the interaction of processes to only those memory segments allocated to them. This responsibility falls under the protection category and helps prevent processes from accessing segments to which they are not allowed. Another protection responsibility of the memory manager is to provide access control to memory segments.

×：Swap contents from RAM to hard drive as needed.

This is incorrect because swapping contents from RAM to hard drive as needed is the role of memory managers in the relocation category. When RAM and secondary storage are combined, they become virtual memory. The system uses the hard drive space to extend the RAM memory space. Another relocation responsibility is to provide pointers for applications when instructions and memory segments are moved to another location in main memory.

Cross-site tracing is an attack to obtain authentication information by embedding TRACE method HTTP communication in a web page. Suppose the TRACE method is embedded in the login screen by XSS. After the password to log in is sent, it is returned by TRACE and comes back. The password that has just been sent is returned to the browser, leading to a compromise.

〇：Reviewing and evaluating against security documentation.

Provisioning refers to the management of account information. Reviewing documents is not part of provisioning. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Review and evaluate security documentation.” The answer will be

×：When an employee leaves the company, the account should be deactivated as soon as possible.

This is proper provisioning for users and account usage that belong to the organization.

×：Periodic review and adherence to the principle of least privilege.

This is appropriate provisioning for account access privileges.

×：Appropriate deletion of accounts that are no longer needed.

This is appropriate provisioning for the management of minimum account information.

〇：Information used to reconstruct data

RAID can improve system performance by providing fault tolerance to the hard drive and the data it holds. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting the data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also distributed across each disk. This is called parity, and if one disk fails, the other disks can work together to recover the data.

×：Information used to create new data

This is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data, but rather as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to erase data

Parity information is not used to erase data. This is incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to construct data

Parity information is not used to create data. Incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

〇：SAML assertions are used to enable identity federation and distributed systems.

SAML provides a model that allows two parties to share authentication information about one entity. The two parties are considered a Service Provider (SP) and an Identity Provider (IdP). The Identity Provider asserts information about the principal, such as whether the subject is authenticated or has certain attributes. The service provider uses the information provided by the identity provider to make access decisions about the services it provides, including whether to trust the identity provider’s assertions. By trusting the identity provider’s information, the service provider can provide services without requiring the principal to authenticate again. This framework enables federated identification and distributed authentication across domains.

A SAML assertion is information about a principal contained in a SAML response that is returned to the service provider after authentication has been processed by the identity provider.

×：Two SAML assertions (authentication and authorization) are used to indicate that an authority by SAML has validated a particular subject.

The Identity Provider will not return two SAML assertions; one assertion will be returned per request.

×：The SAML binding specification describes how to embed SAML messages within the TCP and UDP protocols.

It is not classified in the sense of within the TCP and UDP protocols.

×：The SAML profile has a definition for issuing a refresh token.

Refresh tokens are a concept in the OAuth/OIDC family.

IEEE 802.11 is one of the wireless LAN standards established by IEEE.

〇：Zachman Framework

The Zachman Framework is an enterprise architecture that determines the what, how, where, who, when, and why for each mandate. Enterprise architecture is to create a management structure to achieve business goals. We create an organization to achieve business goals, and basically, the larger the business goals, the larger the organization. If the structure of the organization is not in place, the organization will not run efficiently, as there may be residual work that needs to be done, or there may be friction between jobs due to authority that is covered by others. Therefore, it is necessary to clarify the scope of each job authority in order to put the organization in order. The job authority here is different from the perspectives of human resources or sales. It is easier to think of them as hierarchically separated to achieve business goals. Clarify the scope in Executive, Business Management, Architecture, Engineers, Subcontractors, and Stakeholders, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Zachman Framework.

×：SABSA

SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework to ensure that security measures are working properly in achieving business goals. Unlike the Zachman Framework, the tasks to be organized are hierarchical elements. Business Requirements > Conceptual Architecture > Logical Service Architecture > Physical Infrastructure Architecture > Technology and Products, each with a 5W1H practice.

×：Five-W method

There is no such term. If there is, it is a term coined to make it easier to interpret.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

〇：Parallel testing or full interruption testing

A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is considered a functional analysis where the team gathers data through interviews and documentation sources. Document business functions, activities, and transactions. Develop a hierarchy of business functions. Finally, a classification scheme is applied that indicates the level of importance of each individual function. Parallel and full interruption tests are not part of the BIA. These tests are performed to ensure the ongoing effectiveness of the business continuity plan to accommodate the constantly changing environment. While full interruption testing involves shutting down the original site and resuming operations and processing at an alternate site, parallel testing is performed to ensure that a particular system will actually function properly at the alternate off-site function.

×：Application of a classification scheme based on criticality levels.

This is incorrect because it is performed during a BIA. This is done by identifying a company’s critical assets and mapping them to characteristics such as maximum allowable downtime, operational disruption and productivity, financial considerations, regulatory liability, and reputation.

×：Gathering information through interviews

This is not correct as it is done during the BIA. The BCP committee does not truly understand all business processes, the steps to be taken, or the resources and supplies those processes require. Therefore, the committee should collect this information from people in the know, which are department heads and specific employees within the organization.

×：Document business functions

This is incorrect because the BCP committee makes this part of the BIA. Business activities and transactions must be documented. This information can come from department managers and specific employees who are interviewed or surveyed. Once the information is documented, the BCP committee can conduct an analysis to determine which processes, equipment, or operational activities are most critical.

〇：Restore the virus unpatched file version from the backup media.

The best practice is to install an unpatched, uninfected version of the file from the backup media. It is important to restore files that are known to be clean, as attempts to remove the files may corrupt them. The most important thing is not to spread the impact, but attempting to unilaterally delete files may make them unavailable for later investigation.

×：Replace the file with the file saved the previous day.

The file saved the previous day may also contain the virus.

