〇：AS / NZS 4360

AS / NZS 4360 can be used for security risk analysis, but it was not created for that purpose. It takes a much broader approach to risk management than other risk assessment methods, such as NIST or OCTAVE, which focus on IT threats and information security risks. AS / NZS 4360 can be used to understand a firm’s financial, capital, personnel safety, and business decision-making risks.

×：FAP

Incorrect as there is no formal FAP risk analysis methodology.

×：OCTAVE

Image B is incorrect because it focuses on IT threats and information security risks. OCTAVE is intended for use in situations that manage and direct information security risk assessments within an organization. Employees of an organization are empowered to determine the best way to assess security.

×：NIST SP 800-30

Wrong because it is specific to IT threats and how they relate to information threats. Focus is primarily on systems. Data is collected from network and security practices assessments and from people within the organization. Data is used as input values for the risk analysis steps outlined in the 800-30 document.

〇：Risk Mitigation

Risk can be addressed in four basic ways: transfer, avoidance, mitigation, and acceptance. Sue reduces the risk posed by her e-mail system by implementing security controls such as antivirus and anti-spam software. This is also referred to as risk mitigation, where risk is reduced to a level considered acceptable. Risk can be mitigated by improving procedures, changing the environment, erecting barriers to threats, and implementing early detection techniques to stop threats when they occur and reduce damage.

×：Risk Acceptance

This is inappropriate because risk acceptance does not involve spending on protection or countermeasures such as anti-virus software. When accepting a risk, one should be aware of the level of risk faced and the potential damage costs and decide to keep it without implementing countermeasures. If the cost/benefit ratio indicates that the cost of countermeasures exceeds the potential losses, many companies will accept the risk.

×：Risk Avoidance

Wrong because it would mean discontinuing the activity that is causing the risk. In this case, Sue’s firm decides to continue using e-mail. A company may choose to terminate an activity that introduces risk if the risk outweighs the business needs of the activity. For example, a company may choose to block social media websites in some departments because of the risk to employee productivity.

×：Risk Transfer

This is incorrect because it involves sharing risk with other entities, as in the purchase of insurance to transfer some of the risk to the insurance company. Many types of insurance are available to firms to protect their assets. If a company determines that its total or excess risk is too high to gamble, it can purchase insurance.

〇：Reconfiguration Phase

When a firm returns to its original or new site, the firm is ready to enter the reconfiguration phase. The firm has not entered the emergency state until it is operating at the original primary site or until it returns to the new site that was built to replace the primary site. If a firm needs to return from the replacement site to the original site, a number of logistical issues must be considered. Some of these issues include ensuring employee safety, proper communication and connection methods are working, and properly testing the new environment.

The definition of a rebuilding phase needs to be imagined and answered in the question text. It will test your language skills to see how it reads semantically rather than lexically correct.

×：Recovery Phase

Incorrect because it involves preparing an off-site facility (if needed), rebuilding networks and systems, and organizing staff to move to the new facility. To get the company up and running as quickly as possible, the recovery process needs to be as structured as possible. Templates should be developed during the planning phase. It can be used by each team during the recovery phase to take the necessary steps and document the results. The template keeps the team on task and quickly communicates to the team leader about progress, obstacles, and potential recovery time.

×：Project Initiation Phase

This is incorrect because it is how the actual business continuity plan is initiated. It does not occur during the execution of the plan. The Project Initiation Phase includes obtaining administrative support, developing the scope of the plan, and securing funding and resources.

×：Damage Assessment Phase

Incorrect because it occurs at the start of the actual implementation of the business continuity procedures. The damage assessment helps determine if the business continuity plan should be implemented based on the activation criteria predefined by the BCP coordinator and team. After the damage assessment, the team will move into recovery mode if one or more of the situations listed in the criteria occur.

〇：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

Almost every country has its own set of rules regarding what constitutes private data and how it should be protected. With the advent of the digital and information age, these different laws have begun to adversely affect business and international trade. Thus, the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) created guidelines for different countries to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone follows the same rules.

×：COSO

An organization that studies fraudulent financial reporting and which elements lead to them is fraudulent because the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) was established in 1985. The acronym COSO refers to a model of corporate governance that addresses IT at the strategic level, corporate culture, and financial accounting principles.

×：COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology)

Incorrect, as this framework defines control objectives to ensure that IT is properly managed and that IT is responsive to business needs. It is an international open standard that provides control and security requirements for sensitive data and reference frameworks.

×：International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

Incorrect because it is an international standards organization composed of representatives of national standards bodies. Its purpose is to establish global standardization. But its standardization goes beyond the privacy of data moving across international borders. For example, some standards address quality control; others address assurance and security.

〇：How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

×：Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

×：Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

×：A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

〇：Purge by overwriting

Purging means making data unavailable even by physical forensic efforts. This is typically accomplished by overwriting each sector of the medium on which the data is stored.

×：Deleting data

Wrong. Deleting data by operating system command typically leaves the data on the storage medium while marking the clusters or blocks that are stored for later reuse.

Personally, I feel that this option is better prepared for the exam. This is because the choice uses the general language of deleting data, which allows the answer to be given in a short time and in a broad sense. However, the term purge is a stronger fit for the question than the answer to this question.

×：Sanitizing media

Wrong. Although more powerful than simply deleting data with an operating system command, sanitization usually refers to making storage media reusable within the same security context.

The method-specific option “purge” is a stronger fit for the problem, since you asked for “using special skills, such as physical or forensic.”

×：None of these work!

Wrong. With appropriate prudence, purging techniques can successfully handle data residuals.

〇：Calculate the potential impact for fatal errors.

Software testing is a must, but when that testing reveals numerous defects, it must be handled with care. Systems do not have the same concept as human forgetfulness, but it is not realistic to ask someone who scored 30 on this week’s test to score 100 on next week’s test.

Before any corrections can be made, the data taken from the test must be analyzed with the test completed, including log reviews. Priority must be given to determining what to implement first and what is acceptable and unacceptable. Think about qualitative risk analysis; if it is unlikely and has little impact, it can be left alone and focus on high priority items. Thus, the correct answer is, “Calculate the likelihood of impact for fatal errors.” will be.

×：Fix them all.

If many defects are found, it is likely that a lot of time will be taken to deal with their correction.

×：Leave them alone because of the huge number.

In principle, it is unacceptable to leave defects unattended.

×：Calculate the potential impact for all errors.

Performing an analysis for all errors can also be very work intensive.

〇：IP Session Restriction via Media Gateway

The VoIP Media Gateway translates Internet Protocol (VoIP) voice over time division multiplexing (TDM) voice to and from. As a security measure, the number of calls through the Media Gateway should be limited. The Media Gateway is vulnerable to denial-of-service attacks, hijacking, and other types of attacks.

×：Identification of Rogue Devices  

Incorrect, as rogue devices on both IP telephony and data networks need to be identified.

×：Implementation of Authentication

Incorrect because authentication is recommended for both data and voice networks.

×：Encryption of packets containing sensitive information

Incorrect because sensitive data can be transmitted over either voice or data networks and must be encrypted in both cases. Eavesdropping is a very real threat for VoIP networks.

It is a good thing for a module to have low coupling and high condensibility. The higher the degree of condensation, the easier it is to update and modify, and it does not affect other modules with which it interacts. This also means that modules are easier to reuse and maintain. Coupling degree is a measure of the amount of interaction a single module requires to perform its task. If a module’s coupling is low, it means that the module does not need to communicate with many other modules to perform its job. It is easier to understand and reuse than a module that depends on many other modules to perform its tasks. It will also be easier to modify modules without affecting the many modules around them. Therefore, the correct answer is “low-coupling, high-cohesion”.

〇：Well-Formed Transaction

In the Clark-Wilson model, subjects cannot access objects without going through some type of application or program that controls how this access is done. The subject (usually the user) can access the required object based on access rules within the application software, defined as “Well-Formed Transaction,” in conjunction with the application.

×：Childwall model

This is incorrect because it is another name for the Brewer Nash model created to provide access control that can be dynamically modified according to the user’s previous behavior. It is shaped by access attempts and conflicts of interest and does not allow information to flow between subjects and objects. In this model, a subject can only write to an object if the subject cannot read another object in a different data set.

×：Access tuples

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it uses access triples instead of access tuples. The access triple is the subject program object. This ensures that the subject can only access the object through the authorized program.

×：Write Up and Write Down

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because there is no Write Up and Write Down. These rules relate to the Bell-LaPadula and Biba models. The Bell-LaPadula model contains a simple security rule that has not been read and a star property rule that has not been written down. The Biba model contains an unread simple completeness axiom and an unwritten star completeness axiom.

〇：Digital Millennium Copyright Act

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) is a U.S. copyright law that makes it a crime, among other things, for technology to infringe upon the access control measures established to protect copyrighted material. Therefore, the correct answer is “Digital Millennium Copyright Act.

