Clustering is designed for fault tolerance. It is often combined with load balancing, but they are essentially separate. Clustering can make an operation active/active. On top of that, the load balancing feature handles traffic from multiple servers. Active/passive, on the other hand, has a designated primary active server and a secondary passive server, with the passive sending keep-alives or heartbeats every few seconds.

The 2001 terrorist attacks triggered the development of various laws against terrorism. Therefore, the correct answer is “2001,September 11 attacks”.

〇：Make the mail relay server available to everyone.

This is a question of choosing the “ineffective” one. An open mail relay server is not an effective countermeasure against spam. In fact, spammers often use spammers to distribute spam, because the attackers can hide their identities. An open mail relay server is an SMTP server configured to allow inbound SMTP connections from anyone on the Internet, and many relays are properly configured to prevent attackers from distributing spam and pornography. Thus, the correct answer is “have an email relay server available to everyone.” will be.

×：Build a properly configured mail relay server.

A properly configured mail relay server can also suppress spam mail.

×：Perform filtering at the e-mail gateway.

Filtering emails that are considered spam mail at the gateway will help to prevent spam mail.

×：Filtering at the client.

Filtering spam mail at the client, i.e., in a mailing application such as Outlook, is considered to be a countermeasure against spam mail.

〇：Statistically predictable

The two main types of symmetric algorithms are block ciphers and stream ciphers. Block ciphers perform a mathematical function on a block of bits at a time. Stream ciphers do not divide the message into blocks. Instead, a stream cipher treats the message as a stream of bits and performs the mathematical function on each bit individually. If it were statistically predictable, it would not be a practical encryption technique in the first place.

×：Statistically Fair Keystreams

Statistically fair keystreams are an element of good stream ciphers. Therefore, it is incorrect. Another way to say a statistically unbiased keystream is that it is a highly random keystream that is difficult to predict.

×：The repetitive pattern of bit strings treated in a keystream is long.

Another way to say the randomness of a keystream is that it is highly random, with long repetitions = rarely repeated = highly random.

×：The keystream is irrelevant to the key.

A keystream that is not related to a key is an element of a good stream cipher. Therefore, it is incorrect. This is important because the key provides the randomness of the encryption process.

Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detection (CSMA / CD) is used for systems that can transmit and receive simultaneously, such as Ethernet. If two clients listen at the same time and make sure the line is clear, both may transmit at the same time, causing a collision. Collision Detection (CD) is added to solve this scenario. The client checks to see if the line is idle and transmits if it is idle. If in use, they wait for a random time (milliseconds). During transmission, they monitor the network and if more input is received than transmitted, another client is also transmitting and sends a jam signal instructing other nodes to stop transmitting, wait a random time and then start transmitting again.

〇：Promptly deactivate the use of employee-only accounts.

Provisioning is the process of adding accounts for use in the system. Conversely, de-provisioning is the removal of an account. An employee’s account should be deactivated at the time the employee leaves the organization. Giving a former employee access to the organization’s resources is an information leak. Therefore, the correct answer is “promptly deactivate the employee’s dedicated account.” will be

×：Retrieve the employee’s loaner computer.

This is not provisioning, but should be done at the time the employee leaves the company.

×：Signing an NDA.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA, Non-Disclosure Agreement) is an agreement that prohibits the disclosure to others of trade secrets, etc. of the other party learned in the course of business. It is not provisioning.

×：Securing the personal contact information of employees.

A normal company would not attempt to collect such private information upon separation from employment. It is not provisioning.

〇：The format of the audit log is unknown and is not available to the intruder in the first place.

Audit tools are technical controls that track activity within a network, on a network device, or on a specific computer. Auditing is not activity that denies an entity access to a network or computer, but it tracks activity so that the security administrator can understand the type of access made, identify security violations, or alert the administrator of suspicious activity. This information points out weaknesses in other technical controls and helps the administrator understand where changes need to be made to maintain the required level of security within the environment. Intruders can also use this information to exploit these weaknesses. Therefore, audit logs should be protected by controls on privileges, permissions, and integrity, such as hashing algorithms. However, the format of system logs is generally standardized for all similar systems. Hiding the log format is not a normal measure and is not a reason to protect audit log files.

×：If not properly protected, audit logs may not be admissible during prosecution.

This is incorrect because great care must be taken to protect audit logs in order for them to be admissible in court. Audit trails can be used to provide alerts about suspicious activity that can be investigated later. In addition, it is useful in determining exactly how far away the attack took place and the extent of any damage that may have occurred. It is important to ensure that a proper chain of custody is maintained so that all data collected can be properly and accurately represented in case it needs to be used in later events such as criminal proceedings or investigations.

×：Because audit logs contain sensitive data, only a specific subset of users should have access to them.

This is incorrect because only administrators and security personnel need to be able to view, modify, and delete audit trail information. Others cannot see this data and can rarely change or delete it. The use of digital signatures, message digest tools, and strong access controls can help ensure the integrity of the data. Its confidentiality can be protected with encryption and access control as needed, and it can be stored on write-once media to prevent data loss or tampering. Unauthorized access attempts to audit logs should be captured and reported.

×：Intruders may attempt to scrub logs to hide their activities.

If an intruder breaks into your home, do your best to leave no fingerprints or clues that can be used to link them to criminal activity. The same is true for computer fraud and illegal activity. Attackers often delete audit logs that hold this identifying information. In the text, deleting is described as scrubbing. Deleting this information may alert administrators to an alert or perceived security breach and prevent valuable data from being destroyed. Therefore, audit logs should be protected by strict access controls.

RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the target value for recovering data at a point in the past when a failure occurs. When a failure occurs, the data currently handled is lost. The lost data must be recovered from backups, but it is important to know how far in the past the backups are from the current point in time.

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a target value that defines when the data should be recovered in the event of a failure. In the event of a failure, the service must not be unavailable indefinitely. Failure response procedures and disaster drills must be implemented to establish a target value for the time from the occurrence of a failure to the startup of service.

Disaster Recovery Planning includes the Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery life cycles.

• Mitigation: Reduces the impact and likelihood of a disaster.
• Prepare: Create programs, procedures, and tools for response.
• Response: follow procedures and how to respond to a disaster.
• Recovery: re-establish basic functionality and return to a full production environment.

〇：Unit Testing

Unit testing involves testing individual components in a controlled environment to verify data structures, logic, and boundary conditions. After the programmer develops a component, it is tested with several different input values and in a variety of situations. Unit testing can begin early in the development process and usually continues throughout the development phase. One of the benefits of unit testing is that it identifies problems early in the development cycle. It is easier and less expensive to make changes to individual units.

×：Acceptance Testing

This is incorrect because acceptance testing is done to verify that the code meets the customer’s requirements. This test is applied to some or all of the application, but usually not individual components.

×：Regression Testing

Regression testing is incorrect because it implies retesting a system after changes have been made to ensure its functionality, performance, and protection. Essentially, regression testing is done to identify bugs where functionality no longer works as intended as a result of a program change. It is not uncommon for developers to fix one problem, accidentally create a new problem, or fix a new problem and solve an old one. Regression testing involves checking for previously fixed bugs to ensure that they have not reappeared and re-running previous tests.

×：Integration Testing

Integration testing is incorrect because it verifies that components work together as outlined in the design specification. After unit testing, individual components or units are tested in combination to verify that they meet functional, performance, and reliability requirements.

〇：Because the information may be in the hands of someone outside the company after it has been placed in the dumpster.

Dumpster diving, or scavenging, is finding important information in the trash. Putting it in the trash can make you feel relieved that it has been removed. However, the trash can is nothing more than a shared space between internal and external parties, such as cleaning staff. Make sure to shred any text that contains confidential information to prevent leakage.

×：When restoring documents from the trash, they will be mixed with other documents.

They will not be destroyed for the purpose of restoring them.

×：Confidential documents do not need to be destroyed.

Even confidential documents must be destroyed if they are no longer needed.

×：There is no need to shred it.

No, of course they must be shredded.

〇：Level of insurance required to cover assets.

This question is about choosing what is not used. There are several ways to calculate asset value (AV, Asset Value): the market approach, which refers to similar assets in the market, the income approach, which measures it by the profit it will earn in the future, and the cost approach, which measures it by the cost spent on the asset. The level of insurance needed to cover an asset is a decision made after identifying the asset value and conducting an appropriate risk analysis, allowing the organization to more easily determine the level of insurance coverage to purchase for that asset. Therefore, the correct answer is “level of insurance required to cover the asset”.

×：Value of the asset in the external market.

The technique of referring to similar assets in the market is known as the market approach.

×：Initial costs and outlay for purchasing, licensing, and supporting the asset.