×：Delete the file and contact the vendor.

This is an incorrect answer because the condition of this question is that if the file is deleted, the normal file content itself may be damaged.

×：Back up the data and delete the file.

This is an incorrect answer because backing up the data that contains the virus and deleting the file does not result in a clean situation.

〇：Digital Millennium Copyright Act

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) is a U.S. copyright law that makes it a crime, among other things, for technology to infringe upon the access control measures established to protect copyrighted material. Therefore, the correct answer is “Digital Millennium Copyright Act.

If you find a way to “unlock” a proprietary method of protecting an e-book, you can charge this act. Even if you do not share the actual copyrighted book with anyone, the specific law has been broken and you will be convicted.

×：COPPA

The Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) is a law that allows for the safe use of children’s sites on the Internet and prohibits children from being put at risk if they do not have any terms and conditions The law prohibits children from being endangered without any terms and conditions so that they can safely use the Internet for children.

×：Federal Privacy Act

There is no such law, but a close equivalent is the U.S. Federal Data Privacy Act. This would be a comprehensive privacy law at the federal level in the United States.

×：GDPR

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a privacy law for EU citizens that is a stricter version of the Data Protection Directive.

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a way to implement a virtual private network (VPN). It is Microsoft’s proprietary VPN protocol that operates at the data link layer of the OSI model; PPTP can only provide a single connection and can operate over a PPP connection.

〇：XACML

XACML allows two or more companies to have a trust model set up to share identity, authentication, and authorization methods. This means that when you authenticate against your own software, you can pass the authentication parameters to your partner. This allows them to interact with their partner’s software without having to authenticate more than once. This is done via XACML (Extensible Access Control Markup Language), which allows multiple organizations to share application security policies based on a trust model XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML XACML is a markup language and processing model implemented in XML. It declares access control policies and describes how to interpret access control policies.

×：XML (Extensible Markup Language)

XML (Extensible Markup Language) is incorrect because it is a way to electronically code documents and represent data structures such as web services. XML is not used to share security information. XML is an open standard that is more robust than traditional HTML. In addition to serving as a markup language, XML also serves as the foundation for other industry-specific XML standards. With XML, companies can communicate with each other while using a markup language that meets their specific needs.

×：SPML

Service Provisioning Markup Language (SPML) is incorrect because it is used by companies to exchange user, resource, and service provisioning information rather than application security information. SPML is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS that allows enterprise platforms, such as web portals and application servers, to provision requests to multiple companies for the purpose of securely and quickly setting up web services and applications. It is intended to enable the generation of.

×：GML

Incorrect because GML (Generalized Markup Language) is a method created by IBM for document formatting. It describes a document in terms of parts (chapters, paragraphs, lists, etc.) and their relationships (heading levels). GML was the predecessor of SGML (Standard Generalized Markup Language) and HTML (Hypertext Markup Language).

〇：Regular training to change employee attitudes

Behavior-directed controls are intended to direct the behavior required of employees as part of organizational management. Regular training that changes employee awareness falls under the action-directed type. Therefore, the correct answer is “Regular training to change employee attitudes”.

×：Remotely directed defenses using drone audits

This falls under reinforcing (compensating) defensive measures.

×：Defensive measures to be behavioral psychological barriers due to physical barriers

This is a physical (physically) defensive measure.

×：Developing recurrence prevention measures to review certain actions

This is a corrective measure.

〇：Socket

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) are transport protocols used by applications to retrieve data over a network. Both use ports to communicate with the upper OSI layer and keep track of the various conversations that occur simultaneously. Ports are also the mechanism used to identify how other computers access services. When a TCP or UDP message is formed, the source and destination ports are included in the header information along with the source and destination IP addresses. This IP address and port number is called a socket; the IP address serves as the gateway to the computer and the port serves as the gateway to the actual protocol or service.

×：IP address

This is incorrect because the IP address does not tell the packet how to communicate with the service or protocol. The purpose of an IP address is to identify and address the location of a host or network interface. Each node in a network has a unique IP address. This information, along with the source and destination ports, make up a socket. The IP address tells the packet where to go, and the port indicates how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol.

×：Port

The port is incorrect because it tells the packet only how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol. It does not tell the packet where it should go. The IP address provides this information. Ports are communication endpoints used by IP protocols such as TCP and UDP. Ports are identified by a number.

×：Frame

Frame is incorrect because the term is used to refer to a datagram after the header and trailer have been given to the data link layer.

〇：Social Engineering

Social engineering is an attack that invites human error rather than system. It occurs regardless of system architecture and installed software.

×：DDoS Attacks

A DDoS attack is a mass DoS attack against a target website or server from multiple computers.

×：Ransomware

Ransomware is malware that freezes data by encrypting it and demands a ransom from the owner.

×：Zero-day attacks

A zero-day attack is an attack on a vulnerability that was disclosed before it was fixed.

〇：Approval of the attack to the target organization

Permission must be obtained from the target organization for the attack during the planning phase. Even though it is a test, it takes an action that is similar to an attack. During the implementation, the target system cannot be updated, so approval must be obtained. We also need to understand the system to be penetrated in great detail, so that the information itself is not leaked to the outside world. Also, a successful intrusion will indicate that the system has been compromised. It is necessary to make an arrangement such as not waiting until a report is generated to inform the company of the situation. Therefore, the correct answer is “Approval of attack on the target organization.

×：Share the target organization’s design documents.

This is done as necessary. Although there are various design documents, detailed design documents such as detailed design documents and program design documents are generally not presented, but only the usage of the service and basic server configuration are generally shared.

×：Confirmation of OS version

As a rule, this is not done. Penetration testing is generally conducted from the investigation of the attack. In particular, there are few cases where the OS version is informed to the penetration tester.