If you find a way to “unlock” a proprietary method of protecting an e-book, you can charge this act. Even if you do not share the actual copyrighted book with anyone, the specific law has been broken and you will be convicted.

×：COPPA

The Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) is a law that allows for the safe use of children’s sites on the Internet and prohibits children from being put at risk if they do not have any terms and conditions The law prohibits children from being endangered without any terms and conditions so that they can safely use the Internet for children.

×：Federal Privacy Act

There is no such law, but a close equivalent is the U.S. Federal Data Privacy Act. This would be a comprehensive privacy law at the federal level in the United States.

×：GDPR

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a privacy law for EU citizens that is a stricter version of the Data Protection Directive.

〇：Conduct a risk analysis.

The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.

×：Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.  

The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.

×：Design program.  

Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.

×：Implement countermeasures.  

Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.

〇：Business Continuity Processes Integrate Change Management Processes

Unfortunately, business continuity plans can quickly become outdated. An outdated BCP can give a company a false sense of security, which can be fatal if a disaster actually occurs. One of the simplest, most cost-effective, and process-efficient ways to keep your plan current is to incorporate it into your organization’s change management process. Are new applications, equipment, and services documented? Are updates and patches documented? The change management process should be updated to incorporate fields and triggers that alert the BCP team when significant changes occur and provide a means to update recovery documentation. Ensure that the BCP is kept up-to-date, and other measures include maintaining personnel evaluations of the plan and conducting regular training on using the plan, such as making business continuity part of all business decisions.

×：Update hardware, software, and application changes

Wrong because hardware, software, and application changes occur frequently; unless the BCP is part of a change management process, these changes are not included in the BCP. The BCP should be updated when changes to the environment occur. If it is not updated after a change, it is out of date.

×：Infrastructure and Environment Change Updates

Incorrect because infrastructure and environment changes occur frequently. Unless the BCP is part of a change management process, as with software, hardware, and application changes, infrastructure and environment changes are unlikely to result in a transition to the BCP.

×：Personnel changes

Incorrect, as the plan may become obsolete. It is not uncommon for BCPs to be abandoned when the person or persons responsible for maintenance leave the company. These responsibilities must be reassigned. To ensure this, maintenance responsibilities must be built into job descriptions and properly monitored.

〇：Due Care

Confidentiality means that the company does everything it could reasonably have done to prevent a security breach under the circumstances and takes appropriate control and action in the event of a security breach. In short, it means that the company is acting responsibly by practicing common sense and prudent management. If a company has a facility that is not fire-immune, its arsonist will be only a small part of this tragedy. The company is responsible for providing fire-resistant building materials, alarms, exits, fire extinguishers, and backup fire detection and suppression systems, all critical information specific areas that could be affected by a fire. If a fire were to burn the company’s building and all records (customer data, inventory records, and information needed to rebuild the business) were to disappear, the company would not take precautions to ensure that it is protected against that loss. For example, it would be possible to back up to an off-site location. In this case, employees, shareholders, customers, and anyone else affected could potentially sue the company. However, if the company has done all that is expected of it in terms of the points mentioned so far, it is difficult to sue without success if proper care (dee care) is not taken.

×：Downstream Liability

Is wrong because one firm’s activities (or lack thereof) may have a negative impact on other firms. If either company fails to provide the required level of protection and its negligence affects the partners with whom it cooperates, the affected company can sue the upstream company. For example, suppose Company A and Company B have built an extranet. Company A has not implemented controls to detect and address viruses. Company A is infected with a harmful virus, which infects Company B through the extranet. The virus destroys critical data and causes a major disruption to Company B’s production. Company B can therefore sue Company A for negligence. This is an example of downstream liability.

×：Liability

Incorrect, as it generally refers to the obligation and expected behavior or actions of a particular party. Obligations can have a defined set of specific actions required, which is a more general and open approach that allows parties to determine how to fulfill specific obligations.

×：Due diligence

A better answer to this question. Liability is not considered a legal term as with the other answers. Due diligence is because the firm has properly investigated all of its possible weaknesses and vulnerabilities. Before you can understand how to properly protect yourself, you need to know that you are protecting yourself. To understand the real level of risk, investigate and assess the real level of vulnerability. Even after these steps and assessments have been made, effective controls and protective measures can be identified and implemented. Due diligence means identifying all potential risks, but an appropriate response is one that actually mitigates the risk.

〇：Disk Redundancy

Information that is required to be available at all times must be mirrored or duplexed. In both mirroring (also called RAID 1) and duplexing, all data write operations are performed simultaneously or nearly simultaneously at multiple physical locations.

×：Direct Access Storage

Direct access storage is incorrect because it is a general term for magnetic disk storage devices traditionally used in mainframe and minicomputer (midrange computer) environments. RAID is a type of direct access storage device (DASD).

×：Striping

Incorrect because the technique of striping is used when data is written to all drives. This activity splits the data and writes it to multiple drives. Write performance is not affected, but read performance is greatly improved because multiple heads are getting data at the same time. Parity information is used to reconstruct lost or corrupted data. Striping simply means data; parity information may be written to multiple disks.

×：Parallel Processing

Parallel processing is incorrect because a computer has multiple processing units built into it to execute multiple streams of instructions simultaneously. While mirroring may be used to implement this type of processing, it is not a requirement.

〇：The expiration date should be set short.

Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.

×：Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.

This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.

×：Keys must not be made public.

Of course. It is a key.

×：Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.

Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.

〇：Cessation of activities that pose a risk.

This question is about choosing what is not included. Discontinuing an activity that introduces risk is a way to address risk through avoidance. For example, there are many risks surrounding the use of instant messaging (IM) within a company. If a company decides not to allow the use of IM because there is no business need to do so, banning this service is an example of risk avoidance. The risk assessment does not include the implementation of such measures. Therefore, the correct answer is “discontinue the activity that poses a risk”.

×：Asset Identification

This is incorrect because identifying the asset is part of the risk assessment and is required to identify what is not included in the risk assessment. To determine the value of an asset, the asset must first be identified. Identifying and valuing assets is another important task of risk management.

×：Threat Identification

This is incorrect because identifying threats is part of risk assessment and requires identifying what is not included in the risk assessment. A risk exists because a threat could exploit a vulnerability. If there are no threats, there are no risks. Risk links vulnerabilities, threats, and the resulting potential for exploitation to the business.

×：Risk analysis in order of cost

Analyzing risks in order of cost or criticality is part of the risk assessment process and is inappropriate because questions are asked to identify what is not included in the risk assessment. A risk assessment examines and quantifies the risks a company faces. Risks must be addressed in a cost-effective manner. Knowing the severity of the risk allows the organization to determine how to effectively address it.

Risk is the multiplication of threats and vulnerabilities. If the threat is at least as great as the vulnerability is fatal, it is a significant impact, or risk. Therefore, the best illustration of the relationship between the four rules is the multiplier.

Overwrapping is done by writing zero or random characters to the data. Overwrapping on corrupted media is not possible.

〇：Test with reference to OSSTMM.

OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) is an open source penetration testing standard. Open source is basically free and has many amazing features. Because it is free and anyone can use it, there is a view that trust is low. However, there is nothing like it if you properly understand the risks. That is why we are trying to create a testing standard for open source to ensure trust. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test with reference to OSSTMM.” will be “OSSTMM”.

×：Since open source is fully tested at the point of development, the testing process can be omitted.

Even if it is open source, you need to test it according to your own organization.

×：Secure contact information for the developer and conduct testing with both developers.

If you contact the open source developer, these responses will probably not go through.

Most open source developers are doing this in good faith and may be brazen about further pursuit from the organization.

×：Ask other organizations to share completed tests.

The process of getting test results that may be confidential from other organizations is unreasonable.

〇：Normalization

Normalization is the process of efficiently organizing data by eliminating redundancy, reducing the potential for anomalies during data manipulation, and improving data consistency within a database. It is a systematic method of ensuring that database structures are correctly designed so that undesirable characteristics (insert, update, and delete anomalies) do not occur and data integrity is lost.

×：Polymorphism

Polymorphism is incorrect because different objects are given the same input and react differently.

×：Database View Implementation

A database view is a logical access control, implemented so that one group or specific user can see certain information and another group is restricted from seeing it completely, which is incorrect. For example, a database view could be implemented so that middle management can see the profits and expenses of a department without seeing the profits of the entire enterprise. Database views do not minimize duplicate data. Rather, it manipulates how the data is displayed by a particular user/group.

×：Schema Construction

Schemas in database systems are incorrect because they are structures described in a formal language. In a relational database, a schema defines tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, procedures, queues, database links, directories, etc. A schema describes the database and its structure, but not the data that exists in the database itself.

Gates and fences are used as physical deterrents and preventative measures. Fences as small as 3 feet can be a deterrent, but as tall as 8 feet can be a deterrent and prevention mechanism. The purpose of the fence is to limit the routes in and out of the facility so that they occur only through doors, gates, and turnstiles.