The method of measuring by the cost spent on an asset is known as the cost approach.

×：The value of the asset to the organization’s production operations.

The method of measuring by the profit that will be earned in the future is known as the revenue approach.

〇：Send a report labeled “No output”.

If there is nothing to report (nothing to report), you need to make sure the manager is aware that the report has no information and is not only to be held accountable.

×：Send an email notifying the manager that there is nothing to report.

It is not appropriate to suddenly keep a record of the report by e-mail, since the report is normally scheduled to be reported in the operation. Realistically, wouldn’t you be more endearing to your manager if you communicated with him or her every step of the way? No, I am not asking you to do that.

×：Re-submit last week’s report and submit the date of last week’s report as this week’s date.

Delivering last week’s report does not express that nothing was reported this week.

×：Nothing.

You are required to report that nothing happened.

〇：Salt

A rainbow table is a pre-built list of ciphertexts that match plaintext and have hashes that match passwords. The table can contain millions of pairs. Salting is random data used as additional input to a one-way function that “hashes” a password or passphrase. The primary function of a salting is to protect against dictionary or compiled rainbow table attacks.

×：Login Attempt Restrictions

Effective against all unauthorized login methods, but not a direct or effective countermeasure against rainbow tables.

×：Key stretching

Replacing passwords with longer, random strings for encryption purposes.

×：Hashing

Password hashing is a fixed-length cipher (hash) statement for secure password storage.

This is a “non-ethics item” question.

A statement is made by the Internet Activities Board (IAB) to those who use the Internet about the correct use of Internet resources.

• Attempting to obtain unauthorized access to Internet resources.
• Disrupting the intended use of the Internet.
• Wasting resources (people, capabilities, and computers) through such activities.
• Destroying the integrity of computer-based information.
• Violating the privacy of users.

〇：The cloud provider is provided a platform as a service that provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web servers.

Cloud computing is a term used to describe the aggregation of network and server technologies, each virtualized, to provide customers with a specific computing environment that matches their needs. This centralized control provides end users with self-service, broad access across multiple devices, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and service monitoring capabilities.

There are different types of cloud computing products: IaaS provides virtualized servers in the cloud; PaaS allows applications to be developed individually; SaaS allows service providers to deploy services with no development required and with a choice of functionality; and IaaS allows customers to choose the type of service they want to use. ” The term “PaaS” must fit the definition of “PaaS” because it requires that “the original application configuration remains the same”. Thus, the correct answer is, “The cloud provider provides a computing platform that may include an operating system, database, and web server, where the platform as a service is provided.” The following is the correct answer

×：The cloud provider is provided with an infrastructure as a service that provides a computing platform that can include an operating system, database, and web servers.

IaaS Description.

×：The cloud provider is provided with software services that provide an infrastructure environment similar to that of a traditional data center.

This is a description of the operational benefits of cloud computing. It is not a definition.

×：The cloud provider provides software as a service in a computing platform environment where application functionality is internalized.

SaaS Description.

〇：Considering an architecture that can handle health information.

Carol is a systems engineer and is expected to explore systemic realities. It is likely that she is deviating from her role to preemptively explain why it cannot be done systemically, to modify approvals other than the system configuration, or to initiate legal work. The correct answer, therefore, is, “Think about an architecture that can handle health information.” The correct answer would be

×：To address the dangers of handling health information in the system.

The basic stance of a system engineer is to obtain feasibility as a system. Although it is necessary to supplement the danger to the proposed idea, appealing the danger should not be the main purpose.

×：Obtaining permission to entrust health information from a medical institution.

A contract should be signed and the legal scope of responsibility should be clarified. This is outside the scope of the system engineer’s scope.

×：To prepare a written consent to use for handling health information.

It is necessary to obtain consent for end users before using the service, and the scope of legal responsibility needs to be clarified. This is outside the scope object of the system engineer’s scope.

〇：Conflict condition

A race condition is present when a process performs a task on a shared resource and the sequence could be in the wrong order. 2 or more processes can have a race condition if they use a shared resource, like data in a variable. It is important that processes perform their functions in the correct sequence.

×：Backdoors

Backdoors are incorrect because they are “listening” services on certain ports. Backdoors are implemented by attackers to allow easy access to the system without authenticating as a normal system user.

×：Maintenance Hooks

Maintenance hooks are specific software codes that allow easy and unauthorized access to sensitive parts of a software product. Software programmers use maintenance hooks to allow them to get quick access to the code so that they can make fixes in immediate, but this is dangerous.

×：Data validation errors

Data validation errors are wrong because an attacker cannot operate on the process execution sequence.

〇：CA signs certificates.

A Certificate Authority (CA) is a trusted agency (or server) that maintains digital certificates. When a certificate is requested, the Registration Authority (RA) verifies the identity of the individual and passes the certificate request to the CA The CA creates the certificate, signs it, and maintains the certificate over its lifetime.

×：RA creates the certificate and CA signs it.

Incorrect because the RA does not create the certificate; the CA creates it and signs it; the RA performs authentication and registration tasks; establishes the RA, verifies the identity of the individual requesting the certificate, initiates the authentication process to the CA on behalf of the end user, and performs certificate life cycle RAs cannot issue certificates, but can act as a broker between the user and the CA When a user needs a new certificate, they make a request to the RA and the RA goes to the CA to verify all necessary identification before granting the request The RA verifies all necessary identification information before granting the request.

×：RA signs certificates.

The RA signs the certificate, which is incorrect because the RA does not sign the certificate; the CA signs the certificate; the RA verifies the user’s identifying information and then sends the certificate request to the CA.

×：The user signs the certificate.

Incorrect because the user has not signed the certificate; in a PKI environment, the user’s certificate is created and signed by the CA. The CA is a trusted third party that generates the user certificate holding its public key.

〇：Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is an access control that enforces access privileges by pre-classifying resources into levels. There are several types of access rights to data files. There are several types of access rights to data files: the user of the data file, the owner who creates the data file, and the administrator who decides which owner can create the data. SELinux, TOMOYO Linux, Trusted BSD, and Trusted Solaris are methods used by MACs.

×：Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is an access control method that allows the owner of an access target to change access privileges.

×：Role Access Control (RAC)

There is no such term. A close equivalent is role-based access control, which divides accounts by role and applies access control to those roles.

×：Voluntary Access Control (VAC)

There is no such term.

〇：Verifying Data Availability

The responsibility for verifying data availability is the sole responsibility that does not belong to the data (information) owner. Rather, it is the responsibility of the data (information) controller. The data controller is also responsible for maintaining and protecting the data in accordance with the data owner’s instructions. This includes performing regular backups of data, restoring data from backup media, maintaining records of activities, and enforcing information security and data protection requirements in company policies, guidelines, and standards. Data owners work at a higher level than data managers. The data owner basically says, “This is the level of integrity, availability, and confidentiality you need to provide. Please do it now”. The data administrator is executing these permissions and following up on the installed controls to ensure they are working properly.

×：Assigning Information Classification

Incorrect as you are asking if Jim is not responsible for the assignment of information classifications because as the data owner, Jim is responsible for the assignment of information classifications.

×：Determining how to protect data

Incorrect because the data owner, such as Jim, is responsible for determining how the information is protected. The data owner has organizational responsibility for data protection and is liable for any negligence with respect to protecting the organization’s information assets. This means that Jim needs to decide how to protect the information and ensure that the data controller (a role usually occupied by IT or security) is implementing these decisions.

×：Determining how long to retain data

This is incorrect because the decision of how long to retain data is the responsibility of the data owner. The data owner is also responsible for determining who can access the information and ensuring that the appropriate access rights are used. He may approve access requests himself or delegate that function to the business unit manager. The business unit manager approves the request based on the user access criteria defined by the data owner.

〇：Information used to reconstruct data

RAID can improve system performance by providing fault tolerance to the hard drive and the data it holds. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting the data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also distributed across each disk. This is called parity, and if one disk fails, the other disks can work together to recover the data.

×：Information used to create new data

This is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data, but rather as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to erase data

Parity information is not used to erase data. This is incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

×：Information used to construct data

Parity information is not used to create data. Incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

〇：Representatives from each department meet and undergo validation.

Structured walk-through testing allows functional personnel to review the plan as it is fulfilled to ensure its accuracy and validity.

×：Ensures that some systems will run at alternate sites.

This is incorrect because it describes parallel testing.

×：Send a copy of the disaster recovery plan to all departments to verify its completeness.

This is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

×：Take down the normal operation system.

This is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

〇：Zero Knowledge Proof

Zero Knowledge Proof means that someone can tell you something without telling you more information than you need to know. In cryptography, it means proving that you have a certain key without sharing that key or showing it to anyone. Zero knowledge proof (usually mathematical) is an interactive way for one party to prove to another that something is true without revealing anything sensitive.