×：Deployment of the attack tools to be used

It is not uncommon for attack tools to be deployed from the organization that possesses the system that is the target of the penetration. This in itself is an act of limiting the attack methods, as it does not constitute a realistic test.

〇：It encompasses network and code analysis and is sometimes referred to as electronic data discovery.

Forensics is the analysis of electronic data that may have been affected by technology, authentication, and criminal activity requiring special techniques to ensure the preservation of information. It comes together of computer science, information technology and engineering in the legal system. When discussing digital forensics with others, it may be described as computer forensics, network forensics, electronic data discovery, cyber forensics, etc.

×：The study of computer technology.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it involves information technology rather than research. It encompasses the study of information technology, but also includes collecting and protecting evidence and working within specific legal systems.

×：A set of hardware-specific processes that must be followed in order for evidence to be admissible in court.

Digital forensics is incorrect because it does not refer to hardware or software. It is a set of specific processes related to computer usage, examination of residual data, technical analysis and description of technical characteristics of the data, and reconstruction of the authentication of data by computer usage that must be followed for the evidence to be admissible in court.

×：Before an incident occurs, digital forensics roles and responsibilities should be assigned to network administrators.

This is wrong because digital forensics must be done by people with the proper training and skill set who could not possibly be administrators or network administrators. Digital forensics can be fragile and must have been worked on properly. If someone reboots an attacked system or inspects various files, it could corrupt and change executable evidence, key file timestamps, and erase any footprints the criminal may have left behind.

〇：Considering an architecture that can handle health information.

Carol is a systems engineer and is expected to explore systemic realities. It is likely that she is deviating from her role to preemptively explain why it cannot be done systemically, to modify approvals other than the system configuration, or to initiate legal work. The correct answer, therefore, is, “Think about an architecture that can handle health information.” The correct answer would be

×：To address the dangers of handling health information in the system.

The basic stance of a system engineer is to obtain feasibility as a system. Although it is necessary to supplement the danger to the proposed idea, appealing the danger should not be the main purpose.

×：Obtaining permission to entrust health information from a medical institution.

A contract should be signed and the legal scope of responsibility should be clarified. This is outside the scope of the system engineer’s scope.

×：To prepare a written consent to use for handling health information.

It is necessary to obtain consent for end users before using the service, and the scope of legal responsibility needs to be clarified. This is outside the scope object of the system engineer’s scope.

Student numbers, which are left to the control of each school, cannot be considered privacy information because they are not sufficient information to identify an individual.

〇：Shoulder Surfing Attacks

Shoulder surfing is a type of browsing attack in which an attacker looks over the shoulder of another person to see what is being typed on that person’s monitor items or keyboard. Of the attacks listed, this is the easiest to perform in that it requires no knowledge of the computer system. Therefore, the correct answer is a shoulder surfing attack.

×：Dictionary attack

A dictionary attack is an unauthorized login that targets users who use words as passwords.

×：Side-channel attack

A side-channel attack is an attack that eavesdrops on system data from physical information.

×：Timing Attacks

A timing attack is an attack in which various input information is given to a device that processes ciphers, and the cipher key or other information is deduced from the difference in processing time. If processing time is taken, it can be inferred as a rough indication that the process is proceeding normally as a process, and so on.

〇：Increasing database security controls and providing more granularity.

The best approach to protecting the database in this situation would be to increase controls and assign detailed permissions. These measures would ensure that users cannot abuse their permissions and that the confidentiality of the information is maintained. The granularity of permissions would give network administrators and security professionals additional control over the resources they are charged with protecting, and the granular level would allow them to give individuals just the exact level of access they need.

×：Implement an access control where each user’s privileges are displayed each time they access the database.

Implementing an access control that displays each user’s permissions is incorrect because they are an example of one control each time they access the database. This is not the overall way of dealing with user access to a database full of information. This may be an example of better database security control, but it needs to be limited to the right places.

×：Change the classification label of the database to a higher security status.

The classification level of the information in the database should previously be determined based on its level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This option implies that a higher level of authorization should be given, but there is no indication in the question text that the security level is inappropriate.

×：Reduce security. Allow all users to access information as needed.

The answer to reduce security is incorrect.

〇：Ensure that some systems are executed at the alternate site.

Parallel testing compares how some systems run at the alternate site and how the results are processed at the primary site. This is to assure that systems run at the alternate site and does not affect service productivity.

×：All departments will be sent a copy of the disaster recovery plan for completeness.

This alternative is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

×：Representatives from each department meet to validate the plan.

This option is incorrect because it describes a structured walk-through test.

×：The normal operation system is taken down.

This option is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

〇：Identity Theft

Identity theft is a situation in which a person obtains important personal information, such as driver’s license numbers, bank account numbers, identification cards, or social security numbers, and uses that information to impersonate another person. Typically, identity thieves use personal information to obtain credit, goods, or services in the victim’s name. This can have consequences such as destroying the victim’s credit rating, creating a false criminal record, and issuing an arrest warrant to the wrong individual. Identity theft can be categorized in two ways: true name and account takeover. True name identity theft means that the thief uses your personal information to open a new account. The thief might open a new credit card account, establish cell phone service like Sam’s, or open a new checking account to obtain blank checks.

×：Phishing Scams

Incorrect because it is a type of social engineering attack intended to obtain personal information, letters of credit, credit card numbers, and financial data. Attackers use a variety of methods to entice users to divulge sensitive data. While the goal of phishing scams is to get victims to hand over their personal information, the goal of identity theft is to use that personal information for personal or financial gain. Attackers can use phishing attacks as a means of committing identity theft.

Since the specific technique is not described in the question text, it cannot be said to be a phishing scam.

×：Pharming

Incorrect, as this is a technical attack in which the victim is deceived into submitting personal information to the attacker via an unauthorized website.The victim types a web address such as “www.nicebank.com” into their browser. The victim’s system sends a request to the victimized DNS server that directs the victim to a website under the attacker’s control. The site looks like the requested Web site, and the user enters his or her personal information. The personal information can be used by the attacker for identity theft.