〇：Data Encryption

The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a data encryption standard developed to improve upon the previous de facto standard, Data Encryption Standard (DES). As a symmetric algorithm, AES is used to encrypt data. Therefore, the correct answer is “data encryption.

There are other situations where AES is used in the other choices, but encrypting data is the most focused or better answer. Thus, there are cases where all of the choices are correct.

×：Data integrity

This is a characteristic of digital signatures.

×：Key recovery

It is a property of decryption and key escrow.

×：Symmetric key distribution

Using symmetric keys for AES distribution lowers the key delivery problem.

RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the target value for recovering data at a point in the past when a failure occurs. When a failure occurs, the data currently handled is lost. The lost data must be recovered from backups, but it is important to know how far in the past the backups are from the current point in time.

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a target value that defines when the data should be recovered in the event of a failure. In the event of a failure, the service must not be unavailable indefinitely. Failure response procedures and disaster drills must be implemented to establish a target value for the time from the occurrence of a failure to the startup of service.

Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP) is the process of creating short-term plans, policies, procedures, and tools to enable the recovery or continuation of critical IT systems in the event of a disaster. It focuses on the IT systems that support critical business functions and how they will be restored after a disaster. For example, it considers what to do if you suffer a distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack, if your servers are compromised, if there is a power outage, etc. BCP is more focused on what should happen and does not necessarily include system requirements.

〇：Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities

This is a problem of selecting unrelated items. Extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities is a confidentiality issue. Although it is complicatedly worded, the operations on the data are unauthorized and extraction, and none of them include the destruction of data, which is the primary focus of integrity. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data shared with unauthorized entities.

In solving this problem, it is not necessary to know what an entity is. The focus is on whether any modification or destruction has taken place.

×：Unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data

Mistake. Because integrity is associated with unauthorized manipulation or alteration of data. Integrity is maintained when unauthorized modification is prevented. Hardware, software, and communication mechanisms must work together to correctly maintain and process data and move data to its intended destination without unexpected changes. Systems and networks must be protected from outside interference and contamination.

×：Unauthorized data modification

Unauthorized data modification is a mistake as it relates to integrity. Integrity is about protecting data, not changing it by users or other systems without authorization.

×：Intentional or accidental data substitution

Incorrect because intentional or accidental data substitution is associated with integrity. Integrity is maintained when assurances of the accuracy and reliability of information and systems are provided along with assurances that data will not be tampered with by unauthorized entities. An environment that enforces integrity prevents attacks, for example, the insertion of viruses, logic bombs, or backdoors into the system that could corrupt or replace data. Users typically incorrectly affect the integrity of the system and its data (internal users may also perform malicious acts). For example, a user may insert incorrect values into a data processing application and charge a customer $3,000 instead of $300.

〇：RAID Level 3

RAID redundant arrays provide fault tolerance capability for hard drives and can improve system performance. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve requested information. At this time, recovery data is also created. This is called parity; if one disk fails, the parity data can be used to reconstruct the corrupted or lost information. Different levels of RAID systems experience different activities that provide fault tolerance or improved performance. RAID level 3 is a method that uses byte-level striping and dedicated parity disks.

×：RAID Level 0

Wrong because only striping occurs at level 0.

×：RAID Level 5

RAID 5 is incorrect because it uses block-level striping and interleaved parity on all disks.

×：RAID Level 10

Level 10 is incorrect because it is associated with striping and mirroring.

Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detection (CSMA / CD) is used for systems that can transmit and receive simultaneously, such as Ethernet. If two clients listen at the same time and make sure the line is clear, both may transmit at the same time, causing a collision. Collision Detection (CD) is added to solve this scenario. The client checks to see if the line is idle and transmits if it is idle. If in use, they wait for a random time (milliseconds). During transmission, they monitor the network and if more input is received than transmitted, another client is also transmitting and sends a jam signal instructing other nodes to stop transmitting, wait a random time and then start transmitting again.

Deleting a file is physically recoverable. Shredding, demagnetizing, and overwriting are all methods that render the file physically unrecoverable.

The Clipper chip is a chipset developed by the National Security Agency (NSA) and implemented as an encryption device that protects “voice and data messages” as an embedded backdoor. It used SkipJack, a block cipher.

〇：A review by another coder after the coder has completed coding.

A static code review is a review performed by another engineer to mitigate points that were not apparent to the author. Thus, the correct answer is “Reviewed by another coder after the coder’s coding is complete.” will be.

×：To allow coders to see each other’s coding and work in parallel.

Extreme programming (XP, extreme programming) is a flexible method of developing a program while discussing it in pairs. It is not code review.

×：Ensuring that proper transaction processing is applied before check-in.

This is a statement about database commitment.

×：Ensuring that the appropriate questions and answers exist.

The presence of appropriate question and answer may be part of what is performed during the code review, but it is not a description of the code review itself.

〇：PCI DSS

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a framework to avoid personal information leakage when making electronic payments. Therefore, the correct answer is “PCI DSS.

By the way, if you were to ask, “Which of the following are possible?” I am tempted to argue that other frameworks may be used as well. However, in the CISSP exam, you may have to choose “the most plausible” option in some cases. Therefore, we have used this phrase.

×：HITECH

The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) is an enhanced version of HIPPA that applies not only to data management but also to health care business associates.

×：OCTAVE

OCTAVE is one of the risk assessment frameworks introduced in CERT.

×：COBIT

COBIT is a framework for measuring the maturity of a company’s IT governance. It was proposed by the Information Systems Control Association of America (ISACA) and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI).

〇：Teardrop

Teardrop is an attack to bring a system to a halt by forging the offset of IP packets when they are returned before splitting.

×：Fraggle attack

Fraggle attack is an attack that uses the CHARGEN function to generate an appropriate string.

×：CHARGEN attack

There is no attack with such a name.

×：War Driving

Wardriving is the act of driving around a city looking for vulnerable wireless LAN access points.

〇：Data Protection Directive

In many cases, the European Union (EU) takes personal privacy more seriously than most other countries in the world and therefore adheres to strict laws regarding data considered personal information based on the European Union Principles for the Protection of Personal Data. This set of principles addresses the use and communication of information that is considered private in nature. These principles and how to comply with them are contained in the EU Data Protection Directive. All European states must comply with these principles, and all companies doing business with EU companies must follow this directive if their business involves the exchange of privacy-type data.

×：Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

Image B is incorrect because the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) is an international organization that brings together different governments to help address the economic, social, and governance challenges of a globalized economy. For this reason, the OECD has developed national guidelines to ensure that data is properly protected and that everyone adheres to the same kinds of rules.

×：Federal Private Sector Bill

The Federal Private Bill is incorrect. There is no official bill by this name.

×：Privacy Protection Act

The Privacy Protection Act is the wrong answer. There is no official legislation by this name.

〇：Provisioning accounts, modifying accounts, auditing account usage, and deactivating accounts.

All phases of the authenticated access lifecycle should be considered. Access should not be granted without proper instructions, nor should access be granted or denied without expected authorization. Suspension of access must also be auditable.

×：Provisioning or adding accounts, changing accounts, and suspending accounts.

Incorrect because it does not include auditing of account usage.

×：Adding an account, deleting an account, or deleting a user’s data.

Incorrect because deletion of user data may conflict with data retention requirements.

×：Verifying account passwords, checking account usage, and deleting accounts.

Incorrect because it is merely an authentication step and not related to account management.

Awareness is to inform the organization’s members of the information they already have in order to make them more vigilant again. Tranning is the input of information that is unknown to the members of the organization. Therefore, the difference between awareness-raising and tranning is whether the target audience is already aware of the information.

There are many different types of distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks; there is no IPSec flood; UDP flood, SYN flood, and MAC flood are all distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

〇：Zero Knowledge Proof

Zero Knowledge Proof means that someone can tell you something without telling you more information than you need to know. In cryptography, it means proving that you have a certain key without sharing that key or showing it to anyone. Zero knowledge proof (usually mathematical) is an interactive way for one party to prove to another that something is true without revealing anything sensitive.

×：Key Clustering

Key clustering is the phenomenon of encrypting the same plaintext with different keys, but with the same ciphertext.

×：Avoiding Birthday Attacks

An attacker can attempt to force a collision, called a birthday attack. This attack is based on the mathematical birthday paradox present in standard statistics. This is a cryptographic attack that uses probability theory to exploit the mathematics behind the birthday problem.

×：Provides data confidentiality

Provided via encryption when data is encrypted with a key, which is incorrect.

CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

〇：Waterfall

Waterfall is very unidirectional and each phase leads directly to the next phase. In a pure waterfall model, there is no way to return to the previous phase.