×：Key Clustering

Key clustering is the phenomenon of encrypting the same plaintext with different keys, but with the same ciphertext.

×：Avoiding Birthday Attacks

An attacker can attempt to force a collision, called a birthday attack. This attack is based on the mathematical birthday paradox present in standard statistics. This is a cryptographic attack that uses probability theory to exploit the mathematics behind the birthday problem.

×：Provides data confidentiality

Provided via encryption when data is encrypted with a key, which is incorrect.

〇：Review the schedule.

Unit testing is testing to confirm that the developed module works as a stand-alone unit. Acceptance testing is testing to make sure that the customer who ordered the development actually uses it and is satisfied with it. Acceptance testing cannot take the place of unit testing. It is not upward compatible as a test, and the perspectives are different. Therefore, the correct answer is “Review the schedule.” The correct answer is “Review the schedule.

×：Unit testing is not performed for the sake of work efficiency.

It does not mean that unit tests are not performed.

×：Increase the number of items in the acceptance test for the unit test that could not be done.

The items that should have been done in the actual unit test are simply accounted for as acceptance tests, and the unit test is not considered to have been completed. This is an action that is close to concealment.

×：Report to your supervisor.

You are in charge of project management.

〇：Password synchronization between different systems

Password synchronization is designed to reduce the complexity of maintaining different passwords for different systems. Password synchronization technology allows a single password to be maintained across multiple systems by transparently synchronizing passwords to other systems in real time. This reduces help desk call volume. However, one of the disadvantages of this approach is that only one password is used to access different resources. This means that a hacker only needs to figure out one set of credentials to gain unauthorized access to all resources. Therefore, the correct answer is “password synchronization between different systems”.

×：Password reset by administrator query

This does not reduce the amount of help desk support because the end user must contact the administrator.

×：End-user manual password reset by self-service

This is the so-called “self-service” password reset, in which end users change their passwords themselves from their profile pages.

This is the most practical way to reduce the amount of helpdesk support, but it does not meet the requirement of easy access to multiple resources in case of a password compromise.

×：Password reset by inquiry

This does not reduce the amount of helpdesk support because it requires the end user to contact the administrator. An inquiry is an inquiry whether or not an administrator is attached.

Freeware is free software and can be used for free. Shareware is fully functional proprietary software that is initially free to use. Often a trial to test the software requires a fee to continue using it after 30 days. Thus, the correct answer is, “Freeware is free in perpetuity, while shareware is free for a set period of time.” will be.

〇：The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

×：Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

×：Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

×：A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

Awareness is to inform the organization’s members of the information they already have in order to make them more vigilant again. Tranning is the input of information that is unknown to the members of the organization. Therefore, the difference between awareness-raising and tranning is whether the target audience is already aware of the information.

〇：Stateful Inspection

Stateful Inspection detects abnormal communication in which the request and response are linked and only the response is returned from a different server. Therefore, the correct answer is “Stateful Inspection.

×：Application Gateway

Commonly referred to as WAF, this is used when filtering is performed based on strings in telegrams, such as SQL injection.

×：Packet Filtering

Used for filtering by IP address or port.

×：Session Gateway

There is no such firewall category.

〇：Control of the processing and distribution process

An important part of the digital forensic process is to maintain a proper chain of custody of evidence.

The question structure assumes Chain of Custody (Chain of Custody) from “the purpose of securing all evidence and notating it as information to be presented to those who verify it” and selects the one that comes closest to the definition.

×：Reasonable care

Wrong because reasonable care implies performing an activity that a reasonable person would be expected to perform under similar circumstances.

×：Investigation

Incorrect because investigation involves the proper collection of relevant data during the incident response process and includes analysis, interpretation, reaction, and recovery.

×：Motive, Opportunity, Means

Motive, Opportunity, and Means (MOM) is incorrect because it is a strategy used to understand why certain crimes were committed and by whom.

〇：The security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor

The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is a complete combination of protection mechanisms for a system. These are in the form of hardware, software, and firmware. These same components also comprise the security kernel. Reference monitors are access control concepts implemented and enforced by the security kernel via hardware, software, and firmware. In doing so, it ensures that the security kernel, the subject, has the proper permissions to access the object it is requesting. The subject, be it a program, user, or process, cannot access the requesting file, program, or resource until it is proven that it has the proper access rights.

×：The reference monitor is the core of the Trusted Computing Base (TCP), which is comprised of the security kernel.

This is incorrect because the reference monitor is not the core of the TCB. The core of the TCB is the security kernel, and the security kernel implements the concepts of the reference monitor. The reference monitor is a concept about access control. It is often referred to as an “abstract machine” because it is not a physical component.

×：The reference monitor implements and executes the security kernel.

The reference monitor does not implement and execute the security kernel, which is incorrect. On the contrary, the security kernel implements and executes the reference monitor. The reference monitor is an abstract concept, while the security kernel is a combination of hardware, software, and firmware in a trusted computing base.

×：The security kernel, i.e., the abstract machine, implements the concept of a reference monitor.

This is incorrect because abstract machine is not another name for security kernel. Abstract machine is another name for the reference monitor. This concept ensures that the abstract machine acts as an intermediary between the subject and the object, ensuring that the subject has the necessary rights to access the object it is requesting and protecting the subject from unauthorized access and modification. The security kernel functions to perform these activities.

〇：Zachman Framework

The Zachman Framework is an enterprise architecture that determines the what, how, where, who, when, and why for each mandate. Enterprise architecture is to create a management structure to achieve business goals. We create an organization to achieve business goals, and basically, the larger the business goals, the larger the organization. If the structure of the organization is not in place, the organization will not run efficiently, as there may be residual work that needs to be done, or there may be friction between jobs due to authority that is covered by others. Therefore, it is necessary to clarify the scope of each job authority in order to put the organization in order. The job authority here is different from the perspectives of human resources or sales. It is easier to think of them as hierarchically separated to achieve business goals. Clarify the scope in Executive, Business Management, Architecture, Engineers, Subcontractors, and Stakeholders, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is the Zachman Framework.

×：SABSA

SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework to ensure that security measures are working properly in achieving business goals. Unlike the Zachman Framework, the tasks to be organized are hierarchical elements. Business Requirements > Conceptual Architecture > Logical Service Architecture > Physical Infrastructure Architecture > Technology and Products, each with a 5W1H practice.

×：Five-W method

There is no such term. If there is, it is a term coined to make it easier to interpret.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

〇：Provisioning accounts, modifying accounts, auditing account usage, and deactivating accounts.

All phases of the authenticated access lifecycle should be considered. Access should not be granted without proper instructions, nor should access be granted or denied without expected authorization. Suspension of access must also be auditable.

×：Provisioning or adding accounts, changing accounts, and suspending accounts.

Incorrect because it does not include auditing of account usage.

×：Adding an account, deleting an account, or deleting a user’s data.

Incorrect because deletion of user data may conflict with data retention requirements.

×：Verifying account passwords, checking account usage, and deleting accounts.

Incorrect because it is merely an authentication step and not related to account management.

〇：Time-Based Synchronous Dynamic Token

A synchronous token device synchronizes with the authentication service using time or a counter as a core part of the authentication process. When synchronization is time-based, the token device and authentication service must maintain the same time within their internal clocks. The time values of the token device and private key are used to generate a one-time password that is displayed to the user. The user then passes this value and user ID to the server running the authentication service and enters this value and user ID into the computer. The authentication service decrypts this value and compares it to the expected value. If both match, the user is authenticated and allowed to use the computer and resources.

×：Counter-Based Synchronous Dynamic Token

If the token device and authentication service use counter synchronization, it is incorrect because it is not based on time. When using a counter-synchronized token device, the user must initiate the creation of a one-time password by pressing a button on the token device. This causes the token device and authentication service to proceed to the next authentication value. This value, the base secret, is hashed and displayed to the user. The user enters this resulting value along with the user ID to be authenticated. For either time or counter-based synchronization, the token device and authentication service must share the same secret base key used for encryption and decryption.

×：Asynchronous Tokens

Asynchronous token generation methods are incorrect because they use a challenge/response method for the token device to authenticate the user. Instead of using synchronization, this technique does not use separate steps in the authentication process.

×：Mandatory Tokens

Wrong because there is no such thing as a mandatory token. This is an incorrect answer.

〇：Encryption and decryption are more efficient.

Elliptic curves are rich mathematical structures that have shown usefulness in many different types of applications. Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) differs from other asymmetric algorithms because of its efficiency; ECC is efficient because it is computationally less expensive than other asymmetric algorithms. In most cases, the longer the key, the more bloated the computation to secure it, but ECC can provide the same level of protection with a shorter key size than RSA requires.