We cannot say that this is pharming because the specific technique is not described in the question text.

×：Account takeover

Account takeover identity theft is incorrect because it means using personal information to access a person’s existing account rather than opening a new account. Typically, the mailing address on the account is changed and a huge bill is filed before the person whose account was stolen is aware of the problem. The Internet has made it easier for identity thieves to use stolen information because they can conduct transactions without personal interaction.

〇：Clustering

Clustering is a fault-tolerant server technology in which servers are redundantly analogous. A server cluster is a group of servers that can be logically interpreted by users as one server and managed as a single logical system. Clustering provides availability and scalability. It helps to provide immunity to this group, physically distinct systems and failure and improved performance.

The problem statement is phrased in a difficult sentence. It would be difficult to derive the exact specific words from the phrase “logically coupled with a physically distinct group of systems.” In such questions, it is useful to use a process of elimination to derive options from the words that would be the point of the question. From the latter part, “technology that helps provide immunity to failure while also helping with scalability,” we can see that it is something that is both fault-tolerant and scalable. Fault tolerance alone does not narrow down the choices, but in terms of scalability features, clustering falls into this category. Therefore, the correct answer is “clustering.

×：Disk dupe

There is no such term. When presented with a seemingly incomprehensible sentence, you may consider the possibility that it is a word you probably do not know, given the time limit.

×：RAID

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent/Inexpensive Disks) is a technology for operating multiple hard disks as a single hard disk. It has a mechanism to improve physical redundancy by how the data to be recorded is written to the hard disks. This is not a technology system that ensures scalability.

×：Virtualization

Virtualization is a technology that makes it appear as if multiple operating systems are running on the system. Or, it is an environment that enables the construction of a real environment through simulation-like operations surrounding them. While virtualized environments allow for the construction of environments that provide fault tolerance and scalability, they do not match the operation of logically combining them with physically different groups of systems.

〇：Graham-Denning Model

The Graham-Denning model addresses how access rights between subjects and objects are defined, developed, and integrated. It defines a basic set of rights in terms of the commands that a particular subject can execute on an object. The model has eight basic protective rights or rules on how to safely perform these types of functions

×：Brewer-Nash Model

It is incorrect because its purpose is to provide access control that can be changed dynamically according to the user’s previous actions. The main purpose is to protect against conflicts of interest due to user access attempts. For example, if a large marketing firm provides marketing promotions and materials for two banks, the employee responsible for the Bank A project should not be able to see information about Bank B, the marketing firm’s other bank customer. A conflict of interest could arise because the banks are competitors. If the project manager of the marketing firm’s Project A can see information about Bank B’s new marketing campaign, he may attempt to execute it rather than promote it to please more direct customers. Marketing firms have a bad reputation when internal employees can act irresponsibly.

×：Clark-Wilson Model

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it is implemented to protect data integrity and ensure that transactions are properly formatted within the application. Subjects can only access objects through authorized programs. Segregation of duties is enforced. Auditing is required. The Clark-Wilson model addresses three integrity goals: preventing changes by unauthorized users, preventing inappropriate changes by unauthorized users, and maintaining internal and external consistency.

×：Bell-LaPadula Model

This model was developed to address concerns about the security of U.S. military systems and the leakage of classified information, and is incorrect. The primary goal of the model is to prevent unauthorized access to classified information. It is a state machine model that enforces the confidentiality aspect of access control. Matrices and security levels are used to determine if a subject has access to different objects. Specific rules are applied to control how objects interact with each other compared to the subject’s object classification.

〇：MTTR

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is the average time it takes to repair a device and return it to pre-failure production. Using a redundant array as an example, MTTR is the time it takes to replace the failed drive after the actual failure is noticed and the time the redundant array has completed rewriting the information on the new drive. Therefore, the correct answer is MTTR.

×：SLA

Service Level Agreements (SLA) are agreements on service quality, such as usage volume and failure recovery.

×：Hot Swap

Hot swapping refers to replacing, attaching, or disconnecting parts, cables, etc. while equipment is still in operation.

×：MTBF

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is the average time it takes for a device to fail after repair.

〇：Salvage Teams

The BCP coordinator should understand the needs of the company and the types of teams that need to be developed and trained. Employees should be assigned to specific teams based on their knowledge and skill sets. Named leaders, each team must have members and the ability to direct their activities. These team leaders will be responsible not only for ensuring that team goals are met, but also for interacting with each other to ensure that each team is operating properly. The salvage team is responsible for initiating recovery of the original site. They are also responsible for backing up data from the alternate site and restoring it within the new facility, carefully terminating any unforeseen operations, and ensuring equipment and personnel are transported to the new facility.

×：Damage Assessment Team

The Damage Assessment Team is incorrect because it is responsible for determining the extent and severity of damage.

×：BCP Team

Wrong because the BCP team is responsible for creating and maintaining a business continuity plan.

×：Recovery Team

Wrong because the Recovery Team is responsible for getting an alternate site to work and to keep the environment functioning.

〇：Salt

A rainbow table is a pre-built list of ciphertexts that match plaintext and have hashes that match passwords. The table can contain millions of pairs. Salting is random data used as additional input to a one-way function that “hashes” a password or passphrase. The primary function of a salting is to protect against dictionary or compiled rainbow table attacks.

×：Login Attempt Restrictions

Effective against all unauthorized login methods, but not a direct or effective countermeasure against rainbow tables.

×：Key stretching

Replacing passwords with longer, random strings for encryption purposes.

×：Hashing

Password hashing is a fixed-length cipher (hash) statement for secure password storage.