×：Agile

Agile is the idea that system development should be done flexibly. It is a trial-and-error development method that emphasizes adaptive planning, evolutionary development, early delivery, and continuous improvement. Agile differs from the traditional approach of modeling a process, where principles and claims are shared by the entire team and an attempt is made to adapt to every situation.

×：SASHIMI

The SASHIMI model is a model of the system development process that allows the end and beginning points of each phase to run concurrently. In many cases, a waterfall model is used, where the next phase is moved to the next phase with the submission and review of deliverables. This is also great, but in practice, there are times when the delivery is made but modified due to changing requirements.

×：Spiral

The spiral model is a method of development that iterates from design to testing for each function. It is a method in which a series of processes consisting of planning, analysis, design, implementation, testing, and evaluation are repeated many times within a single project to gradually increase the degree of completion. In a software project, these phases are repeated.

〇：SOAP allows Remote Procedure Calls to be used to exchange information between applications over the Internet.

To allow applications to exchange information over the Internet, the Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) was created to be used instead of Remote Procedure Call (RPC). SOAP is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web service setting. It allows programs running on different operating systems to communicate using Web-based communication methods.

×：SOAP is designed to overcome compatibility and security issues associated with remote procedure calls.

Attempting to allow communication between objects of different applications over the Internet is incorrect because SOAP was created to overcome the compatibility and security issues introduced by RPC. SOAP is designed to work with multiple operating system platforms, browsers, and servers.

×：SOAP and remote procedure calls were created to enable application layer communication.

This is incorrect because both SOAP and RPC were created to enable application layer communication. SOAP is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web service setting. Therefore, if a Windows client needs to access a Windows server that provides a particular web service, programs on both systems can communicate using SOAP without running into interoperability problems.

×：HTTP is not designed to work with remote procedure calls, but SOAP is designed to work with HTTP.

HTTP is not designed to work with RPC, but SOAP is designed to work with HTTP. SOAP actually defines the structure of the XML schema or communication mechanism. The SOAP XML schema defines how objects communicate directly with each other. One of the advantages of SOAP is that program calls most likely get through firewalls, since HTTP communication is generally allowed. This ensures that the client/server model is not broken by getting denied by firewalls during the communication entity.

〇：Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an access control that enforces access privileges by pre-classifying resources into levels. There are several types of access rights to data files. There are several types of access rights to data files: the user of the data file, the owner who creates the data file, and the administrator who decides which owner can create the data. SELinux, TOMOYO Linux, Trusted BSD, and Trusted Solaris are methods used by MACs.

×：Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control method that allows the owner of an access target to change access privileges.

×：Role Access Control (RAC)

There is no such term. A close equivalent is role-based access control, which divides accounts by role and applies access control to those roles.

×：Voluntary Access Control (VAC)

There is no such term.

P.A.S.T.A. is a seven-step process to find ways to protect the value of your assets while analyzing your compliance and business. P.A.S.T.A. provides a roadmap. Threat management processes and policies can be discovered. The main focus is on finding threats, which is where risk-centric thinking and simulation come into play.

〇：Capability Maturity Model Integration

Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is a comprehensive set of integration guidelines for developing products and software. It addresses the various phases of the software development life cycle, including concept definition, requirements analysis, design, development, integration, installation, operation, maintenance, and what should happen at each stage. The model describes the procedures, principles, and practices underlying the maturation of the software development process. It was developed to help software vendors improve their development processes. It will improve software quality, shorten the development life cycle, create and meet milestones in a timely manner, and adopt a proactive approach rather than a reactive approach that is less effective.

×：Software Development Life Cycle

Incorrect because the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) describes how a system should be developed and maintained throughout its life cycle and does not involve process improvement.

×：ISO/IEC 27002

Incorrect because ISO/IEC 27002 is an international standard that outlines how the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) create and maintain an organizational information security management system (ISMS). ISO/IEC 27002 has a section dealing with the acquisition, development, and maintenance of information systems, but does not provide a process improvement model for software development.

×：Certification and Accreditation Process

This is incorrect because the certification and accreditation (C&A) process handles testing and evaluation of systems against predefined criteria. This has nothing to do with improving the software development process.

〇：Dictionary attack

There is a limit to the complexity that humans can remember. Consciously, we treat words and character strings we already know as passwords. To address such vulnerabilities, the act of cracking passwords by guessing passwords based on existing words or character strings is called a dictionary attack.

×：Typical Sentence attack

There is no such attack named as such yet.

×：Brute force attack

Brute force is an unauthorized login in which the user tries to guess a password at random.

×：Birthday attack

A birthday attack is an efficient method of unauthorized login by taking advantage of encryption collisions heightened by at least one overlapping probability theory.

〇：All failed access attempts should be logged and reviewed.

The physical access control system may use software and auditing capabilities to generate an audit trail or access log associated with access attempts. The date and time of the entry point when access was attempted, the user ID used when access was attempted, and any failed access attempts, among others, should be recorded.

×：Failed access attempts are recorded and only security personnel are entitled to review them.

Unless someone actually reviews them, the access logs are as useless as the audit logs generated by the computer. Security guards should review these logs, but security professionals and facility managers should review these logs on a regular basis. The administrator must know the existence and location of entry points into the facility.

×：Only successful access attempts should be logged and reviewed.

Wrong, as unsuccessful access attempts should be logged and reviewed. Audit should be able to alert you to suspicious activity even though you are denying an entity access to a network, computer, or location.

×：Failed access attempts outside of business hours should be logged and reviewed.

Incorrect, as all unauthorized access attempts should be logged and reviewed regardless. Unauthorized access can occur at any time.

Disaster Recovery Planning includes the Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery life cycles.

• Mitigation: Reduces the impact and likelihood of a disaster.
• Prepare: Create programs, procedures, and tools for response.
• Response: follow procedures and how to respond to a disaster.
• Recovery: re-establish basic functionality and return to a full production environment.

A collision is when the hash value of two different data from one hash function is the same. Hashing is one-way cryptography, which means that the original plaintext is no longer known to be one or the other.

Each IPSec VPN device will have at least one security association (SA) for each secure connection it uses; the SA, which is critical to the IPSec architecture, is the device’s need to support IPSec connections over VPN connections This is a record of the configuration that needs to be in place.

〇：Yes. The same goal should be held because there is security in achieving corporate goals.

There are KPIs and other marketin indicators to achieve organizational goals. Developing a security function in the organization also exists to achieve these goals.

×：Yes. Marketing in the security industry is allowed to be risk-off.

By “marketing in the security industry,” I do not mean aligning the security function within the organization.

×：No. The division of labor should be strictly enforced and left to specialists.

While the division of labor in an organization is certainly important, all members of the organization need to be security conscious.

×：No. Security has nothing to do with confidential information that would be an executive decision.

Security should be addressed by the entire organization. It is not irrelevant.

〇：One-time pad

Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.

×：AES

AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.

×：Block ciphers

Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.

×：RSA

RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.

〇：Socket

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) are transport protocols used by applications to retrieve data over a network. Both use ports to communicate with the upper OSI layer and keep track of the various conversations that occur simultaneously. Ports are also the mechanism used to identify how other computers access services. When a TCP or UDP message is formed, the source and destination ports are included in the header information along with the source and destination IP addresses. This IP address and port number is called a socket; the IP address serves as the gateway to the computer and the port serves as the gateway to the actual protocol or service.

×：IP address

This is incorrect because the IP address does not tell the packet how to communicate with the service or protocol. The purpose of an IP address is to identify and address the location of a host or network interface. Each node in a network has a unique IP address. This information, along with the source and destination ports, make up a socket. The IP address tells the packet where to go, and the port indicates how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol.

×：Port

The port is incorrect because it tells the packet only how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol. It does not tell the packet where it should go. The IP address provides this information. Ports are communication endpoints used by IP protocols such as TCP and UDP. Ports are identified by a number.

×：Frame

Frame is incorrect because the term is used to refer to a datagram after the header and trailer have been given to the data link layer.

Freeware is free software and can be used for free. Shareware is fully functional proprietary software that is initially free to use. Often a trial to test the software requires a fee to continue using it after 30 days. Thus, the correct answer is, “Freeware is free in perpetuity, while shareware is free for a set period of time.” will be.

〇：Promptly deactivate the use of employee-only accounts.

Provisioning is the process of adding accounts for use in the system. Conversely, de-provisioning is the removal of an account. An employee’s account should be deactivated at the time the employee leaves the organization. Giving a former employee access to the organization’s resources is an information leak. Therefore, the correct answer is “promptly deactivate the employee’s dedicated account.” will be

×：Retrieve the employee’s loaner computer.

This is not provisioning, but should be done at the time the employee leaves the company.

×：Signing an NDA.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA, Non-Disclosure Agreement) is an agreement that prohibits the disclosure to others of trade secrets, etc. of the other party learned in the course of business. It is not provisioning.

×：Securing the personal contact information of employees.

