Practice Test(DOMAIN7)

Domain 7 Exam.

A minimum of 70% is required to pass.

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#1. Which of the following is most relevant in achieving the objective of securing all evidence and notating it as information to be presented to those who verify it?

〇:Control of the processing and distribution process

An important part of the digital forensic process is to maintain a proper chain of custody of evidence.

The question structure assumes Chain of Custody (Chain of Custody) from “the purpose of securing all evidence and notating it as information to be presented to those who verify it” and selects the one that comes closest to the definition.

 

×:Reasonable care

Wrong because reasonable care implies performing an activity that a reasonable person would be expected to perform under similar circumstances.

 

×:Investigation

Incorrect because investigation involves the proper collection of relevant data during the incident response process and includes analysis, interpretation, reaction, and recovery.

 

×:Motive, Opportunity, Means

Motive, Opportunity, and Means (MOM) is incorrect because it is a strategy used to understand why certain crimes were committed and by whom.

#2. Which of the following is a structured walk-through test in disaster recovery testing?

〇:Representatives from each department meet and undergo validation.

Structured walk-through testing allows functional personnel to review the plan as it is fulfilled to ensure its accuracy and validity.

 

×:Ensures that some systems will run at alternate sites.

This is incorrect because it describes parallel testing.

 

 

×:Send a copy of the disaster recovery plan to all departments to verify its completeness.

This is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

 

×:Take down the normal operation system.

This is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

#3. Server cluster configurations are taken for critical applications, but what functions are achieved by this configuration?

Clustering is designed for fault tolerance. It is often combined with load balancing, but they are essentially separate. Clustering can make an operation active/active. On top of that, the load balancing feature handles traffic from multiple servers. Active/passive, on the other hand, has a designated primary active server and a secondary passive server, with the passive sending keep-alives or heartbeats every few seconds.

#4. After a disaster has occurred, an impact assessment must be performed. Which of the following steps is the last one performed in an impact assessment?

〇:Declare the impact and consequences of the disaster.

The final step in the damage assessment is to declare the disaster. After the information from the damage assessment has been collected and evaluated, determine if the BCP actually needs to be activated. The BCP coordinator and team should determine the activation criteria before the disaster occurs.

 

×:Determine the cause of the disaster.

Determining the cause of the disaster is incorrect as it is the first step in the damage assessment process.

 

×:Identify resources that need to be replaced immediately.

Incorrect because identifying resources that need to be replaced immediately is not the last step in damage assessment.

 

×:Determine how long it will take to bring critical functions back online.

Incorrect because determining how long it will take to bring critical functions back online is the second-to-last step in damage assessment.

#5. The change management process includes a variety of steps. Which of the following incorrectly describes a change management policy procedure?

〇:A change unanimously approved by the change control committee would be a step that does not require testing of the actual equipment.

This is a false choice question.

For different types of environmental changes, a structured change management process needs to be in place. Depending on the severity of the change requirement, the change and implementation may need to be presented to a change control committee. Change requests approved by the change control committee must be tested to discover any unintended consequences. This helps to demonstrate the purpose, consequences, and possible effects of the change in its various aspects. This means that just because a change has been approved by the change control board does not mean that it does not need to be tested. The change control board has mandated action on the change, and its appropriateness must be ensured by testing. Therefore, the correct answer is: “A change that is unanimously approved by the change control committee is a step that does not require testing on the actual equipment.” The result will be

 

×:Changes approved by the change control committee should be kept as a log of changes.

This is correct change management.

 

×:A rough schedule should be created during the planning phase of the change.

This is correct change management.

 

×:Proposed changes should be prioritized and reviewed.

This is correct change management.

#6. Which of the following adequately describes parallel testing in disaster recovery testing?

〇:Ensure that some systems are executed at the alternate site.

Parallel testing compares how some systems run at the alternate site and how the results are processed at the primary site. This is to assure that systems run at the alternate site and does not affect service productivity.