×：Provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption.

ECC is wrong because it is not the only asymmetric algorithm that provides digital signatures, secure key distribution, and encryption provided by other asymmetric algorithms such as RSA.

×：Calculated in finite discrete logarithms.

Wrong because Diffie-Hellman and El-Gamal compute with finite discrete logarithms.

×：Uses a large percentage of resources to perform the encryption.

Incorrect because ECC when compared to other asymmetric algorithms uses much less resources. Some devices, such as wireless devices and cell phones, have limited processing power, storage, power, and bandwidth. Resource utilization efficiency is very important for the encryption methods used in this type.

〇：Diameter

Diameter is an authentication, authorization, and audit (AAA) protocol that not only provides the same kind of functionality as RADIUS and TACACS, but also offers more flexibility and capabilities to meet the emerging demands of today’s complex and diverse networks. Once all remote communication is done via Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) connections, users can authenticate themselves via Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) to authenticated. The technology has become much more complex and there are multiple devices and protocols to choose from over the ever increasing Diameter protocol, Mobile IP, PPP, Voice over IP (VoIP), and other over Ethernet, wireless devices, smart phones, and other devices can authenticate themselves to the network using roaming protocols.

×：Watchdog

Watchdog timers are wrong because such processes are generally used to detect software failures such as abnormal termination or hangs. The watchdog function sends out “heartbeat” packets to determine if the service is responding. If not, the process can be terminated or reset. These packets help prevent software deadlocks, infinite loops, and process prioritization problems. This feature can be used in the AAA protocol to determine if a packet needs to be retransmitted and if a problem occurs and the connection should be closed and reopened, but it is not in the access control protocol itself.

×：RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is wrong because it is a network protocol and provides client/server authentication, authorization, and auditing for remote users.

×：TACACS

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS ) is incorrect because it provides essentially the same functionality as RADIUS.

〇：Federation Identity

A federation identity is a portable identity and associated credentials that can be used across business boundaries. It allows users to authenticate across multiple IT systems and across the enterprise. Federation Identity is based on linking otherwise distinct identities of users in two or more locations without the need to synchronize or consolidate directory information. Federated Identity is an important component of e-commerce, providing businesses and consumers with a more convenient way to access distributed resources.

×：User Provisioning

User provisioning is incorrect because it refers to the creation, maintenance, and deactivation of user objects and attributes.

×：Directory

While most companies have some type of directory that contains information about company network resources and users, generally these directories are not utilized as spread across different companies. It is true that nowadays, with open APIs and cloud computing, there is a trend to deploy services through a single directory, but the directory service itself does not include resource sharing implications. In other words, it is just used as a shared service.

×：Web Access Management

Web Access Management (WAM) software is incorrect because it controls what users can access when using a Web browser to interact with Web-based corporate assets.

VoIP uses UDP. It is real-time oriented, and it is probably better to lose one or two packets than to retransmit a few seconds later in a connectionless fashion.

Within the U.S. military complex and national security apparatus, the most common names for data classification become unclassified and classified. “Classified” information includes classified, critical secret, and top secret (Top Secret). Classified data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could harm national security. Top Secret data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could cause “serious” harm to national security. Finally, Top Secret data is data that, if improperly disclosed, could cause “serious” harm to national security.

Brute force can be used to decrypt the plaintext, given enough time. This is valid for all key-based ciphers except one-time pads. Eventually the data will be decrypted, but so many false positives will occur that the data will be rendered useless.

〇：All security activities shall be conducted within the security department.

When all security activities are performed within the security department, security functions within a silo and is not integrated throughout the organization. In companies that have a security governance program in place, security responsibilities are pervasive throughout the organization, from senior management down the chain of command. A common scenario is executive management with the executive director of operations responsible for risk management activities for a particular business unit. Additionally, employees are responsible for malicious or accidental security breaches.

×：Officers will be updated quarterly on the company’s security status.

Incorrect. Security governance is providing strategic guidance, ensuring that goals are being met, risks are properly managed, and resources are used responsibly. Organizations with a security governance program have a board of directors that understands the importance of security and is aware of the organization’s security performance and breaches.

×：Deploy security products, services, and consultants in an informed manner.

Security governance is incorrect because it is a cohesive system of integrated security components that includes products, people, training, and processes. Therefore, organizations that have a security governance program in place will assist consultants with security products, management services, and consultants in an informed manner. They are also constantly reviewed to ensure they are cost effective.

×：The organization establishes metrics and goals for improving security.

inaccurate because security governance requires performance measurement and oversight mechanisms. Organizations that have a security governance program in place are continually reviewing their processes, including security, with the goal of continuous improvement. On the other hand, an organization lacking a security governance program may proceed without analyzing its performance, thus repeating the same mistakes.

Stored data is data that is stored on a disk or other media. Transmitted data is data flowing over a network. Used data is data that is in memory, cache, etc. and in use. Just because it is being transported by truck does not make it data that is being transferred. Therefore, “stored data” is the correct answer.

Computer worms are standalone malware computer programs that replicate themselves and spread to other computers. They typically operate at OSI reference layers 5-7.

〇：Test with reference to OSSTMM.

OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) is an open source penetration testing standard. Open source is basically free and has many amazing features. Because it is free and anyone can use it, there is a view that trust is low. However, there is nothing like it if you properly understand the risks. That is why we are trying to create a testing standard for open source to ensure trust. Therefore, the correct answer is: “Test with reference to OSSTMM.” will be “OSSTMM”.

×：Since open source is fully tested at the point of development, the testing process can be omitted.

Even if it is open source, you need to test it according to your own organization.

×：Secure contact information for the developer and conduct testing with both developers.

If you contact the open source developer, these responses will probably not go through.

Most open source developers are doing this in good faith and may be brazen about further pursuit from the organization.

×：Ask other organizations to share completed tests.

The process of getting test results that may be confidential from other organizations is unreasonable.

Cryptographic algorithms refer to the calculations to be encrypted, and even if the cryptographic algorithms were publicly available, it would take an enormous amount of effort to decipher them. cryptographic algorithms that provide modern cryptography, such as AES, are publicly available. On the other hand, in-house development is not recommended because, although it has the security of concealment, it requires a great deal of resources to be allocated.

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a way to implement a virtual private network (VPN). It is Microsoft’s proprietary VPN protocol that operates at the data link layer of the OSI model; PPTP can only provide a single connection and can operate over a PPP connection.

〇：Conduct a risk analysis.

The first step in the procedure described, which is the first step to be taken only to deploy an effective physical security program, is to conduct a risk analysis to identify vulnerabilities and threats and to calculate the business impact of each threat. The team presents the results of the risk analysis to management to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team evaluates and determines if the baseline is met by implementation. Once the team identifies its responses and implements the measures, performance is continually evaluated. These performances will be compared to the established baselines. If the baseline is maintained on an ongoing basis, the security program is successful because it does not exceed the company’s acceptable risk level.

×：Create a performance metric for the countermeasure.  

The procedure to create a countermeasure performance metric is incorrect because it is not the first step in creating a physical security program. If monitored on a performance basis, it can be used to determine how beneficial and effective the program is. It allows management to make business decisions when investing in physical security protection for the organization. The goal is to improve the performance of the physical security program, leading to a cost-effective way to reduce the company’s risk. You should establish a performance baseline and then continually evaluate performance to ensure that the firm’s protection goals are being met. Examples of possible performance metrics include: number of successful attacks, number of successful attacks, and time taken for attacks.

×：Design program.  

Designing the program is wrong because it should be done after the risk analysis. Once the level of risk is understood, then the design phase can be done to protect against the threats identified in the risk analysis. The design of deterrents, delays, detections, assessments, and responses will incorporate the necessary controls for each category of the program.

×：Implement countermeasures.  

Wrong because implementing countermeasures is one of the last steps in the process of deploying a physical security program.

The Kerckhoffs’s principle is the idea that cryptography should be secure even if everything but the private key is known. When encrypting data, one decides on a private key and how to encrypt it using that private key. Kerckhoffs says that even if it is known how it is encrypted, it should not be deciphered as long as the secret key is not discovered. Encryption has been with the history of human warfare. The main purpose is to communicate a strategy to one’s allies without being discovered by the enemy. In battle, its designs and encryption devices may be stolen by spies. Therefore, the encryption must be such that it cannot be solved without the key, no matter how much is known about how it works.

〇：One-time pad

Stream ciphers refer to one-time pad technology. In practice, stream ciphers cannot provide the level of protection that one-time pads do, but are practical.