A normal company would not attempt to collect such private information upon separation from employment. It is not provisioning.

〇：ISO / IEC 27005 – Guidelines for Bodies Providing Audits and Certification of Information Security Management Systems

The ISO / IEC 27005 standard is a guideline for information security risk management. ISO / IEC 27005 is an international standard on how risk management should be implemented within the framework of an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27002 – Code of practice for information security management

This is not correct because it is a code of practice for information security management. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. ISO / IEC 27002 provides best practice recommendations and guidelines for starting, implementing, or maintaining an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27003 – ISMS Implementation Guidelines

This is incorrect as it is a guideline for ISMS implementation. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. Focuses on the key aspects necessary for the successful design and implementation of an ISMS according to ISO / IEC 27001:2005. It describes the ISMS specification and design process from its inception to the creation of an implementation plan.

×：ISO / IEC 27004 – Guidelines for Information Security Management Measurement and Metrics Framework

This is incorrect because it is a guideline for an information security management measurement and metrics framework. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. It provides guidance on the development and use of measures to assess the effectiveness of an ISMS and a group of controls or controls, as specified in ISO / IEC 27001.

〇：Differential Backup

Backups can be taken in full, differential, or incremental. Most files are not changed daily to save very much time and resources, and it is better to develop a backup plan that does not back up for data that is not continually changing. In backup software, when a file is modified or created, the file system sets the archive bit and the backup software determines if that file should be backed up. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup.

×：Incremental Backup

An incremental backup backs up all data that has changed since the last backup.

×：Full Backup

A full backup backs up the entire database or the entire system.

×：Partial Backup

Not in the backup category.

〇：Regular training to change employee attitudes

Behavior-directed controls are intended to direct the behavior required of employees as part of organizational management. Regular training that changes employee awareness falls under the action-directed type. Therefore, the correct answer is “Regular training to change employee attitudes”.

×：Remotely directed defenses using drone audits

This falls under reinforcing (compensating) defensive measures.

×：Defensive measures to be behavioral psychological barriers due to physical barriers

This is a physical (physically) defensive measure.

×：Developing recurrence prevention measures to review certain actions

This is a corrective measure.

Sabotage is an attack by an insider.

〇：* (star) Integrity Property

The Biba model defines a model with completeness as having two axioms. The * (star) Integrity Property is that the subordinate’s document is to be seen and there is no Read Down. The * (star) Integrity Property is that there is no Write Up, that is, no rewriting of the supervisor’s document. If the Simple Integrity Axiom is not followed, the subordinate’s document will be seen and may absorb unclassified and incorrect information at a lower level. If the * (star) Integrity Property is not followed, a supervisor’s document will be rewritten, which will release incorrect information to the supervisor who sees it. Therefore, both are integrity conditions.

×：Simple Integrity Property

The Simple Integrity Property is a constraint on Read Down.

×：Strong Tranquillity Axiom

The Strong Tranquillity Axiom is the constraint not to change permissions while the system is running.

×：Weak Tranquillity Axiom

Weak Tranquillity Axiom means do not change privileges until the attribute is inconsistent.

〇：System logs that operate and are acquired on a daily basis

It is necessary to show that the logs are different from common usage in order to determine whether the access is unauthorized or not. Also, it is less reliable as legal evidence regarding logs that are not routinely obtained.

×：System logs from sophisticated products that comply with international standards

Market sophistication is not a requirement for legal evidence. Conversely, it is unlikely that software developed in-house cannot be used for legal archives.

×：System logs printed and stored as physical media

Whether or not logs are printed is not necessarily a legal requirement. Since the records are printed out as software, they are not purely physical evidence.

×：System logs close to the infrastructure recorded at the OS layer

Logs close to the OS layer have greater systemic traceability, but they are also less relevant to user operations and are not suitable as evidence of unauthorized access.

〇：Lock out the account for a certain period of time after reaching the clipping level.

Brute force attack is an attack that continuously tries different inputs to achieve a predefined goal that can then be used to qualify for unauthorized access. A brute force attack to discover the password means that the intruder is trying all possible sequences of characters to reveal the correct password. This proves to be a good countermeasure if the account will be disabled (or locked out) after this type of attack attempt is made.

×：Increase the clipping level.

Clipping levels are wrong because they need to be implemented to establish a baseline of user activity and acceptable error. Entities attempting to log into an account after the clipping level is met should be locked out. A high clipping level gives the attacker more attempts during a warning or lockout. Lowering the clipping level is a good countermeasure.

×：After the threshold for failed login attempts is met, the administrator should physically lock out the account.

This is incorrect because it is impractical to have an administrator physically lock out an account. This type of activity can easily be taken care of through automated software mechanisms. Accounts should be automatically locked out for a certain amount of time after a threshold of failed login attempts is met.

×：Encrypt password files and choose a weaker algorithm.

Encrypting passwords and/or password files and using a weaker algorithm is incorrect as it increases the likelihood of a successful brute force attack.

Defense-in-Depth is the concept that protection should not be monolithic, but should be multi-layered in all aspects. The term “defense-in-depth” comes close to the alternative, as multiple layers of protection are required to protect against a single vulnerability.

〇：Restore the virus unpatched file version from the backup media.

The best practice is to install an unpatched, uninfected version of the file from the backup media. It is important to restore files that are known to be clean, as attempts to remove the files may corrupt them. The most important thing is not to spread the impact, but attempting to unilaterally delete files may make them unavailable for later investigation.

×：Replace the file with the file saved the previous day.

The file saved the previous day may also contain the virus.

×：Delete the file and contact the vendor.

This is an incorrect answer because the condition of this question is that if the file is deleted, the normal file content itself may be damaged.

×：Back up the data and delete the file.

This is an incorrect answer because backing up the data that contains the virus and deleting the file does not result in a clean situation.

〇：Time-Based Synchronous Dynamic Token

A synchronous token device synchronizes with the authentication service using time or a counter as a core part of the authentication process. When synchronization is time-based, the token device and authentication service must maintain the same time within their internal clocks. The time values of the token device and private key are used to generate a one-time password that is displayed to the user. The user then passes this value and user ID to the server running the authentication service and enters this value and user ID into the computer. The authentication service decrypts this value and compares it to the expected value. If both match, the user is authenticated and allowed to use the computer and resources.

×：Counter-Based Synchronous Dynamic Token

If the token device and authentication service use counter synchronization, it is incorrect because it is not based on time. When using a counter-synchronized token device, the user must initiate the creation of a one-time password by pressing a button on the token device. This causes the token device and authentication service to proceed to the next authentication value. This value, the base secret, is hashed and displayed to the user. The user enters this resulting value along with the user ID to be authenticated. For either time or counter-based synchronization, the token device and authentication service must share the same secret base key used for encryption and decryption.

×：Asynchronous Tokens

Asynchronous token generation methods are incorrect because they use a challenge/response method for the token device to authenticate the user. Instead of using synchronization, this technique does not use separate steps in the authentication process.

×：Mandatory Tokens

Wrong because there is no such thing as a mandatory token. This is an incorrect answer.

〇：ACL

Access Control List (ACL) A map value from the Access Control Matrix to an object; ACLs are used in several operating system, application, and router configurations. They are lists of items that are authorized to access a particular object and they define the level of authorization to be granted. Authorization can be specified to an individual or to a group. Therefore, ACLs are bound to an object and indicate which subjects can access it, and feature tables are bound to a subject and indicate which objects the subject can access.

×：Function table

The function table is a row in the access control matrix.

×：Constraint Interface

Constraint interfaces are wrong because they limit the user’s access ability by not allowing them to request certain functions or information or have access to certain system resources.

×：Role-based values

The role-based access control (RBAC) model, called non-discretionary access control, is wrong because it uses a centralized set of controls to determine how subjects and objects interact.

〇：All security activities shall be conducted within the security department.

When all security activities are performed within the security department, security functions within a silo and is not integrated throughout the organization. In companies that have a security governance program in place, security responsibilities are pervasive throughout the organization, from senior management down the chain of command. A common scenario is executive management with the executive director of operations responsible for risk management activities for a particular business unit. Additionally, employees are responsible for malicious or accidental security breaches.

×：Officers will be updated quarterly on the company’s security status.

Incorrect. Security governance is providing strategic guidance, ensuring that goals are being met, risks are properly managed, and resources are used responsibly. Organizations with a security governance program have a board of directors that understands the importance of security and is aware of the organization’s security performance and breaches.

×：Deploy security products, services, and consultants in an informed manner.

Security governance is incorrect because it is a cohesive system of integrated security components that includes products, people, training, and processes. Therefore, organizations that have a security governance program in place will assist consultants with security products, management services, and consultants in an informed manner. They are also constantly reviewed to ensure they are cost effective.

×：The organization establishes metrics and goals for improving security.

inaccurate because security governance requires performance measurement and oversight mechanisms. Organizations that have a security governance program in place are continually reviewing their processes, including security, with the goal of continuous improvement. On the other hand, an organization lacking a security governance program may proceed without analyzing its performance, thus repeating the same mistakes.