 

×:All departments will be sent a copy of the disaster recovery plan for completeness.

This alternative is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

 

×:Representatives from each department meet to validate the plan.

This option is incorrect because it describes a structured walk-through test.

 

×:The normal operation system is taken down.

This option is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

#7. Which formulas are used in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) assessment?

#8. As a security administrator, you are dealing with a virus infection. One day, your antivirus application detects that a file is infected with a dangerous virus. Disinfecting that file may damage the normal file contents themselves. What action should you take?

〇:Restore the virus unpatched file version from the backup media.

The best practice is to install an unpatched, uninfected version of the file from the backup media. It is important to restore files that are known to be clean, as attempts to remove the files may corrupt them. The most important thing is not to spread the impact, but attempting to unilaterally delete files may make them unavailable for later investigation.

 

×:Replace the file with the file saved the previous day.

The file saved the previous day may also contain the virus.

 

×:Delete the file and contact the vendor.

This is an incorrect answer because the condition of this question is that if the file is deleted, the normal file content itself may be damaged.

 

×:Back up the data and delete the file.

This is an incorrect answer because backing up the data that contains the virus and deleting the file does not result in a clean situation.

#9. The operations team is responsible for ensuring that data is backed up at a regular frequency. Which of the following backs up files that have changed since the last time all data was backed up?

〇:Differential Backup

Backups can be taken in full, differential, or incremental. Most files are not changed daily to save very much time and resources, and it is better to develop a backup plan that does not back up for data that is not continually changing. In backup software, when a file is modified or created, the file system sets the archive bit and the backup software determines if that file should be backed up. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup.

 

×:Incremental Backup

An incremental backup backs up all data that has changed since the last backup.

 

×:Full Backup

A full backup backs up the entire database or the entire system.

 

×:Partial Backup

Not in the backup category.

#10. What type of disaster is an earthquake classified as?

Disasters are classified by cause into natural, human, and environmental categories. Natural disasters are natural, human errors are human, and facilities and equipment are environmental.

#11. Which of the following plans would you use to organize information about specific system hardware?

Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP) is the process of creating short-term plans, policies, procedures, and tools to enable the recovery or continuation of critical IT systems in the event of a disaster. It focuses on the IT systems that support critical business functions and how they will be restored after a disaster. For example, it considers what to do if you suffer a distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack, if your servers are compromised, if there is a power outage, etc. BCP is more focused on what should happen and does not necessarily include system requirements.

#12. The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) metric have similar roles, but their values are defined differently. Which of the following best describes the difference between RTO and MTD metrics?

MTD represents the time it takes to signify severe and irreparable damage to the reputation and bottom line of an organization; RTO values are smaller than MTD values; RTO assumes that there is a period of acceptable downtime.

#13. You are the security administrator for a large retail company. Their network has many different network devices and software appliances that generate logs and audit data. At one point, your staff is trying to determine if any suspicious activity is taking place in the network. However, reviewing all the log files is burdensome. Which of the following is the best solution for your company in this case?

〇:SIEM

Many organizations have implemented security event management systems, called Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems. They attempt to correlate log data collected from various devices (servers, firewalls, routers, etc.) and provide analysis capabilities. They also have solutions with networks (IDS, IPS, anti-malware, proxies, etc.) that collect logs in various proprietary formats that require centralization, standardization, and normalization. Therefore, the correct answer is SIEM.

 

×:Intrusion Detection System

Intrusion Detection System (IDS, Intrusion Detection System) is a mechanism that monitors the system and leads to passive actions. It does not have the ability to collect and analyze logs.

 

×:SOAR

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) is a technology that enables efficient monitoring, understanding, decision-making and action on security incidents. It may be fulfilled by SOAR through intrinsic cause analysis, but it is not a solution used for the purpose of identifying if suspicious activity is taking place in the network.

 

×:Event correlation tools

The term “event correlation tool” does not exist, but may be a feature of a SIEM.