×：AES

AES is incorrect because it is a symmetric block cipher. When a block cipher is used for encryption and decryption purposes, the message is divided into blocks of bits.

×：Block ciphers

Block ciphers are used for encryption and decryption purposes. The message is wrong because it is divided into blocks of bits.

×：RSA

RSA is incorrect because it is an asymmetric algorithm.

〇：Extraction of data from the database

In data classification, the data classification is used to specify which users have access to read and write data stored in the database, but it does not involve the extraction of data from the database. Therefore, the correct answer is “extraction of data from the database.

What is this? This is a question that you may think “What is this?” but you need to calmly analyze the classification of data and the manipulation of data. The more time you spend, the more tempted you are to give a difficult answer, but keeping calm is important in solving abstract problems.

×：Grouping hierarchically classified information

This is the primary activity of data classification.

×：Ensuring that non-confidential data is not unnecessarily protected

It is written in a complicated way, but it says that what does not need to be protected does not need the ability to be protected either.

×：Understanding the impact of data leakage

Although not directly, we may check the impact of a data breach in order to understand its importance in classifying data. Ka.

Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP) is the process of creating short-term plans, policies, procedures, and tools to enable the recovery or continuation of critical IT systems in the event of a disaster. It focuses on the IT systems that support critical business functions and how they will be restored after a disaster. For example, it considers what to do if you suffer a distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack, if your servers are compromised, if there is a power outage, etc. BCP is more focused on what should happen and does not necessarily include system requirements.

〇：Increasing database security controls and providing more granularity.

The best approach to protecting the database in this situation would be to increase controls and assign detailed permissions. These measures would ensure that users cannot abuse their permissions and that the confidentiality of the information is maintained. The granularity of permissions would give network administrators and security professionals additional control over the resources they are charged with protecting, and the granular level would allow them to give individuals just the exact level of access they need.

×：Implement an access control where each user’s privileges are displayed each time they access the database.

Implementing an access control that displays each user’s permissions is incorrect because they are an example of one control each time they access the database. This is not the overall way of dealing with user access to a database full of information. This may be an example of better database security control, but it needs to be limited to the right places.

×：Change the classification label of the database to a higher security status.

The classification level of the information in the database should previously be determined based on its level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This option implies that a higher level of authorization should be given, but there is no indication in the question text that the security level is inappropriate.

×：Reduce security. Allow all users to access information as needed.

The answer to reduce security is incorrect.

〇：IGRP

The Internal Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) is a distance vector routing protocol developed by and proprietary to Cisco Systems, Inc. Whereas the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) uses one criterion to find the optimal path between source and destination, IGRP uses five criteria to make an “optimal route” determination. The network administrator can set weights on these different metrics so that the protocol works optimally in its particular environment.

×：RIP  

Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is incorrect because it is not proprietary; RIP allows routers to exchange routing table data and calculate the shortest distance between source and destination. It is considered a legacy protocol due to poor performance and lack of features. It should be used in smaller networks.

×：BGP

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is incorrect because it is an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP); BGP allows routers in different ASes to share routing information to ensure effective and efficient routing between different networks. BGP is used by Internet Service Providers.

×：OSPF  

OSPF is incorrect because it is not proprietary; it uses a link-state algorithm to transmit information in the OSPF routing table. Smaller and more frequent routing table updates.

〇：PCI DSS

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a framework to avoid personal information leakage when making electronic payments. Therefore, the correct answer is “PCI DSS.

By the way, if you were to ask, “Which of the following are possible?” I am tempted to argue that other frameworks may be used as well. However, in the CISSP exam, you may have to choose “the most plausible” option in some cases. Therefore, we have used this phrase.

×：HITECH

The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) is an enhanced version of HIPPA that applies not only to data management but also to health care business associates.

×：OCTAVE

OCTAVE is one of the risk assessment frameworks introduced in CERT.

×：COBIT

COBIT is a framework for measuring the maturity of a company’s IT governance. It was proposed by the Information Systems Control Association of America (ISACA) and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI).

〇：Yes. The same goal should be held because there is security in achieving corporate goals.

There are KPIs and other marketin indicators to achieve organizational goals. Developing a security function in the organization also exists to achieve these goals.

×：Yes. Marketing in the security industry is allowed to be risk-off.

By “marketing in the security industry,” I do not mean aligning the security function within the organization.

×：No. The division of labor should be strictly enforced and left to specialists.

While the division of labor in an organization is certainly important, all members of the organization need to be security conscious.

×：No. Security has nothing to do with confidential information that would be an executive decision.

Security should be addressed by the entire organization. It is not irrelevant.

〇：Differential Backup

Backups can be taken in full, differential, or incremental. Most files are not changed daily to save very much time and resources, and it is better to develop a backup plan that does not back up for data that is not continually changing. In backup software, when a file is modified or created, the file system sets the archive bit and the backup software determines if that file should be backed up. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup.

×：Incremental Backup

An incremental backup backs up all data that has changed since the last backup.

×：Full Backup

A full backup backs up the entire database or the entire system.

×：Partial Backup

Not in the backup category.

〇：Social Engineering

Social engineering is an attack that invites human error rather than system. It occurs regardless of system architecture and installed software.

×：DDoS Attacks

A DDoS attack is a mass DoS attack against a target website or server from multiple computers.

×：Ransomware

Ransomware is malware that freezes data by encrypting it and demands a ransom from the owner.

×：Zero-day attacks

A zero-day attack is an attack on a vulnerability that was disclosed before it was fixed.

〇：SAML assertions are used to enable identity federation and distributed systems.

SAML provides a model that allows two parties to share authentication information about one entity. The two parties are considered a Service Provider (SP) and an Identity Provider (IdP). The Identity Provider asserts information about the principal, such as whether the subject is authenticated or has certain attributes. The service provider uses the information provided by the identity provider to make access decisions about the services it provides, including whether to trust the identity provider’s assertions. By trusting the identity provider’s information, the service provider can provide services without requiring the principal to authenticate again. This framework enables federated identification and distributed authentication across domains.

A SAML assertion is information about a principal contained in a SAML response that is returned to the service provider after authentication has been processed by the identity provider.

×：Two SAML assertions (authentication and authorization) are used to indicate that an authority by SAML has validated a particular subject.

The Identity Provider will not return two SAML assertions; one assertion will be returned per request.

×：The SAML binding specification describes how to embed SAML messages within the TCP and UDP protocols.

It is not classified in the sense of within the TCP and UDP protocols.

×：The SAML profile has a definition for issuing a refresh token.

Refresh tokens are a concept in the OAuth/OIDC family.

〇：Identity Theft

Identity theft is a situation in which a person obtains important personal information, such as driver’s license numbers, bank account numbers, identification cards, or social security numbers, and uses that information to impersonate another person. Typically, identity thieves use personal information to obtain credit, goods, or services in the victim’s name. This can have consequences such as destroying the victim’s credit rating, creating a false criminal record, and issuing an arrest warrant to the wrong individual. Identity theft can be categorized in two ways: true name and account takeover. True name identity theft means that the thief uses your personal information to open a new account. The thief might open a new credit card account, establish cell phone service like Sam’s, or open a new checking account to obtain blank checks.

×：Phishing Scams

Incorrect because it is a type of social engineering attack intended to obtain personal information, letters of credit, credit card numbers, and financial data. Attackers use a variety of methods to entice users to divulge sensitive data. While the goal of phishing scams is to get victims to hand over their personal information, the goal of identity theft is to use that personal information for personal or financial gain. Attackers can use phishing attacks as a means of committing identity theft.

Since the specific technique is not described in the question text, it cannot be said to be a phishing scam.

×：Pharming

Incorrect, as this is a technical attack in which the victim is deceived into submitting personal information to the attacker via an unauthorized website.The victim types a web address such as “www.nicebank.com” into their browser. The victim’s system sends a request to the victimized DNS server that directs the victim to a website under the attacker’s control. The site looks like the requested Web site, and the user enters his or her personal information. The personal information can be used by the attacker for identity theft.

We cannot say that this is pharming because the specific technique is not described in the question text.

×：Account takeover

Account takeover identity theft is incorrect because it means using personal information to access a person’s existing account rather than opening a new account. Typically, the mailing address on the account is changed and a huge bill is filed before the person whose account was stolen is aware of the problem. The Internet has made it easier for identity thieves to use stolen information because they can conduct transactions without personal interaction.

〇：ISO / IEC 27005 – Guidelines for Bodies Providing Audits and Certification of Information Security Management Systems

The ISO / IEC 27005 standard is a guideline for information security risk management. ISO / IEC 27005 is an international standard on how risk management should be implemented within the framework of an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27002 – Code of practice for information security management

This is not correct because it is a code of practice for information security management. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. ISO / IEC 27002 provides best practice recommendations and guidelines for starting, implementing, or maintaining an ISMS.