〇：Operating system patching is easier.

This is an incorrect choice question. Virtualization does not simplify operating system patching. In fact, it complicates it by adding at least one additional operating system. Each operating system differs from the typical version configuration, adding to the complexity of patching. The server’s own operating system runs as a guest within the host environment. In addition to patching and maintaining the traditional server operating system, the virtualization software itself must be patched and maintained.

For this question, we do not require an understanding of all the technical systems of virtualization. What is required here is a selection of answers based on a process of elimination.

×：I can build a secure computing platform.

Building a secure computing platform may not be a feature of virtualization per se. However, can we build a secure environment? This is not a false choice because it cannot be ruled out.

×：It can provide fault and error containment.

Virtualization can be host independent. In terms of containment, it can be interpreted as being able to provide fault and error containment through independence from physical servers. Therefore, it cannot be denied and is therefore not an incorrect choice.

×：It can provide powerful debugging capabilities.

Virtualization can reproduce a unique environment, not just put up a clean virtual host. Therefore, it is undeniable and therefore out of the wrong choice.

There is an unfamiliar term: data classification program. This is not a dictionary definition of the term. You want to classify data, what do you do to do that? What is the first step in this process? Since you are being asked about the “first step” in doing this, you can answer by listing the options in order and choosing the first option. Do not search the dictionary in your mind for the word “data classification,” think of the process flow of data classification, and recall the name of the first process.

In order, you might go from understanding the level of protection you need to provide, to specifying the data classification criteria, to determining the protection mechanisms for each classification level, to identifying the data controller. Whatever you do, the first step should be research. Then the problem is defined and the best answer is derived, which is the general solution to the problem.

Measures have been implemented to reduce the overall risk to an acceptable level. However, no system or environment is 100% safe, and risks remain with all countermeasures. The residual risk after countermeasures have been taken is called residual risk. Residual risk is different from total risk. Total risk is the risk of not implementing countermeasures. While total risk can be determined by calculating (threat x vulnerability x asset value = total risk), residual risk can be determined by calculating (threat x vulnerability x asset value) x control gap = residual risk. The control gap is the amount of protection that the control cannot provide.

〇：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activity taking place within the host system.

Virtual firewalls can be bridge-mode products that monitor individual communication links between virtual machines. They can also be integrated within a hypervisor in a virtual environment. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of guest system software. When a firewall is embedded within the hypervisor, it can monitor all activities that occur within the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual network links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is incorrect because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links between hosts and not network links. Hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activities taking place within the guest system rather than the host system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic links, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the guest system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode is wrong because the firewall can monitor individual traffic links, and the hypervisor integration allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, but not the guest system. The hypervisor is the software component that manages the virtual machines and monitors the execution of the guest system software. A firewall, when embedded within the hypervisor, can monitor all activities taking place within the system.

×：A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual guest systems, while a firewall integrated into the hypervisor can monitor all activities taking place within the network system.

A virtual firewall in bridge mode allows the firewall to monitor individual traffic between guest systems, and a hypervisor integrated allows the firewall to monitor all activity taking place within the host system, not the network system, so Wrong.

Web access management (WAM) software controls what users can access when interacting with Web-based corporate assets using a Web browser. This type of technology is continually becoming more robust and experiencing increased deployment. This is due to the increased use of e-commerce, online banking, content delivery, and Web services. The basic components and activities of the Web access control management process are

• The user submits credentials to the web server.
• The web server requests the WAM platform to authenticate the user. WAM authenticates to the LDAP directory and obtains credentials from the policy database.
• The user requests access to a resource (object).
• The web server verifies that object access is allowed and grants access to the requested resource.

When the complicated term WAM is mentioned, the journey begins to search for a definition of WAM that may be at the end of one’s brain. But as these thoughts begin, you will want the hard answers, like the X.500 database. But if you don’t know, it is straightforward to interpret and answer to the best of your understanding; if you interpret WAM as software that controls access to a Web server, then the question is, “Which is the correct definition of WAM?” Rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does?” rather than “What do you think software that controls access to a web server does? However, it is still tempting to factor in the possibility that WAM is a solution that uses a specific technology that may be unfamiliar to you.

〇：The ability to control access close to the resource.

Central access control has various advantages such as uniform rules and reduced operational burden. Distributed access control allows access control in close proximity to resources, thus protecting resources independently.

×：It should be possible to design a comprehensive

Distributed access control is not a comprehensive design because the authentication and authorization functions are distributed.

×：Relatively low cost.

Whether or not costs can be kept down cannot be determined by this design concept alone.

×：Logs from various devices make it easier to understand the current status.

Both central access control and distributed access control can acquire logs from various devices.

Clustering is designed for fault tolerance. It is often combined with load balancing, but they are essentially separate. Clustering can make an operation active/active. On top of that, the load balancing feature handles traffic from multiple servers. Active/passive, on the other hand, has a designated primary active server and a secondary passive server, with the passive sending keep-alives or heartbeats every few seconds.

〇：Graham-Denning Model

The Graham-Denning model addresses how access rights between subjects and objects are defined, developed, and integrated. It defines a basic set of rights in terms of the commands that a particular subject can execute on an object. The model has eight basic protective rights or rules on how to safely perform these types of functions

×：Brewer-Nash Model

It is incorrect because its purpose is to provide access control that can be changed dynamically according to the user’s previous actions. The main purpose is to protect against conflicts of interest due to user access attempts. For example, if a large marketing firm provides marketing promotions and materials for two banks, the employee responsible for the Bank A project should not be able to see information about Bank B, the marketing firm’s other bank customer. A conflict of interest could arise because the banks are competitors. If the project manager of the marketing firm’s Project A can see information about Bank B’s new marketing campaign, he may attempt to execute it rather than promote it to please more direct customers. Marketing firms have a bad reputation when internal employees can act irresponsibly.

×：Clark-Wilson Model

The Clark-Wilson model is incorrect because it is implemented to protect data integrity and ensure that transactions are properly formatted within the application. Subjects can only access objects through authorized programs. Segregation of duties is enforced. Auditing is required. The Clark-Wilson model addresses three integrity goals: preventing changes by unauthorized users, preventing inappropriate changes by unauthorized users, and maintaining internal and external consistency.

×：Bell-LaPadula Model

This model was developed to address concerns about the security of U.S. military systems and the leakage of classified information, and is incorrect. The primary goal of the model is to prevent unauthorized access to classified information. It is a state machine model that enforces the confidentiality aspect of access control. Matrices and security levels are used to determine if a subject has access to different objects. Specific rules are applied to control how objects interact with each other compared to the subject’s object classification.

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

〇：The security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor

The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is a complete combination of protection mechanisms for a system. These are in the form of hardware, software, and firmware. These same components also comprise the security kernel. Reference monitors are access control concepts implemented and enforced by the security kernel via hardware, software, and firmware. In doing so, it ensures that the security kernel, the subject, has the proper permissions to access the object it is requesting. The subject, be it a program, user, or process, cannot access the requesting file, program, or resource until it is proven that it has the proper access rights.

×：The reference monitor is the core of the Trusted Computing Base (TCP), which is comprised of the security kernel.

This is incorrect because the reference monitor is not the core of the TCB. The core of the TCB is the security kernel, and the security kernel implements the concepts of the reference monitor. The reference monitor is a concept about access control. It is often referred to as an “abstract machine” because it is not a physical component.

×：The reference monitor implements and executes the security kernel.

The reference monitor does not implement and execute the security kernel, which is incorrect. On the contrary, the security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor. The reference monitor is an abstract concept, while the security kernel is a combination of hardware, software, and firmware in a trusted computing base.

×：The security kernel, i.e., the abstract machine, implements the concept of a reference monitor.

This is incorrect because abstract machine is not another name for security kernel. Abstract machine is another name for the reference monitor. This concept ensures that the abstract machine acts as an intermediary between the subject and the object, ensuring that the subject has the necessary rights to access the object it is requesting and protecting the subject from unauthorized access and modification. The security kernel functions to perform these activities.

〇：Regular software updates

You are the system administrator. As an administrator, what you should be doing is updating software on a regular basis. Therefore, the correct answer is “regular software updates.

There may be some that you should implement, but choosing the better of the two will also be tested in the actual exam.

×：Sophisticated product selection

In most cases, products that meet the requirements will be selected in accordance with the Request for Proposal (RFP) presented by the customer. Existing system administrators may be involved in some of these discussions, but this is not an appropriate response.

×：Early reporting to your supervisor

In all jobs, reporting to the supervisor is probably an essential part of the job. Here, however, it is more appropriate to focus on your position as a software system administrator.

×：Human resources to monitor the system

A resident system may allow you to deal with problems in a timely manner. However, here, it is more appropriate to focus on the position as a system administrator of the software.