HIPAA covered entities and the organizations and individuals who assist them in their business are treated in the same manner as HIPAA covered entities. Health care providers, health information clearinghouses, and health insurance plans are covered entities. Developers of health apps are responsible as programmers rather than holders or plan holders of bodily information. They may not be covered by HITECH, which focuses on how body information is managed. Therefore, the correct answer is “health app developer”.

It is not necessary to know the detailed HITECH requirements. You can classify them based on whether or not you are dealing with information and answer the questions by process of elimination.

Copyright applies to books, art, music, software, etc. It is granted automatically and is valid for 70 years after the creator’s death and 95 years after creation. Therefore, the correct answer is “70 years”.

〇：Unit Testing

Unit testing involves testing individual components in a controlled environment to verify data structures, logic, and boundary conditions. After the programmer develops a component, it is tested with several different input values and in a variety of situations. Unit testing can begin early in the development process and usually continues throughout the development phase. One of the benefits of unit testing is that it identifies problems early in the development cycle. It is easier and less expensive to make changes to individual units.

×：Acceptance Testing

This is incorrect because acceptance testing is done to verify that the code meets the customer’s requirements. This test is applied to some or all of the application, but usually not individual components.

×：Regression Testing

Regression testing is incorrect because it implies retesting a system after changes have been made to ensure its functionality, performance, and protection. Essentially, regression testing is done to identify bugs where functionality no longer works as intended as a result of a program change. It is not uncommon for developers to fix one problem, accidentally create a new problem, or fix a new problem and solve an old one. Regression testing involves checking for previously fixed bugs to ensure that they have not reappeared and re-running previous tests.

×：Integration Testing

Integration testing is incorrect because it verifies that components work together as outlined in the design specification. After unit testing, individual components or units are tested in combination to verify that they meet functional, performance, and reliability requirements.

〇：Send a report labeled “No output”.

If there is nothing to report (nothing to report), you need to make sure the manager is aware that the report has no information and is not only to be held accountable.

×：Send an email notifying the manager that there is nothing to report.

It is not appropriate to suddenly keep a record of the report by e-mail, since the report is normally scheduled to be reported in the operation. Realistically, wouldn’t you be more endearing to your manager if you communicated with him or her every step of the way? No, I am not asking you to do that.

×：Re-submit last week’s report and submit the date of last week’s report as this week’s date.

Delivering last week’s report does not express that nothing was reported this week.

×：Nothing.

You are required to report that nothing happened.

〇：VLAN

Virtual LANs (VLANs) allow logical isolation and grouping of computers based on resource requirements, security, or business needs, despite the standard physical location of the system. Computers in the same department configured on the same VLAN network can all receive the same broadcast messages, allowing all users to access the same types of resources regardless of their physical location.

×：Open Network Architecture  

Open network architecture is wrong because it describes the technology that can configure a network; the OSI model provides a framework for developing products that operate within an open network architecture.

×：Intranet

Incorrect because an intranet is a private network used by a company when it wants to use Internet and Web-based technologies in its internal network.

×：VAN  

Incorrect because a Value Added Network (VAN) is an electronic data interchange (EDI) infrastructure developed and maintained by a service bureau.

Ethernet is a way of communication used for local area networks; LANs and such communicate over Ethernet. In other words, most communication is now done over Ethernet.

〇：Differential Backup

Backups can be taken in full, differential, or incremental. Most files are not changed daily to save very much time and resources, and it is better to develop a backup plan that does not back up for data that is not continually changing. In backup software, when a file is modified or created, the file system sets the archive bit and the backup software determines if that file should be backed up. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup.

×：Incremental Backup

An incremental backup backs up all data that has changed since the last backup.

×：Full Backup

A full backup backs up the entire database or the entire system.

×：Partial Backup

Not in the backup category.

〇：Vulnerability assessments can help prioritize weaknesses that need to be addressed.

The most important aspect of an internal or third-party vulnerability assessment is that it can enumerate all potential vulnerabilities a company has and prioritize corrective actions.

×：Third-party security audits are only required if regulations require it.

Even if some organizations do not require an independent review, it can often help find minor weaknesses that might have been overlooked.

×：Vulnerability assessments and penetration tests are essentially the same.

A vulnerability assessment is wrong because it enumerates all weaknesses and ensures that countermeasures are properly prioritized. Penetration testing aims to examine the likelihood that a real-world attacker will exploit a given weakness to achieve a goal.

×：Internal assessments are of little value.

Internal audits of enterprise security are usually not sufficient and can be very beneficial when conducted in conjunction with third-party reviews. However, it can often help find minor weaknesses that may have been overlooked.

〇：Telnet must be used to send commands and data.

Telnet sends all data, including administrator credentials, in plain text and should not be allowed for remote administration. This type of communication should be via a more secure protocol, such as SSH.

×：Only a small number of administrators should be allowed to perform remote functions.

Wrong, as it is true that only a few administrators should be able to perform remote functions. This minimizes the risk to the network.

×：Critical systems should be managed locally, not remotely.

Wrong because it is true that critical systems need to be managed locally, not remotely. It is safer to send management commands on an internal private network than over a public network.

×：Strong authentication is required.

Wrong because it is true that strong authentication is required for any management activity. Anything weaker than strong authentication, such as a password, is easy for an attacker to break in and gain administrative access.

〇：COBIT defines IT goals, ITIL provides process-level procedures

COBIT is a framework developed by ISACA (formerly the Information Systems Audit and Controls) and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It defines goals for controls, not just security needs, to ensure that IT is properly managed and that IT is responsive to business needs. The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the de facto standard for IT service management best practices. A customizable framework, ITIL provides goals, the general activities required to achieve these goals, and the input and output values for each process required to achieve these determined goals. In essence, COBIT addresses “what needs to be accomplished” and ITIL addresses “how to accomplish”.

×：COBIT is a model of IT governance, ITIL is a model of corporate governance.