×：ISO / IEC 27003 – ISMS Implementation Guidelines

This is incorrect as it is a guideline for ISMS implementation. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. Focuses on the key aspects necessary for the successful design and implementation of an ISMS according to ISO / IEC 27001:2005. It describes the ISMS specification and design process from its inception to the creation of an implementation plan.

×：ISO / IEC 27004 – Guidelines for Information Security Management Measurement and Metrics Framework

This is incorrect because it is a guideline for an information security management measurement and metrics framework. Therefore, it has the correct mapping. It provides guidance on the development and use of measures to assess the effectiveness of an ISMS and a group of controls or controls, as specified in ISO / IEC 27001.

〇：Restore the virus unpatched file version from the backup media.

The best practice is to install an unpatched, uninfected version of the file from the backup media. It is important to restore files that are known to be clean, as attempts to remove the files may corrupt them. The most important thing is not to spread the impact, but attempting to unilaterally delete files may make them unavailable for later investigation.

×：Replace the file with the file saved the previous day.

The file saved the previous day may also contain the virus.

×：Delete the file and contact the vendor.

This is an incorrect answer because the condition of this question is that if the file is deleted, the normal file content itself may be damaged.

×：Back up the data and delete the file.

This is an incorrect answer because backing up the data that contains the virus and deleting the file does not result in a clean situation.

〇：Data User

An individual who uses data for work-related tasks is a data user. Users must have the necessary level of access to data to perform their job duties. They are also responsible for adhering to operational security procedures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data to others. This means that users must take appropriate precautions and follow both security policies and data classification rules.

×：Data Owners

This is incorrect because the data owner has a higher level of responsibility in protecting the data. The data owner is responsible for classifying the data, regularly reviewing the classification level, and delegating responsibility for the data protection position to the data controller. The data owner is usually a manager or executive within the organization and is responsible for the protection of the company’s information assets.

×：Data Controller

Incorrect, as the data controller is responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls as directed by the data owner. In other words, the data administrator is the technician of the controls that protect the data. Her duties include creating backups, restoring data, implementing and maintaining countermeasures, and managing controls.

×：Information Systems Auditor

Incorrect, as they are responsible for evaluating controls. After evaluating the controls, the auditor submits a report to management, mapping the results to the organization’s acceptable level of risk. This has nothing to do with using data or being meticulous in the use of data.

〇：Brewer-Nash Model

The Chinese Wall Model is a security model that focuses on the flow of information within an organization, such as insider trading. Insider trading occurs when inside information leaks to the outside world. In reality, information can spread to unexpected places as it is passed on orally to unrelated parties. In order to take such information flow into account, access privileges are determined in a simulation-like manner. Therefore, the correct answer is the “Chinese Wall Model (Brewer-Nash Model).

×：Lattice-based Access Control

Lattice-based access control is to assume that a single entity can have multiple access rights and to consider access control as all possible relationships under a certain condition.

×：Biba Model

The Biba model is a security model that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

×：Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman Model

The Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman model is a model that aggregates the eight rules of the Graham-Denning model into six rules using an access control matrix.

〇：That the identity of the public official has been properly verified.

FIPS 201-2 establishes U.S. government standards for personal identity verification (PIV) and gives various requirements for assurance. Access to restricted information by government employees and contracting agents depends on their level of clearance and need to know it, but first the government must assure the individual that they are who they say they are.

×：That government employees are properly cleared for the work to which they are assigned.

Government employees must be properly cleared for the information to which they have been granted access, and therefore true identification must be available for review and verification prior to such access.

×：Government employees are only allowed access to data at their clearance level.

This is wrong because government employees only need to get acquainted and have access to the information they need to access. But again, this must be based on a clear level of assurance that the clearance they possess is valid.

×：That the data to which public officials have access is properly classified.

This is incorrect because the classification of data is not directly related to the validation of personal information.

Users can logically guess the URL or path to access resources they should not. If an organization’s network has access to a report name ending in “financials_2017.pdf”, it is possible to guess other file names that should not be accessed, such as “financials_2018.pdf” or “financials.pdf”.

MAC (mandatory access control) is often used when confidentiality is of utmost importance. Access to objects is determined by labels and clearances. It is often used in organizations where confidentiality is very important, such as the military.

〇：3-tier architecture

The 3-tier architecture clearly distinguishes the three layers: the client has the user interface responsible for input and displaying results, and the server has the functional process logic responsible for data processing and data storage for accessing the database. The user interface role is generally handled by the front-end web server with which the user interacts. It can handle both static and cached dynamic content. The functional process logic is where requests are reformatted and processed. It is typically a dynamic content processing and generation level application server. Data storage is where sensitive data is held. It is the back-end database and holds both the data and the database management system software used to manage and provide access to the data.

×：2-tier architecture

Two-tier, or client/server, is incorrect because it describes an architecture in which a server serves one or more clients that request those services.

×：Screened Subnets

A screen-subnet architecture is for one firewall to protect one server (basically a one-tier architecture). The external, public-side firewall monitors requests from untrusted networks like the Internet. If one layer, the only firewall, is compromised, an attacker can access sensitive data residing on the server with relative ease.

×：Public and Private DNS Zones

Separating DNS servers into public and private servers provides protection, but this is not the actual architecture.

〇：Continuity of Operations Plan

A continuity of operations plan (COOP) establishes senior management and post-disaster headquarters. It also outlines roles and authorities and individual role tasks.Creating a COOP begins with an assessment of how the organization operates to identify mission-critical staff, resources, procedures, and equipment. Suppliers, partners, and contractors identify other companies with whom they routinely interact and create a list of these companies. Therefore, the correct answer is the Continuity of Operations Plan.

×：Cyber Incident Response Plan

Cyber Incident Recovery is a plan for recovery from a cyber attack.

×：Crew Emergency Plan

A Crew Emergency Plan is a plan for the smooth transition of a facility’s staff to a secure environment.

×：IT Contingency Plan

A contingency plan is a plan that outlines the measures to be taken in the event of an accident, disaster, or other emergency.

CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability.

〇：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with a public key.

Transport Layer Security (TLS) uses public key cryptography to provide data encryption, server authentication, message integrity, and optionally client authentication. When a client accesses a cryptographically protected page, the web server initiates TLS and begins the process of securing subsequent communications. The server performs a three-handshake to establish a secure session. After that, client authentication with a digital certificate, as the case may be, comes in. The client then generates a session key, encrypts it with the server’s public key, and shares it. This session key is used as the symmetric key for encrypting the data to be transmitted thereafter. Thus, the correct answer is: “The client generates a session key and encrypts it with the public key.” will be

×：The server generates the session key and encrypts it with the public key.

The server does not encrypt with the public key.

×：The server generates a session key and encrypts it with the private key.

Even if encryption is performed from the server side, it can be decrypted with the public key, so it is not structurally possible.

×：The client generates a session key and encrypts it with its private key.

The client side does not have the private key.

〇：Conforms to the X.509 standard and assigns a namespace to each object accessed in the database by LDAP.

Most companies have directories that contain information about company network resources and users. Most directories use a hierarchical database format based on the X.500 standard (not X.509) and a type of protocol such as LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) that allows subjects and applications to interact with the directory The application can then use LDAP to access the directory. Applications can request information about a particular user by making an LDAP request to the directory, and users can request information about a particular resource using a similar request. The directory service assigns an Distinguished Name (DN) to each object in the database based on the X.500 standard to be accessed. Each distinguished name represents a set of attributes about a particular object and is stored as an entry in the directory.

×：Namespaces are used to manage objects in the directory.

This is incorrect because objects in a hierarchical database are managed by a directory service. Directory services allow administrators to configure and manage identification, authentication, permissions, and access control for the network. Objects in the directory are labeled and identified by namespace, which is how the directory service keeps objects organized.

×：Enforce security policies by performing access control and identity management functions.

This is incorrect because directory services enforce the security policy set by performing access control and identity management functions. For example, when a user logs into a domain controller in a Windows environment, the directory service (Active Directory) determines which network resources are accessible and which are not.

×：Administrators can configure and manage how identification takes place within the network.

Directory service is incorrect because it allows the administrator to configure and manage identification within the network. It also allows for the configuration and management of authentication, authorization, and access control.

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.

〇：A change unanimously approved by the change control committee would be a step that does not require testing of the actual equipment.

This is a false choice question.

