Domain 7 Exam.
A minimum of 70% is required to pass.
#1. In a redundant array in a RAID system, data and parity information is striped across several different disks. What is parity information?
〇:Information used to reconstruct data
RAID can improve system performance by providing fault tolerance to the hard drive and the data it holds. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting the data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also distributed across each disk. This is called parity, and if one disk fails, the other disks can work together to recover the data.
×:Information used to create new data
This is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data, but rather as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.
×:Information used to erase data
Parity information is not used to erase data. This is incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.
×:Information used to construct data
Parity information is not used to create data. Incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.
#2. You are the security administrator for a large retail company. Their network has many different network devices and software appliances that generate logs and audit data. At one point, your staff is trying to determine if any suspicious activity is taking place in the network. However, reviewing all the log files is burdensome. Which of the following is the best solution for your company in this case?
〇:SIEM
Many organizations have implemented security event management systems, called Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems. They attempt to correlate log data collected from various devices (servers, firewalls, routers, etc.) and provide analysis capabilities. They also have solutions with networks (IDS, IPS, anti-malware, proxies, etc.) that collect logs in various proprietary formats that require centralization, standardization, and normalization. Therefore, the correct answer is SIEM.
×:Intrusion Detection System
Intrusion Detection System (IDS, Intrusion Detection System) is a mechanism that monitors the system and leads to passive actions. It does not have the ability to collect and analyze logs.
×:SOAR
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) is a technology that enables efficient monitoring, understanding, decision-making and action on security incidents. It may be fulfilled by SOAR through intrinsic cause analysis, but it is not a solution used for the purpose of identifying if suspicious activity is taking place in the network.
×:Event correlation tools
The term “event correlation tool” does not exist, but may be a feature of a SIEM.
#3. Which of the following is most relevant in achieving the objective of securing all evidence and notating it as information to be presented to those who verify it?
〇:Control of the processing and distribution process
An important part of the digital forensic process is to maintain a proper chain of custody of evidence.
The question structure assumes Chain of Custody (Chain of Custody) from “the purpose of securing all evidence and notating it as information to be presented to those who verify it” and selects the one that comes closest to the definition.
×:Reasonable care
Wrong because reasonable care implies performing an activity that a reasonable person would be expected to perform under similar circumstances.
×:Investigation
Incorrect because investigation involves the proper collection of relevant data during the incident response process and includes analysis, interpretation, reaction, and recovery.
×:Motive, Opportunity, Means
Motive, Opportunity, and Means (MOM) is incorrect because it is a strategy used to understand why certain crimes were committed and by whom.
#4. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the Disaster Recovery Planning life cycle?
Disaster Recovery Planning includes the Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery life cycles.
- Mitigation: Reduces the impact and likelihood of a disaster.
- Prepare: Create programs, procedures, and tools for response.
- Response: follow procedures and how to respond to a disaster.
- Recovery: re-establish basic functionality and return to a full production environment.
#5. After a disaster has occurred, an impact assessment must be performed. Which of the following steps is the last one performed in an impact assessment?
〇:Declare the impact and consequences of the disaster.
The final step in the damage assessment is to declare the disaster. After the information from the damage assessment has been collected and evaluated, determine if the BCP actually needs to be activated. The BCP coordinator and team should determine the activation criteria before the disaster occurs.
×:Determine the cause of the disaster.
Determining the cause of the disaster is incorrect as it is the first step in the damage assessment process.
×:Identify resources that need to be replaced immediately.
Incorrect because identifying resources that need to be replaced immediately is not the last step in damage assessment.
×:Determine how long it will take to bring critical functions back online.
Incorrect because determining how long it will take to bring critical functions back online is the second-to-last step in damage assessment.
#6. You are selecting a site for a new data center and offices. Which of the following is not a valid security concern?
Greenfield is undeveloped land that has not yet been built upon. The perspectives for selecting a site as a data center site include topography, utilities, and public safety.
- Topography refers to the physical shape of the landscape-hills, valleys, trees, streams.
- Utility refers to the degree to which power and internet in the area are reliable.
- Public safety is in terms of how high is the crime rate in the area and how close is the police force.
#7. Which of the following backup types does NOT clear the archive bit of the Windows system?
Archive bits are those that have been updated since the previous backup point in time. Full backups are full backups, so there is no need to be aware of where changes have occurred. Incremental backups also do not require awareness of change points because the backup portion is predetermined. Therefore, both clear the archive bit. However, differential backups do not clear the archive bit because only the changed part is known to be backed up.
#8. Which of the following plans is intended to establish a senior management or post-disaster headquarters?
〇:Continuity of Operations Plan
A continuity of operations plan (COOP) establishes senior management and post-disaster headquarters. It also outlines roles and authorities and individual role tasks.Creating a COOP begins with an assessment of how the organization operates to identify mission-critical staff, resources, procedures, and equipment. Suppliers, partners, and contractors identify other companies with whom they routinely interact and create a list of these companies. Therefore, the correct answer is the Continuity of Operations Plan.
×:Cyber Incident Response Plan
Cyber Incident Recovery is a plan for recovery from a cyber attack.
×:Crew Emergency Plan
A Crew Emergency Plan is a plan for the smooth transition of a facility’s staff to a secure environment.
×:IT Contingency Plan
A contingency plan is a plan that outlines the measures to be taken in the event of an accident, disaster, or other emergency.
#9. Different levels of RAID determine the type of activity that occurs within a RAID system. Which level of RAID is associated with byte-level parity?
〇:RAID Level 3
RAID redundant arrays provide fault tolerance capability for hard drives and can improve system performance. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve requested information. At this time, recovery data is also created. This is called parity; if one disk fails, the parity data can be used to reconstruct the corrupted or lost information. Different levels of RAID systems experience different activities that provide fault tolerance or improved performance. RAID level 3 is a method that uses byte-level striping and dedicated parity disks.