#14. You are selecting a site for a new data center and offices. Which of the following is not a valid security concern?

Greenfield is undeveloped land that has not yet been built upon. The perspectives for selecting a site as a data center site include topography, utilities, and public safety.

  • Topography refers to the physical shape of the landscape-hills, valleys, trees, streams.
  • Utility refers to the degree to which power and internet in the area are reliable.
  • Public safety is in terms of how high is the crime rate in the area and how close is the police force.

#15. What is remote journaling as part of a fault tolerance strategy?

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

#16. Different levels of RAID determine the type of activity that occurs within a RAID system. Which level of RAID is associated with byte-level parity?

〇:RAID Level 3

RAID redundant arrays provide fault tolerance capability for hard drives and can improve system performance. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve requested information. At this time, recovery data is also created. This is called parity; if one disk fails, the parity data can be used to reconstruct the corrupted or lost information. Different levels of RAID systems experience different activities that provide fault tolerance or improved performance. RAID level 3 is a method that uses byte-level striping and dedicated parity disks.

 

×:RAID Level 0

Wrong because only striping occurs at level 0.

 

×:RAID Level 5

RAID 5 is incorrect because it uses block-level striping and interleaved parity on all disks.

 

×:RAID Level 10

Level 10 is incorrect because it is associated with striping and mirroring.

#17. Measuring the damage and recovery requirements by different indicators helps quantify the risk. which is correct about the RPO (Recovery Point Objective) and RTO (Recovery Time Objective)?

RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the target value for recovering data at a point in the past when a failure occurs. When a failure occurs, the data currently handled is lost. The lost data must be recovered from backups, but it is important to know how far in the past the backups are from the current point in time.

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a target value that defines when the data should be recovered in the event of a failure. In the event of a failure, the service must not be unavailable indefinitely. Failure response procedures and disaster drills must be implemented to establish a target value for the time from the occurrence of a failure to the startup of service.

#18. John provides a weekly report to the manager outlining security incidents and mitigation procedures. If there is no incident information to put on the report, what action should he take?

〇:Send a report labeled “No output”.

If there is nothing to report (nothing to report), you need to make sure the manager is aware that the report has no information and is not only to be held accountable.

 

×:Send an email notifying the manager that there is nothing to report.

It is not appropriate to suddenly keep a record of the report by e-mail, since the report is normally scheduled to be reported in the operation. Realistically, wouldn’t you be more endearing to your manager if you communicated with him or her every step of the way? No, I am not asking you to do that.

 

×:Re-submit last week’s report and submit the date of last week’s report as this week’s date.

Delivering last week’s report does not express that nothing was reported this week.

 

×:Nothing.

You are required to report that nothing happened.

#19. RAID systems are available in a variety of methods that provide redundancy and performance. Which ones write data divided across multiple drives?

〇:Striping

RAID redundant arrays is a technology used for redundancy and performance. It combines multiple physical disks and aggregates them into a logical array; RAID appears as a single drive to applications and other devices. With striping, data is written to all drives. With this activity, data is split and written to multiple drives. Since multiple heads are reading and writing data at the same time, write and read performance is greatly improved.

 

×:Parity

Parity is used to reconstruct corrupted data.

 

×:Mirroring

Writing data to two drives at once is called mirroring.

 

×:Hot Swap

Hot swap refers to a type of disk found on most RAID systems. A RAID system with hot-swap disks allows the drives to be swapped out while the system is running. When a drive is swapped out or added, parity data is used to rebuild the data on the new disk that was just added.

#20. Which of the following is not a common component as a step to change configuration management?

A structured change management process must be established to direct staff to make appropriate configuration changes. Standard procedures keep the process under control and ensure that it can be implemented in a predictable manner. Change management policies should include procedures for requesting changes, approving changes, documenting, testing and viewing changes, implementing, and reporting changes to management. The configuration management change control process is not typically associated with service level agreement approvals.

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