For different types of environmental changes, a structured change management process needs to be in place. Depending on the severity of the change requirement, the change and implementation may need to be presented to a change control committee. Change requests approved by the change control committee must be tested to discover any unintended consequences. This helps to demonstrate the purpose, consequences, and possible effects of the change in its various aspects. This means that just because a change has been approved by the change control board does not mean that it does not need to be tested. The change control board has mandated action on the change, and its appropriateness must be ensured by testing. Therefore, the correct answer is: “A change that is unanimously approved by the change control committee is a step that does not require testing on the actual equipment.” The result will be

×：Changes approved by the change control committee should be kept as a log of changes.

This is correct change management.

×：A rough schedule should be created during the planning phase of the change.

This is correct change management.

×：Proposed changes should be prioritized and reviewed.

This is correct change management.

〇：Ensure that some systems are executed at the alternate site.

Parallel testing compares how some systems run at the alternate site and how the results are processed at the primary site. This is to assure that systems run at the alternate site and does not affect service productivity.

×：All departments will be sent a copy of the disaster recovery plan for completeness.

This alternative is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

×：Representatives from each department meet to validate the plan.

This option is incorrect because it describes a structured walk-through test.

×：The normal operation system is taken down.

This option is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

〇：The expiration date should be set short.

Key management is critical for proper protection. Part of key management is to determine the key’s period of validity, which would be determined by the sensitivity of the data being protected. For sensitive data, periodic key changes are required and the key’s expiration date will be shortened. On the other hand, for less secure data, a key with a longer expiration date is not a problem.

×：Keys should be deposited in case of backup or emergency.

This is incorrect because it is true that keys must be deposited in the event of a backup or emergency situation. Keys are at risk of being lost, destroyed or damaged. Backup copies must be available and readily accessible when needed.

×：Keys must not be made public.

Of course. It is a key.

×：Keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means.

Wrong, since it is true that keys should be stored and transmitted by secure means. Keys are stored before and after distribution. If keys are distributed to users, they must be stored in a secure location in the file system and used in a controlled manner.

Application firewalls target Layer 7 of the OSI. The main advantage of an application firewall is its ability to understand specific applications and protocols. Packets are not decrypted until Layer 6, so Layer 7 can see the entire packet. Other firewalls can only inspect the packet, not the payload. It can detect if an unwanted application or service is trying to bypass the firewall by using a protocol on an allowed port, or if the protocol is being used in a malicious manner.

〇：TOC/TOU

Certain attacks can take advantage of the way a system processes requests and performs tasks. A TOC/TOU attack handles a series of steps that the system uses to complete a task. This type of attack takes advantage of the reliance on the timing of events occurring in a multitasking operating system; TOC/TOU is a software vulnerability that allows the use of condition checking (i.e., credential verification) and the results from that condition checking function. In the scenario in this question, the fact that the web application is likely correctly configured indicates that the programming code of this application has this type of vulnerability embedded in the code itself.

×：Buffer overflow

When too much data is accepted as input to a particular process, a buffer overflow occurs. This is incorrect because it does not match the event in the problem statement. A buffer is an allocated segment of memory. A buffer can overflow arbitrarily with too much data, but to be used by an attacker, the code inserted into the buffer must be of a specific length and require a command to be executed by the attacker. These types of attacks are usually exceptional in that the fault is segmented, or sensitive data is provided to the attacker.

×：Blind SQL Injection

Blind SQL injection attacks are wrong because they are a type of SQL injection attack that sends true or false questions to the database. In a basic SQL injection, the attacker sends specific instructions in SQL format to query the associated database. In a blind SQL attack, the attacker is limited to sending a series of true-false questions to the database in order to analyze the database responses and gather sensitive information.

×：Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is incorrect because it is an attack type that attempts to trick the victim into loading a web page containing malicious requests or operations. The attack operation is performed within the context of the victim’s access rights. The request inherits the victim’s identity and performs undesirable functions for the victim. In this type of attack, the attacker can cause the victim’s system to perform unintended actions such as changing account information, retrieving account data, or logging out. This type of attack could be related to the scenario described in this question, but focuses on how the user can bypass the locking mechanism built into the web application. The logic in the programming code is incorrectly developed and the locking function is bypassed because a rigorous series of checks and usage sequences are not performed correctly.

〇：Public key infrastructure is a mechanism configuration for public key cryptographic distribution, and public key cryptography is another name for asymmetric encryption.

Public key cryptography is asymmetric cryptography. The terms are used interchangeably. Public key cryptography is a concept within the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which consists of various parts such as Certificate Authorities, Registration Authorities, certificates, keys, programs, and users. Public Key Infrastructure is used to identify and create users, distribute and maintain certificates, revoke and distribute certificates, maintain encryption keys, and for the purpose of encrypted communication and authentication.

×：Public key infrastructure uses symmetric algorithms and public key cryptography uses asymmetric algorithms.

This is incorrect because the public key infrastructure uses a hybrid system of symmetric and asymmetric key algorithms and methods. Public key cryptography is to use asymmetric algorithms. Therefore, asymmetric and public key cryptography are interchangeable, meaning they are the same. Examples of asymmetric algorithms are RSA, elliptic curve cryptography (ECC), Diffie-Hellman, and El Gamal.

×：Public key infrastructure is used to perform key exchange, while public key cryptography is used to create public/private key pairs.

This is incorrect because public key cryptography is the use of asymmetric algorithms used to create public/private key pairs, perform key exchange, and generate and verify digital signatures.

×：Public key infrastructure provides confidentiality and integrity, while public key cryptography provides authentication and non-repudiation.

Incorrect because the public key infrastructure itself does not provide authentication, non-repudiation, confidentiality, or integrity.

Archive bits are those that have been updated since the previous backup point in time. Full backups are full backups, so there is no need to be aware of where changes have occurred. Incremental backups also do not require awareness of change points because the backup portion is predetermined. Therefore, both clear the archive bit. However, differential backups do not clear the archive bit because only the changed part is known to be backed up.

〇：Telnet must be used to send commands and data.

Telnet sends all data, including administrator credentials, in plain text and should not be allowed for remote administration. This type of communication should be via a more secure protocol, such as SSH.

×：Only a small number of administrators should be allowed to perform remote functions.

Wrong, as it is true that only a few administrators should be able to perform remote functions. This minimizes the risk to the network.

×：Critical systems should be managed locally, not remotely.

Wrong because it is true that critical systems need to be managed locally, not remotely. It is safer to send management commands on an internal private network than over a public network.

×：Strong authentication is required.

Wrong because it is true that strong authentication is required for any management activity. Anything weaker than strong authentication, such as a password, is easy for an attacker to break in and gain administrative access.

〇：To make information physically unrecoverable by any special effort.

Purging is the removal of sensitive data from disk. Software deletion of files on disk does not actually erase the data, only disconnects it from the location of the on-disk data. This means that if the data on the disk containing sensitive information cannot be completely erased, physical destruction is also necessary.

×：To change the polarization of atoms on a medium.

This is not a description of purging.

×：Do not authorize the reuse of media in the same physical environment for the same purpose.

While such an approval process may exist in practice, it is not a description of purging as data deletion.

×：To make data on media unrecoverable by overwriting it.

Simply overwriting media with new information does not eliminate the possibility of recovering previously written information.

Therefore, it does not fit the description of purging.

Unfortunately, security components usually affect system performance but go unnoticed by the user. If system performance is significantly slower, security controls may be enforced. The reason controls must be transparent is so that users and intruders do not know enough to disable or bypass them.

While it is important to understand the term “transparent” in the realm of security, there is another way to answer the question in terms of solving it. If there is only one answer to a four-answer question, then answers that mean the same thing cannot be correct. Therefore, by grouping, the only answer that is correct is the one that does not belong to a group.

And the key point in this question is whether the user knows. The other choices indicate that the situation is communicated on the server side as an outsider, whether a legitimate user or an attacker, whereas only one is acknowledged on the server administrator’s side.

〇：To allow the database to execute transactions as a single unit without interruption.

Online transaction processing (OLTP) is used when databases are clustered to provide high fault tolerance and performance. It provides a mechanism to monitor and address problems as they occur. For example, if a process stops functioning, the monitoring function within OLTP will detect and attempt to restart the process. If the process cannot be restarted, the transaction that occurred is rolled back to ensure that no data has been corrupted or that only a portion of the transaction occurred; OLTP records when the transaction occurred (in real time). Usually multiple databases in a distributed environment are updated.

This classification by the extent to which transaction processing is appropriate is very complex. Therefore, database software must implement ACID characteristics. Among them is atomicity, which means that the transaction is either executed entirely or not executed at all. It is the property that a transaction must either be executed completely or not at all.

When a question like this is answered incorrectly, judging that you could not solve it because you did not know OLTP will hinder your future study methods. Although the question text is worded in a complicated way, it is more important to understand what atomicity is in ACID than to memorize the definition of OLTP to solve the actual question.