〇：Multiple major and used usages should be screened to make sure they work on the target browsers.

If the service is for BtoC, it is considered that more target users should be supported.

×：It should be checked if it works on a particular browser.

User cases that do not work on certain browsers may occur after release.

×：Confirm that it works on the most secure browser.

If it is secure, it is expected to work in the most restricted of browsers.

In reality, however, browser specifications also vary, including browser backs and terminals.

×：Make sure it works on OS-standard browsers.

Browsers are not just OS standard. In reality, end users also download and use their favorite browsers from app stores.

〇：Conduct business impact analysis

While no specific scientific equation must be followed to create a continuity plan, certain best practices have been proven over time. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) organization is responsible for developing and documenting many of these best practices so that they are readily available to all. NIST outlines seven steps in Special Publication 800-34 Rev 1, Continuity Planning Guide for Federal Information Systems. Conduct a business impact analysis. Identify preventive controls. Develop a contingency strategy. Develop an information systems contingency plan. Ensure testing, training, and exercises of the plan. Ensure the plan is maintained. Conduct a business impact analysis by identifying critical functions and systems and prioritize them as needed. It also includes identifying vulnerabilities and threats and calculating risks.

×：Identify preventive controls

Wrong because critical functions and systems are prioritized and preventive controls need to be identified after their vulnerabilities, threats, and identified risks (all of which are part of a business impact analysis). Conducting a business impact analysis involves step 2, which is to create a continuity plan, and step 3, which is to identify preventive controls.

×：Develop a Continuity Plan Policy Statement

This is incorrect because you need to create a policy that provides the guidance needed to develop a business continuity plan and assigns authority to the roles needed to perform these tasks. This is the first step in creating a business continuity plan and is done before identifying and prioritizing critical systems and functions that are part of the business impact analysis.

×：Create contingency strategies

Creating a contingency strategy is incorrect because it requires formulating a method to ensure that systems and critical functions are brought online quickly. Before this can be done, a business impact analysis must be performed to determine critical systems and functions and prioritize them during recovery.

Application firewalls target Layer 7 of the OSI. The main advantage of an application firewall is its ability to understand specific applications and protocols. Packets are not decrypted until Layer 6, so Layer 7 can see the entire packet. Other firewalls can only inspect the packet, not the payload. It can detect if an unwanted application or service is trying to bypass the firewall by using a protocol on an allowed port, or if the protocol is being used in a malicious manner.

〇：Unified Threat Management

Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance products have been developed to provide firewall, malware, spam, IDS / IPS, content filtering, data leak prevention, VPN capabilities, and continuous monitoring and reporting in computer networks.

Since this question asks for a definition of Unified Threat Management that is unfamiliar or not even mentioned in the course material, it is inefficient to buy and study a new book just to get this score. To avoid ending up with “I don’t know = I can’t solve it,” be sure to develop the habit of choosing a “better answer.

If you think in terms of the classification Concepts/Standards > Solutions/Implementation Methods, ISCM (NIST SP800-137) and centralized access control systems are the former, while Unified Threat Management and cloud-based security solutions are the latter. Therefore, it is still better to bet on unified threat management and cloud-based security solutions.

×：ISCM (NIST SP800-137)

Because continuous monitoring in the security industry is most commonly Information Security Continuous Monitoring ISCM (NIST SP800-137), which enables companies to gain situational awareness, continuous awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support business risk management decisions , is incorrect.

×：Centralized Access Control System

Wrong because a centralized access control system does not attempt to combine all of the security products and capabilities mentioned in the issue. A centralized access control system is used so that its access control can be enforced in a standardized manner across different systems in a network environment.

×：Cloud-based security solutions

Cloud-based security solutions include security managed services that allow an outsourced company to manage and maintain a company’s security devices and solutions, but this is not considered a cloud-based solution. The cloud-based solution provides the infrastructure environment, platform, or application to the customer so that the customer does not have to spend time and money maintaining these items themselves.

〇：Continuity of Operations Plan

A continuity of operations plan (COOP) establishes senior management and post-disaster headquarters. It also outlines roles and authorities and individual role tasks.Creating a COOP begins with an assessment of how the organization operates to identify mission-critical staff, resources, procedures, and equipment. Suppliers, partners, and contractors identify other companies with whom they routinely interact and create a list of these companies. Therefore, the correct answer is the Continuity of Operations Plan.

×：Cyber Incident Response Plan

Cyber Incident Recovery is a plan for recovery from a cyber attack.

×：Crew Emergency Plan

A Crew Emergency Plan is a plan for the smooth transition of a facility’s staff to a secure environment.

×：IT Contingency Plan

A contingency plan is a plan that outlines the measures to be taken in the event of an accident, disaster, or other emergency.

〇：Telnet must be used to send commands and data.

Telnet sends all data, including administrator credentials, in plain text and should not be allowed for remote administration. This type of communication should be via a more secure protocol, such as SSH.

×：Only a small number of administrators should be allowed to perform remote functions.

Wrong, as it is true that only a few administrators should be able to perform remote functions. This minimizes the risk to the network.

×：Critical systems should be managed locally, not remotely.

Wrong because it is true that critical systems need to be managed locally, not remotely. It is safer to send management commands on an internal private network than over a public network.

×：Strong authentication is required.

Wrong because it is true that strong authentication is required for any management activity. Anything weaker than strong authentication, such as a password, is easy for an attacker to break in and gain administrative access.

〇：Business Case

The most important part of establishing and maintaining a current continuity plan is management support. Management may need to be convinced of the need for such a plan. Therefore, a business case is needed to obtain this support. The business case should include current vulnerabilities, legal obligations, current status of the recovery plan, and recommendations. Management is generally most interested in cost-benefit issues, so preliminary figures can be gathered and potential losses estimated. Decisions about how a company should recover are business decisions and should always be treated as such.

×：Business Impact Analysis

Incorrect because the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) was conducted after the BCP team gained management’s support for its efforts. A BIA is conducted to identify areas of greatest financial or operational loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. It identifies the company’s critical systems required for survival and estimates the amount of downtime the company can tolerate as a result of a disaster or disruption.

×：Risk Analysis

Incorrect, as this is a method of identifying risks and assessing the potential damage that could be caused to justify security protection measures. In the context of BCP, risk analysis methods should be used in a BIA to identify which processes, devices, or operations are critical and should be recovered first.

×：Threat reports

The answer is wrong because it is unintended. However, it is important for management to understand what the actual threats are to the enterprise, the consequences of those threats, and the potential loss value for each threat. Without this understanding, management pays lip service to continuity planning and in some cases may be worse than if it did not plan because of the false awareness of security it creates.

Onion routing is characterized by multiple layers of encryption because encryption is applied each time it passes through a router. However, there is no security feature at the final router because all encryption is decrypted at the final point of the router and becomes plaintext.

〇：Conforms to the X.509 standard and assigns a namespace to each object accessed in the database by LDAP.

Most companies have directories that contain information about company network resources and users. Most directories use a hierarchical database format based on the X.500 standard (not X.509) and a type of protocol such as LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) that allows subjects and applications to interact with the directory The application can then use LDAP to access the directory. Applications can request information about a particular user by making an LDAP request to the directory, and users can request information about a particular resource using a similar request. The directory service assigns an Distinguished Name (DN) to each object in the database based on the X.500 standard to be accessed. Each distinguished name represents a set of attributes about a particular object and is stored as an entry in the directory.

×：Namespaces are used to manage objects in the directory.

This is incorrect because objects in a hierarchical database are managed by a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage identification, authentication, permissions, and access control for the network. Objects in the directory are labeled and identified by namespace, which is how the directory service keeps objects organized.

×：Enforce security policies by performing access control and identity management functions.

This is incorrect because directory services enforce the security policy set by performing access control and identity management functions. For example, when a user logs into a domain controller in a Windows environment, the directory service (Active Directory) determines which network resources are accessible and which are not.

×：Administrators can configure and manage how identification takes place within the network.

Directory service is incorrect because it allows the administrator to configure and manage identification within the network. It also allows for the configuration and management of authentication, authorization, and access control.

Computer worms are standalone malware computer programs that replicate themselves and spread to other computers. They typically operate at OSI reference layers 5-7.

〇：Replay attacks

Replay attacks occur when an intruder stores the acquired information and uses it to gain unauthorized access later. In this case, Emily uses a technique called electronic monitoring (sniffing) to retrieve passwords sent over the wire to an authentication server. She can later use the password to access network resources. Even if the password is encrypted, resending valid credentials can be enough to gain access.

×：Brute force attacks

Brute force attacks are incorrect because the cycle is done through many possible combinations of letters, numbers, and symbols, using tools to discover the password.

×：Dictionary attacks

Dictionary attacks are incorrect because they involve an automatic comparison of a user’s password to a file of thousands of words.