While COBIT can be used as a model for IT governance, ITIL is wrong because it is not a model for corporate governance. In fact, the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) is a model of corporate governance. COBIT is derived from the COSO framework. COBIT can be thought of as a way to accomplish many COSO goals, but only from an IT perspective. To achieve many of the goals addressed in COBIT, organizations can use ITIL, which provides process-level steps to achieve IT service management goals.

×：COBIT is a model for corporate governance, ITIL is customizable for IT service management.

As mentioned above, COBIT is incorrect because it can be used as a model for IT governance, not corporate governance. COSO is a model of corporate governance. The second half of the answer is correct. ITIL is a customizable framework and is available as either a series of books or online for IT service management.

×：COBIT provides a business objectives framework, ITIL provides an IT service level objectives framework.

This is inappropriate because COBIT defines the control objectives that should be used to properly manage IT, enabling IT to address business needs as well as IT security needs. ITIL provides steps to achieve IT service management goals related to business needs. ITIL was created because of the increased reliance on information technology to meet business needs.

〇：Security Management Committee

Steve serves on the Security Steering Committee, which is responsible for making decisions on tactical and strategic security issues within the company. The committee consists of individuals from across the organization and should meet at least quarterly. In addition to the responsibilities outlined in this question, the Security Steering Committee is responsible for establishing a clearly defined vision statement that supports it in cooperation with the organizational intent of the business. It should provide support for the goals of confidentiality, integrity, and availability as they relate to the business goals of the organization. This vision statement should be supported by a mission statement that provides support and definition to the processes that apply to the organization and enable it to reach its business goals.

Each organization may call it by a different name, or they may be entrusted with a series of definition-to-approval processes for security. In this case, the term “operations” is the closest that comes to mind.

×：Security Policy Committee

This is incorrect because senior management is the committee that develops the security policy. Usually, senior management has this responsibility unless they delegate it to an officer or committee. The security policy determines the role that security plays within the organization. It can be organizational, issue specific, or system specific. The Governing Board does not directly create the policy, but reviews and approves it if acceptable.

×：Audit Committee

Incorrect because it provides independent and open communication between the Board of Directors, management, internal auditors, and external auditors. Its responsibilities include the system of internal controls, the engagement and performance of the independent auditors, and the performance of the internal audit function. The Audit Committee reports its findings to the Governing Board, but does not fail to oversee and approve the security program.

×：Risk Management Committee

Incorrect as it is to understand the risks facing the organization and work with senior management to bring the risks down to acceptable levels. This committee does not oversee the security program. The Security Steering Committee typically reports its findings to the Risk Management Committee on information security. The risk management committee should consider the entire business risk, not just the IT security risk.

〇：Public key infrastructure is a mechanism configuration for public key cryptographic distribution, and public key cryptography is another name for asymmetric encryption.

Public key cryptography is asymmetric cryptography. The terms are used interchangeably. Public key cryptography is a concept within the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which consists of various parts such as Certificate Authorities, Registration Authorities, certificates, keys, programs, and users. Public Key Infrastructure is used to identify and create users, distribute and maintain certificates, revoke and distribute certificates, maintain encryption keys, and for the purpose of encrypted communication and authentication.

×：Public key infrastructure uses symmetric algorithms and public key cryptography uses asymmetric algorithms.

This is incorrect because the public key infrastructure uses a hybrid system of symmetric and asymmetric key algorithms and methods. Public key cryptography is to use asymmetric algorithms. Therefore, asymmetric and public key cryptography are interchangeable, meaning they are the same. Examples of asymmetric algorithms are RSA, elliptic curve cryptography (ECC), Diffie-Hellman, and El Gamal.

×：Public key infrastructure is used to perform key exchange, while public key cryptography is used to create public/private key pairs.

This is incorrect because public key cryptography is the use of asymmetric algorithms used to create public/private key pairs, perform key exchange, and generate and verify digital signatures.

×：Public key infrastructure provides confidentiality and integrity, while public key cryptography provides authentication and non-repudiation.

Incorrect because the public key infrastructure itself does not provide authentication, non-repudiation, confidentiality, or integrity.

〇：Used in structured languages, it decreases development time but is somewhat resource intensive.

Third generation programming languages are easier to deal with than their predecessors. They reduce program development time and allow for simplified and quick debugging. However, these languages are more resource intensive when compared to second generation programming languages.

×：Intuitive manipulation of programming reduces effort, but the amount of manual coding for specific tasks tends to be greater than in previous generations.

The advantages and disadvantages of 4th generation programming are explained below. It is true that the use of heuristics in fourth generation programming languages has greatly reduced programming effort and errors in the code. However, there is something untrue about the fact that the amount of manual coding is more than required of 3rd generation languages.

×：The use of binaries for coding is very time consuming, but the potential for errors is reduced.

This is incorrect because it is a description of a machine language and implies the advantages and disadvantages of a first generation programming language.

×：It contributes to decreasing programming processing time, but knowledge of machine structures is essential.

Incorrect because it describes second generation programming languages. These languages require extensive knowledge of machine architecture and the programs written in them are only for specific hardware.

〇：Conduct business impact analysis

While no specific scientific equation must be followed to create a continuity plan, certain best practices have been proven over time. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) organization is responsible for developing and documenting many of these best practices so that they are readily available to all. NIST outlines seven steps in Special Publication 800-34 Rev 1, Continuity Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems. Conduct a business impact analysis. Identify preventive controls. Develop a contingency strategy. Develop an information systems contingency plan. Ensure testing, training, and exercises of the plan. Ensure the plan is maintained. Conduct a business impact analysis by identifying critical functions and systems and prioritize them as needed. It also includes identifying vulnerabilities and threats and calculating risks.