×：To be able to establish database consistency rules.

It enforces the consistency rules as stated in the database security policy, but does not imply transaction atomicity.

×：To prevent rollbacks from occurring.

Transaction atomicity does not refer to suppressing rollbacks.

×：To prevent concurrent processes from interacting with each other.

This falls under independence, isolation, and segregation. Independence, isolation, and quarantine (isolation) means that the processes are hidden from other operations during processing. It is the property that even if multiple transactions are executed simultaneously, they must not produce the same processing results as if they were executed alone.

〇：OSI reference model

The OSI reference model is a seven-layer classification of network communication. The concepts of application communication and session are separated, which would be clearly communicated based on the OSI reference model. Therefore, the correct answer is “OSI reference model.

×：TCP/IP model

The TCP/IP model is a layer design that is closer to the concept of a system than the OSI reference model; in the TCP/IP model, the application layer, presentation layer, and session layer of the OSI reference model are represented by a single application layer.

×：Data link model

There is no such model.

×：Biba model

Biba model is one of the security models that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

〇：Multiple major and used usages should be screened to make sure they work on the target browsers.

If the service is for BtoC, it is considered that more target users should be supported.

×：It should be checked if it works on a particular browser.

User cases that do not work on certain browsers may occur after release.

×：Confirm that it works on the most secure browser.

If it is secure, it is expected to work in the most restricted of browsers.

In reality, however, browser specifications also vary, including browser backs and terminals.

×：Make sure it works on OS-standard browsers.

Browsers are not just OS standard. In reality, end users also download and use their favorite browsers from app stores.

〇：Used in structured languages, it decreases development time but is somewhat resource intensive.

Third generation programming languages are easier to deal with than their predecessors. They reduce program development time and allow for simplified and quick debugging. However, these languages are more resource intensive when compared to second generation programming languages.

×：Intuitive manipulation of programming reduces effort, but the amount of manual coding for specific tasks tends to be greater than in previous generations.

The advantages and disadvantages of 4th generation programming are explained below. It is true that the use of heuristics in fourth generation programming languages has greatly reduced programming effort and errors in the code. However, there is something untrue about the fact that the amount of manual coding is more than required of 3rd generation languages.

×：The use of binaries for coding is very time consuming, but the potential for errors is reduced.

This is incorrect because it is a description of a machine language and implies the advantages and disadvantages of a first generation programming language.

×：It contributes to decreasing programming processing time, but knowledge of machine structures is essential.

Incorrect because it describes second generation programming languages. These languages require extensive knowledge of machine architecture and the programs written in them are only for specific hardware.

〇：SOAP allows Remote Procedure Calls to be used to exchange information between applications over the Internet.

To allow applications to exchange information over the Internet, the Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) was created to be used instead of Remote Procedure Call (RPC). SOAP is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web service setting. It allows programs running on different operating systems to communicate using Web-based communication methods.

×：SOAP is designed to overcome compatibility and security issues associated with remote procedure calls.

Attempting to allow communication between objects of different applications over the Internet is incorrect because SOAP was created to overcome the compatibility and security issues introduced by RPC. SOAP is designed to work with multiple operating system platforms, browsers, and servers.

×：SOAP and remote procedure calls were created to enable application layer communication.

This is incorrect because both SOAP and RPC were created to enable application layer communication. SOAP is an XML-based protocol that encodes messages in a Web service setting. Therefore, if a Windows client needs to access a Windows server that provides a particular web service, programs on both systems can communicate using SOAP without running into interoperability problems.

×：HTTP is not designed to work with remote procedure calls, but SOAP is designed to work with HTTP.

HTTP is not designed to work with RPC, but SOAP is designed to work with HTTP. SOAP actually defines the structure of the XML schema or communication mechanism. The SOAP XML schema defines how objects communicate directly with each other. One of the advantages of SOAP is that program calls most likely get through firewalls, since HTTP communication is generally allowed. This ensures that the client/server model is not broken by getting denied by firewalls during the communication entity.

Injection attacks are cracking attacks in which special strings are embedded in user forms and submitted to malfunction the receiving user’s information processing. Sufficiently strong input validation and data type restrictions on input fields, input length limits, and modifications are to do it. Only allow users to enter appropriate data into fields. Limit the number of characters a user can use, and possibly restrict by character type, allowing only letters in names, numbers in phone numbers, and displaying country and state drop-downs.

〇：Subject

The functionality table identifies the access rights that a particular subject owns with respect to a particular object. Each subject is mapped for a function (capability) such as read or write perform. Therefore, the subject is the one that seems to fit in the choices.

×：Objects

Incorrect because the Object is bound to an Access Control List (ACL), not a functional component.

×：Product

Product is incorrect because it is just an example to implement a subject, object, or feature table.

×：Application

Application is incorrect because it is just a concrete example of an object.

HIPAA covered entities and the organizations and individuals who assist them in their business are treated in the same manner as HIPAA covered entities. Health care providers, health information clearinghouses, and health insurance plans are covered entities. Developers of health apps are responsible as programmers rather than holders or plan holders of bodily information. They may not be covered by HITECH, which focuses on how body information is managed. Therefore, the correct answer is “health app developer”.

It is not necessary to know the detailed HITECH requirements. You can classify them based on whether or not you are dealing with information and answer the questions by process of elimination.

〇：Software Escrow

If you do not have access to the software, but the developer may be out of business, you should plan for what to do after that out-of-business event. Software escrow means that the third party retains the source and compiled code, backup manuals, and other support materials. The agreement between the software vendor, the customer, and the third party would typically be that the customer would only have access to the source code when the vendor goes out of business and in the event of the vendor’s inability to fulfill its stated responsibilities or breach of the original agreement. The customer is protected because they can gain access to the source code and other materials through a third-party escrow agent.

×：Reciprocal Treatment Agreement

Although the term “reciprocal treatment agreement” does not exist, a close concept is mutual assistance agreements. A Mutual Assistance Agreement (MAA) is a promise to support each other in the event of a disaster by sharing facilities. There are times when you want to do something about a disaster, but you don’t have the funds to do it. In such a case, you can find a similar organization and agree to cooperate with each other in the event of a disaster.

×：Electronic Data Vault

Electronic data vaulting (e-vaulting) is the use of a remote backup service to electronically transmit backups off-site at regular intervals or when files are changed.

×：Business interruption insurance

Although the term business interruption insurance does not exist, it can be interpreted as a concept similar to insurance in the event of business interruption. Insurance is typically applied against financial risk. In this issue, software escrow is more appropriate because we want to continue access to the software.

The expected annual loss amount is the value of losses that could occur in the future, equalized on an annual basis based on the frequency of occurrence. Therefore, it is the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the annual frequency of occurrence (ALO).

〇：Common Criteria

Common Criteria was created in the early 1990s as a way to combine the strengths of both the Trustworthy Computer Systems Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) and the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC) and eliminate their weaknesses. Common Criteria is more flexible than TCSEC and easier than ITSEC. Common Criteria is recognized worldwide and assists consumers by reducing the complexity of assessments and eliminating the need to understand the definitions and meanings of different assessments in different assessment schemes. This also helps manufacturers because they can now build a specific set of requirements when they want to market their products internationally, rather than having to meet several different evaluation criteria under different rules and requirements.

×：ITSEC

This is incorrect because it is not the most widely used information technology security evaluation standard. ITSEC was the first attempt to establish a single standard for evaluating the security attributes of computer systems and products in many European countries. In addition, ITSEC separates functionality and assurance in its evaluations, giving each a separate rating. It was developed to provide greater flexibility than TCSEC and addresses integrity, availability, and confidentiality in networked systems. The goal of ITSEC was to become the global standard for product evaluation, but it failed to achieve that goal and was replaced by Common Criteria.

×：Red Book

Wrong, as it is a U.S. government publication that addresses the topic of security evaluation of networks and network components. Formally titled Trusted Network Interpretation, it provides a framework for protecting different types of networks. Subjects accessing objects on the network must be controlled, monitored, and audited.

×：Orange Book

Incorrect as this is a U.S. Government publication that addresses government and military requirements and expectations for operating systems. The Orange Book is used to evaluate whether a product is suitable for the security characteristics and specific applications or functions required by the vendor. The Orange Book is used to review the functionality, effectiveness, and assurance of the product under evaluation, using classes designed to address typical patterns of security requirements. It provides a broad framework for building and evaluating trusted systems, with an emphasis on controlling which users have access to the system. We call it the Orange Book, but another name for it is Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC).

Sabotage is an attack by an insider.

〇：How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

×：Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

×：Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

×：A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

Disposable passwords and one-time pads are passwords but generated from something you own, not something you know. In other words, possession.