×：Social Engineering attack

A social engineering attack is incorrect because in a social engineering attack, the attacker mistakenly convinces an individual that she has the necessary permissions to access certain resources.

〇：Keys will need to be distributed via a secure transmission channel.

For two users to exchange messages encrypted with a symmetric algorithm, they need to figure out how to distribute the key first. If the key is compromised, all messages encrypted with that key can be decrypted and read by an intruder. Simply sending the key in an email message is not secure because the key is not protected and can easily be intercepted and used by an attacker.

×：Computation is more intensive than in asymmetric systems.

That is incorrect because it describes the advantages of symmetric algorithms. Symmetric algorithms tend to be very fast because they are less computationally intensive than asymmetric algorithms. They can encrypt and decrypt relatively quickly large amounts of data that take an unacceptable amount of time to encrypt and decrypt with asymmetric algorithms.

×：Much faster operation than asymmetric systems

Symmetric algorithms are faster than asymmetric systems, but this is an advantage. Therefore, it is incorrect.

×：Mathematically intensive tasks must be performed

Asymmetric algorithms are wrong because they perform a mathematically intensive task. Symmetric algorithms, on the other hand, perform relatively simple mathematical functions on bits during the encryption and decryption process.

A key escrow system is one in which a third-party organization holds a copy of the public/private key pair. If the private key is stolen, all ciphers can be decrypted. Conversely, if it is lost, all ciphers cannot be decrypted. Therefore, you want to have a copy. However, if you have it yourself, it may be stolen if a break-in occurs, so you leave it with a third-party organization.

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) floods are often used in distributed denial of service (DDOS) attacks because they are connectionless and yet allow for easy generation of UDP messages from various scripting and compilation languages. UDP is a datagram protocol.

Ethernet is a way of communication used for local area networks; LANs and such communicate over Ethernet. In other words, most communication is now done over Ethernet.

〇：Execution Domain Switching

Execution domain switching occurs when the CPU needs to move between executing instructions for a more trusted process versus a less trusted process. Trusted Computing Base (TCB) allows processes to switch domains in a secure manner to access different levels of information based on sensitivity. Execution domain switching occurs when a process needs to invoke a process in a higher protection ring. The CPU executes the user-mode instruction back into privileged mode.

At first glance, this is a geeky problem that does not make sense. But don’t give up. Since there is no such thing as skipping, you can only get a right or wrong answer when the question is posed, so it is preferable to answer the question with some degree of prediction.

From this point on, let’s consider how to answer the questions. If you look at the question text and read it to the point where it reads, “You moved from one area to the other, and that was a security breach?” If you can read to that point, then you have two choices: deny or “stop the process,” or change or “switch the domain of execution. Next, the question text reads “if you need to access it,” which is asking how to accomplish this objective, not whether or not you should.

×：Execution of I/O operations

This is incorrect because input/output (I/O) operations are not initiated to ensure security when a process in one domain needs to access another domain in order to retrieve sensitive information. I/O operations are performed when input devices (such as a mouse or keyboard) and output devices (such as a monitor or printer, etc.) interact with an application or applications.

×：Stopping a Process

A process deactivation is one that occurs when a process instruction is fully executed by the CPU or when another process with a higher priority calls the CPU, which is incorrect. When a process is deactivated, new information about the new requesting process must be written to a register in the CPU. The TCB component must ensure that this is done, since the data replaced in the registers may be confidential.

×：Mapping from virtual memory to real memory

Incorrect because memory mapping occurs when a process needs its instructions and data processed by the CPU. The memory manager maps logical addresses to physical addresses so that the CPU knows where to place the data. This is the responsibility of the operating system’s memory manager.

〇：Because the information may be in the hands of someone outside the company after it has been placed in the dumpster.

Dumpster diving, or scavenging, is finding important information in the trash. Putting it in the trash can make you feel relieved that it has been removed. However, the trash can is nothing more than a shared space between internal and external parties, such as cleaning staff. Make sure to shred any text that contains confidential information to prevent leakage.

×：When restoring documents from the trash, they will be mixed with other documents.

They will not be destroyed for the purpose of restoring them.

×：Confidential documents do not need to be destroyed.

Even confidential documents must be destroyed if they are no longer needed.

×：There is no need to shred it.

No, of course they must be shredded.

〇：Clustering

Clustering is a fault-tolerant server technology in which servers are redundantly analogous. A server cluster is a group of servers that can be logically interpreted by users as one server and managed as a single logical system. Clustering provides availability and scalability. It helps to provide immunity to this group, physically distinct systems and failure and improved performance.

The problem statement is phrased in a difficult sentence. It would be difficult to derive the exact specific words from the phrase “logically coupled with a physically distinct group of systems.” In such questions, it is useful to use a process of elimination to derive options from the words that would be the point of the question. From the latter part, “technology that helps provide immunity to failure while also helping with scalability,” we can see that it is something that is both fault-tolerant and scalable. Fault tolerance alone does not narrow down the choices, but in terms of scalability features, clustering falls into this category. Therefore, the correct answer is “clustering.

×：Disk dupe

There is no such term. When presented with a seemingly incomprehensible sentence, you may consider the possibility that it is a word you probably do not know, given the time limit.

×：RAID

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent/Inexpensive Disks) is a technology for operating multiple hard disks as a single hard disk. It has a mechanism to improve physical redundancy by how the data to be recorded is written to the hard disks. This is not a technology system that ensures scalability.

×：Virtualization

Virtualization is a technology that makes it appear as if multiple operating systems are running on the system. Or, it is an environment that enables the construction of a real environment through simulation-like operations surrounding them. While virtualized environments allow for the construction of environments that provide fault tolerance and scalability, they do not match the operation of logically combining them with physically different groups of systems.

〇：Unit Testing

Unit testing involves testing individual components in a controlled environment to verify data structures, logic, and boundary conditions. After the programmer develops a component, it is tested with several different input values and in a variety of situations. Unit testing can begin early in the development process and usually continues throughout the development phase. One of the benefits of unit testing is that it identifies problems early in the development cycle. It is easier and less expensive to make changes to individual units.

×：Acceptance Testing

This is incorrect because acceptance testing is done to verify that the code meets the customer’s requirements. This test is applied to some or all of the application, but usually not individual components.

×：Regression Testing

Regression testing is incorrect because it implies retesting a system after changes have been made to ensure its functionality, performance, and protection. Essentially, regression testing is done to identify bugs where functionality no longer works as intended as a result of a program change. It is not uncommon for developers to fix one problem, accidentally create a new problem, or fix a new problem and solve an old one. Regression testing involves checking for previously fixed bugs to ensure that they have not reappeared and re-running previous tests.

×：Integration Testing

Integration testing is incorrect because it verifies that components work together as outlined in the design specification. After unit testing, individual components or units are tested in combination to verify that they meet functional, performance, and reliability requirements.

〇：A process that is running concurrently. If not properly controlled, the integrity of the database can be adversely affected.

Databases are used simultaneously by many different applications and many users interact with them at once. Concurrency means that different processes (applications and users) are accessing the database at the same time. If this is not properly controlled, processes can overwrite each other’s data or cause deadlock situations. The worst consequence of concurrency problems is poor integrity of the data held in the database. Database integrity is provided by concurrency protection mechanisms; one concurrency control is locking, which prevents users from accessing or modifying data being used by other users.

×：Processes running at different levels. If not properly controlled, they can adversely affect the integrity of the database.

Concurrency is incorrect because it refers to processes running at the same time, not at different levels. Concurrency problems occur when the database can be accessed simultaneously by different users or applications. If controls are not in place, two users can access and modify the same data at the same time, which can be detrimental to a dynamic environment.

×：The process of inferring new information from a review of accessible data. Inference attacks may occur.

The ability to infer new information from reviewing accessible data occurs when subjects at lower security levels indirectly infer data at higher levels. This can lead to an inference attack, but is not related to concurrency.

×：Storing data in multiple locations in the database. If not properly controlled, it can negatively impact database integrity.

Storing data in multiple locations is incorrect because there is no concurrency issue. Concurrency becomes an issue when two subjects or applications are trying to modify the same data at the same time.

〇：SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms.

Email spoofing is easy to perform if the SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms. An attacker can spoof the sender address of an e-mail by sending a Telnet command to port 25 of the mail server. The spammer uses e-mail spoofing to prevent himself from being identified.

×：The administrator forgot to configure a setting that prevents inbound SMTP connections for non-functioning domains.

If it is spoofed, the email sender is also spoofed. This can happen even if you prevent inbound SMTP connections for a domain.

×：Technically abolished by keyword filtering.

Filtering is not very effective against spoofing. Therefore, even if it is technically obsolete, it is unlikely to be the cause.

×：The blacklist function is not technically reliable.

If an email is spoofed, the sender of the email is also spoofed. This can happen even if the filtering function is not reliable.