×：Identify preventive controls

Wrong because critical functions and systems are prioritized and preventive controls need to be identified after their vulnerabilities, threats, and identified risks (all of which are part of a business impact analysis). Conducting a business impact analysis involves step 2, which is to create a continuity plan, and step 3, which is to identify preventive controls.

×：Develop a Continuity Plan Policy Statement

This is incorrect because you need to create a policy that provides the guidance needed to develop a business continuity plan and assigns authority to the roles needed to perform these tasks. This is the first step in creating a business continuity plan and is done before identifying and prioritizing critical systems and functions that are part of the business impact analysis.

×：Create contingency strategies

Creating a contingency strategy is incorrect because it requires formulating a method to ensure that systems and critical functions are brought online quickly. Before this can be done, a business impact analysis must be performed to determine critical systems and functions and prioritize them during recovery.

〇：DNSSEC

DNSSEC is a set of extensions to the DNS that provide DNS clients (resolvers) with authentication of the origin of DNS data to reduce the threat of DNS poisoning, spoofing, and similar attack types. It is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) specification for securing services.

×：Resource Record

DNS servers contain records that map hostnames to IP addresses, called resource records. The answer is incorrect. When a user’s computer needs to resolve a hostname to an IP address, it looks in its network configuration to find its DNS server. The computer then sends a request containing the hostname to the DNS server for resolution; the DNS server looks at its resource records, finds a record with this particular hostname, retrieves the address, and responds to the computer with the corresponding IP address.

×：Zone Transfer

Primary and secondary DNS servers synchronize their information via zone transfers. The answer is incorrect. After changes are made to the primary DNS server, these changes must be replicated to the secondary DNS server. It is important to configure the DNS servers so that zone transfers can take place between specific servers.

×：Resource Transfer

Equivalent to transferring DNS resource records, but the answer is incorrect.

〇：All security activities shall be conducted within the security department.

When all security activities are performed within the security department, security functions within a silo and is not integrated throughout the organization. In companies that have a security governance program in place, security responsibilities are pervasive throughout the organization, from senior management down the chain of command. A common scenario is executive management with the executive director of operations responsible for risk management activities for a particular business unit. Additionally, employees are responsible for malicious or accidental security breaches.

×：Officers will be updated quarterly on the company’s security status.

Incorrect. Security governance is providing strategic guidance, ensuring that goals are being met, risks are properly managed, and resources are used responsibly. Organizations with a security governance program have a board of directors that understands the importance of security and is aware of the organization’s security performance and breaches.

×：Deploy security products, services, and consultants in an informed manner.

Security governance is incorrect because it is a cohesive system of integrated security components that includes products, people, training, and processes. Therefore, organizations that have a security governance program in place will assist consultants with security products, management services, and consultants in an informed manner. They are also constantly reviewed to ensure they are cost effective.

×：The organization establishes metrics and goals for improving security.

inaccurate because security governance requires performance measurement and oversight mechanisms. Organizations that have a security governance program in place are continually reviewing their processes, including security, with the goal of continuous improvement. On the other hand, an organization lacking a security governance program may proceed without analyzing its performance, thus repeating the same mistakes.

〇：Capability Maturity Model Integration

Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a comprehensive set of integration guidelines for developing products and software. It addresses the various phases of the software development life cycle, including concept definition, requirements analysis, design, development, integration, installation, operation, maintenance, and what should happen at each stage. The model describes the procedures, principles, and practices underlying the maturation of the software development process. It was developed to help software vendors improve their development processes. It will improve software quality, shorten the development life cycle, create and meet milestones in a timely manner, and adopt a proactive approach rather than a reactive approach that is less effective.

×：Software Development Life Cycle

Incorrect because the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) describes how a system should be developed and maintained throughout its life cycle and does not involve process improvement.

×：ISO/IEC 27002

Incorrect because ISO/IEC 27002 is an international standard that outlines how the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) create and maintain an organizational information security management system (ISMS). ISO/IEC 27002 has a section dealing with the acquisition, development, and maintenance of information systems, but does not provide a process improvement model for software development.

×：Certification and Accreditation Process

This is incorrect because the certification and accreditation (C&A) process handles testing and evaluation of systems against predefined criteria. This has nothing to do with improving the software development process.

〇：The ability to control access close to the resource.

Central access control has various advantages such as uniform rules and reduced operational burden. Distributed access control allows access control in close proximity to resources, thus protecting resources independently.

×：It should be possible to design a comprehensive

Distributed access control is not a comprehensive design because the authentication and authorization functions are distributed.

×：Relatively low cost.

Whether or not costs can be kept down cannot be determined by this design concept alone.

×：Logs from various devices make it easier to understand the current status.

Both central access control and distributed access control can acquire logs from various devices.

〇：* (star) Integrity Property

The Biba model defines a model with completeness as having two axioms. The * (star) Integrity Property is that the subordinate’s document is to be seen and there is no Read Down. The * (star) Integrity Property is that there is no Write Up, that is, no rewriting of the supervisor’s document. If the Simple Integrity Axiom is not followed, the subordinate’s document will be seen and may absorb unclassified and incorrect information at a lower level. If the * (star) Integrity Property is not followed, a supervisor’s document will be rewritten, which will release incorrect information to the supervisor who sees it. Therefore, both are integrity conditions.

×：Simple Integrity Property

The Simple Integrity Property is a constraint on Read Down.

×：Strong Tranquillity Axiom

The Strong Tranquillity Axiom is the constraint not to change permissions while the system is running.

×：Weak Tranquillity Axiom

Weak Tranquillity Axiom means do not change privileges until the attribute is inconsistent.

〇：Data User

An individual who uses data for work-related tasks is a data user. Users must have the necessary level of access to data to perform their job duties. They are also responsible for adhering to operational security procedures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data to others. This means that users must take appropriate precautions and follow both security policies and data classification rules.