×:RAID Level 0
Wrong because only striping occurs at level 0.
×:RAID Level 5
RAID 5 is incorrect because it uses block-level striping and interleaved parity on all disks.
×:RAID Level 10
Level 10 is incorrect because it is associated with striping and mirroring.
#10. Which of the following adequately describes parallel testing in disaster recovery testing?
〇:Ensure that some systems are executed at the alternate site.
Parallel testing compares how some systems run at the alternate site and how the results are processed at the primary site. This is to assure that systems run at the alternate site and does not affect service productivity.
×:All departments will be sent a copy of the disaster recovery plan for completeness.
This alternative is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.
×:Representatives from each department meet to validate the plan.
This option is incorrect because it describes a structured walk-through test.
×:The normal operation system is taken down.
This option is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.
#11. Which formulas are used in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) assessment?
#12. We have been paying a software vendor to develop software on a custom basis, but that vendor may be out of business. Since it does not have access to the code, it cannot be retained. In what ways can the company prevent this?
〇:Software Escrow
If you do not have access to the software, but the developer may be out of business, you should plan for what to do after that out-of-business event. Software escrow means that the third party retains the source and compiled code, backup manuals, and other support materials. The agreement between the software vendor, the customer, and the third party would typically be that the customer would only have access to the source code when the vendor goes out of business and in the event of the vendor’s inability to fulfill its stated responsibilities or breach of the original agreement. The customer is protected because they can gain access to the source code and other materials through a third-party escrow agent.
×:Reciprocal Treatment Agreement
Although the term “reciprocal treatment agreement” does not exist, a close concept is mutual assistance agreements. A Mutual Assistance Agreement (MAA) is a promise to support each other in the event of a disaster by sharing facilities. There are times when you want to do something about a disaster, but you don’t have the funds to do it. In such a case, you can find a similar organization and agree to cooperate with each other in the event of a disaster.
×:Electronic Data Vault
Electronic data vaulting (e-vaulting) is the use of a remote backup service to electronically transmit backups off-site at regular intervals or when files are changed.
×:Business interruption insurance
Although the term business interruption insurance does not exist, it can be interpreted as a concept similar to insurance in the event of business interruption. Insurance is typically applied against financial risk. In this issue, software escrow is more appropriate because we want to continue access to the software.
#13. What is remote journaling as part of a fault tolerance strategy?
Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.
#14. Server cluster configurations are taken for critical applications, but what functions are achieved by this configuration?
Clustering is designed for fault tolerance. It is often combined with load balancing, but they are essentially separate. Clustering can make an operation active/active. On top of that, the load balancing feature handles traffic from multiple servers. Active/passive, on the other hand, has a designated primary active server and a secondary passive server, with the passive sending keep-alives or heartbeats every few seconds.
#15. Which of the following is not a common component as a step to change configuration management?
A structured change management process must be established to direct staff to make appropriate configuration changes. Standard procedures keep the process under control and ensure that it can be implemented in a predictable manner. Change management policies should include procedures for requesting changes, approving changes, documenting, testing and viewing changes, implementing, and reporting changes to management. The configuration management change control process is not typically associated with service level agreement approvals.
#16. Which of the following plans would you use to organize information about specific system hardware?
Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP) is the process of creating short-term plans, policies, procedures, and tools to enable the recovery or continuation of critical IT systems in the event of a disaster. It focuses on the IT systems that support critical business functions and how they will be restored after a disaster. For example, it considers what to do if you suffer a distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack, if your servers are compromised, if there is a power outage, etc. BCP is more focused on what should happen and does not necessarily include system requirements.
#17. The operations team is responsible for ensuring that data is backed up at a regular frequency. Which of the following backs up files that have changed since the last time all data was backed up?
〇:Differential Backup
Backups can be taken in full, differential, or incremental. Most files are not changed daily to save very much time and resources, and it is better to develop a backup plan that does not back up for data that is not continually changing. In backup software, when a file is modified or created, the file system sets the archive bit and the backup software determines if that file should be backed up. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup.
×:Incremental Backup
An incremental backup backs up all data that has changed since the last backup.
×:Full Backup
A full backup backs up the entire database or the entire system.
×:Partial Backup
Not in the backup category.
#18. What type of disaster is an earthquake classified as?
Disasters are classified by cause into natural, human, and environmental categories. Natural disasters are natural, human errors are human, and facilities and equipment are environmental.
#19. The change management process includes a variety of steps. Which of the following incorrectly describes a change management policy procedure?
〇:A change unanimously approved by the change control committee would be a step that does not require testing of the actual equipment.
This is a false choice question.
For different types of environmental changes, a structured change management process needs to be in place. Depending on the severity of the change requirement, the change and implementation may need to be presented to a change control committee. Change requests approved by the change control committee must be tested to discover any unintended consequences. This helps to demonstrate the purpose, consequences, and possible effects of the change in its various aspects. This means that just because a change has been approved by the change control board does not mean that it does not need to be tested. The change control board has mandated action on the change, and its appropriateness must be ensured by testing. Therefore, the correct answer is: “A change that is unanimously approved by the change control committee is a step that does not require testing on the actual equipment.” The result will be
×:Changes approved by the change control committee should be kept as a log of changes.
This is correct change management.
×:A rough schedule should be created during the planning phase of the change.
This is correct change management.
×:Proposed changes should be prioritized and reviewed.
This is correct change management.
#20. The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) metric have similar roles, but their values are defined differently. Which of the following best describes the difference between RTO and MTD metrics?
MTD represents the time it takes to signify severe and irreparable damage to the reputation and bottom line of an organization; RTO values are smaller than MTD values; RTO assumes that there is a period of acceptable downtime.