×：Data Owners

This is incorrect because the data owner has a higher level of responsibility in protecting the data. The data owner is responsible for classifying the data, regularly reviewing the classification level, and delegating responsibility for the data protection position to the data controller. The data owner is usually a manager or executive within the organization and is responsible for the protection of the company’s information assets.

×：Data Controller

Incorrect, as the data controller is responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls as directed by the data owner. In other words, the data administrator is the technician of the controls that protect the data. Her duties include creating backups, restoring data, implementing and maintaining countermeasures, and managing controls.

×：Information Systems Auditor

Incorrect, as they are responsible for evaluating controls. After evaluating the controls, the auditor submits a report to management, mapping the results to the organization’s acceptable level of risk. This has nothing to do with using data or being meticulous in the use of data.

〇：Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities

This is a problem of selecting unrelated items. Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities is a confidentiality issue. Although it is complicatedly worded, the operations on the data are unauthorized and extraction, and none of them include the destruction of data, which is the primary focus of integrity. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities.

In solving this problem, it is not necessary to know what an entity is. The focus is on whether any modification or destruction has taken place.

×：Unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data

Mistake. Because integrity is associated with unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data. Integrity is maintained when unauthorized modification is prevented. Hardware, software, and communication mechanisms must work together to correctly maintain and process data and move data to its intended destination without unexpected changes. Systems and networks must be protected from outside interference and contamination.

×：Unauthorized data modification

Unauthorized data modification is a mistake as it relates to integrity. Integrity is about protecting data, not changing it by users or other systems without authorization.

×：Intentional or accidental data substitution

Incorrect because intentional or accidental data substitution is associated with integrity. Integrity is maintained when assurances of the accuracy and reliability of information and systems are provided along with assurances that data will not be tampered with by unauthorized entities. An environment that enforces integrity prevents attacks, for example, the insertion of viruses, logic bombs, or backdoors into the system that could corrupt or replace data. Users typically incorrectly affect the integrity of the system and its data (internal users may also perform malicious acts). For example, a user may insert incorrect values into a data processing application and charge a customer $3,000 instead of $300.

〇：Brewer-Nash Model

The Chinese Wall Model is a security model that focuses on the flow of information within an organization, such as insider trading. Insider trading occurs when inside information leaks to the outside world. In reality, information can spread to unexpected places as it is passed on orally to unrelated parties. In order to take such information flow into account, access privileges are determined in a simulation-like manner. Therefore, the correct answer is the “Chinese Wall Model (Brewer-Nash Model).

×：Lattice-based Access Control

Lattice-based access control is to assume that a single entity can have multiple access rights and to consider access control as all possible relationships under a certain condition.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

×：Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman Model

The Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman model is a model that aggregates the eight rules of the Graham-Denning model into six rules using an access control matrix.

Gates and fences are used as physical deterrents and preventative measures. Fences as small as 3 feet can be a deterrent, but as tall as 8 feet can be a deterrent and prevention mechanism. The purpose of the fence is to limit the routes in and out of the facility so that they occur only through doors, gates, and turnstiles.

〇：Check for errors caused by principal code modifications.

Regression testing finds defects after code changes have occurred. It looks for reduced or lost functionality, including old bugs. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Check for errors due to changes in the main code.” will be.

×：Install the developed software on the customer’s hardware.

This is not a test, but part of the release.

×：Checking the detection and processing when faced with a failure.

This is so-called troubleshooting and is accomplished by handing over the operational plan and procedures to the operations team.

×：Checking the interfaces of software components.

This is testing against the interface and is performed as part of the test items for internal and external coupling tests.

Matrix is not a network topology. Ring, mesh, and star are network topologies.

〇：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activity taking place within the host system.

Virtual firewalls can be bridge-mode products that monitor individual communication links between virtual machines. They can also be integrated within a hypervisor in a virtual environment. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of guest system software. When a firewall is embedded within the hypervisor, it can monitor all activities that occur within the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual network links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is incorrect because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links between hosts and not network links. Hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activities taking place within the guest system rather than the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is wrong because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links, and the hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, but not the guest system. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of the guest system software. A firewall, when embedded within the hypervisor, can monitor all activities taking place within the system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual guest systems, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the network system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic between guest systems, and a hypervisor integrated allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, not the network system, so Wrong.

〇：Content Delivery Network (CDN)

Content delivery networks (CDNs) are designed to optimize the delivery of content to clients based on their global topology. In such a design, multiple web servers hosted at many points of existence on the Internet are globally synchronized and contain the same content, and the client is usually directed to the nearest source via DNS record manipulation based on geolocation algorithms for can be directed to.

×：Distributed Name Service (DNS)

Wrong, as there is no protocol called Distributed Name Service; DNS refers to the Domain Name Service protocol.

×：Distributed Web Service (DWS)

Distributed Web Services is also wrong because it is an incorrect answer. The concept of a distributed Web services discovery architecture is not a formal protocol, although it has been discussed by the IEEE and others.

×：Content Domain Distribution (CDD)

The term Content Domain Distribution (CDD) does not appear in CISSP’s CBK terminology.

Brute force can be used to decrypt the plaintext, given enough time. This is valid for all key-based ciphers except one-time pads. Eventually the data will be decrypted, but so many false positives will occur that the data will be rendered useless.

〇：TLS is an open community version of SSL.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are cryptographic protocols used to protect communications by encrypting segments of a network connection. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol.

×：TLS is an open community version of SSL. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol. x: The SSL protocol can be modified by developers to extend its capabilities.

This is incorrect because SSL is a proprietary protocol developed by Netscape. This means that the technical community cannot easily interoperate and extend SSL to extend to its functionality.

×：SSL is an open community protocol while TLS is a proprietary protocol.

The meaning and matching are reversed.

×：SSL is an extended version and backward compatible with TLS.

Wrong, since TLS is actually more extensible than SSL and is not backward compatible with SSL.