Practice Test(DOMAIN7)

Domain 7 Exam.

A minimum of 70% is required to pass.

 

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#1. Which of the following is a structured walk-through test in disaster recovery testing?

〇:Representatives from each department meet and undergo validation.

Structured walk-through testing allows functional personnel to review the plan as it is fulfilled to ensure its accuracy and validity.

 

×:Ensures that some systems will run at alternate sites.

This is incorrect because it describes parallel testing.

 

 

×:Send a copy of the disaster recovery plan to all departments to verify its completeness.

This is incorrect because it describes a checklist test.

 

×:Take down the normal operation system.

This is incorrect because it describes a full interruption test.

#2. The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) and the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) metric have similar roles, but their values are defined differently. Which of the following best describes the difference between RTO and MTD metrics?

MTD represents the time it takes to signify severe and irreparable damage to the reputation and bottom line of an organization; RTO values are smaller than MTD values; RTO assumes that there is a period of acceptable downtime.

#3. Which RAID configuration always provides redundancy?

Disk mirroring means writing the same data to multiple hard disks; a RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) controller must write all data twice, requiring at least two disks. Disk striping can also be provided when parity is used, but disk striping alone cannot provide redundancy.

#4. Which of the following is not a common component as a step to change configuration management?

A structured change management process must be established to direct staff to make appropriate configuration changes. Standard procedures keep the process under control and ensure that it can be implemented in a predictable manner. Change management policies should include procedures for requesting changes, approving changes, documenting, testing and viewing changes, implementing, and reporting changes to management. The configuration management change control process is not typically associated with service level agreement approvals.

#5. Which of the following is the average time it takes to fix and return a broken device?

〇:MTTR

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is the average time it takes to repair a device and return it to pre-failure production. Using a redundant array as an example, MTTR is the time it takes to replace the failed drive after the actual failure is noticed and the time the redundant array has completed rewriting the information on the new drive. Therefore, the correct answer is MTTR.

 

×:SLA

Service Level Agreements (SLA) are agreements on service quality, such as usage volume and failure recovery.

 

×:Hot Swap

Hot swapping refers to replacing, attaching, or disconnecting parts, cables, etc. while equipment is still in operation.

 

×:MTBF

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is the average time it takes for a device to fail after repair.

#6. RAID systems are available in a variety of methods that provide redundancy and performance. Which ones write data divided across multiple drives?

〇:Striping

RAID redundant arrays is a technology used for redundancy and performance. It combines multiple physical disks and aggregates them into a logical array; RAID appears as a single drive to applications and other devices. With striping, data is written to all drives. With this activity, data is split and written to multiple drives. Since multiple heads are reading and writing data at the same time, write and read performance is greatly improved.

 

×:Parity

Parity is used to reconstruct corrupted data.

 

×:Mirroring

Writing data to two drives at once is called mirroring.

 

×:Hot Swap

Hot swap refers to a type of disk found on most RAID systems. A RAID system with hot-swap disks allows the drives to be swapped out while the system is running. When a drive is swapped out or added, parity data is used to rebuild the data on the new disk that was just added.

#7. We have been paying a software vendor to develop software on a custom basis, but that vendor may be out of business. Since it does not have access to the code, it cannot be retained. In what ways can the company prevent this?

〇:Software Escrow

If you do not have access to the software, but the developer may be out of business, you should plan for what to do after that out-of-business event. Software escrow means that the third party retains the source and compiled code, backup manuals, and other support materials. The agreement between the software vendor, the customer, and the third party would typically be that the customer would only have access to the source code when the vendor goes out of business and in the event of the vendor’s inability to fulfill its stated responsibilities or breach of the original agreement. The customer is protected because they can gain access to the source code and other materials through a third-party escrow agent.

 

×:Reciprocal Treatment Agreement

Although the term “reciprocal treatment agreement” does not exist, a close concept is mutual assistance agreements. A Mutual Assistance Agreement (MAA) is a promise to support each other in the event of a disaster by sharing facilities. There are times when you want to do something about a disaster, but you don’t have the funds to do it. In such a case, you can find a similar organization and agree to cooperate with each other in the event of a disaster.

 

×:Electronic Data Vault

Electronic data vaulting (e-vaulting) is the use of a remote backup service to electronically transmit backups off-site at regular intervals or when files are changed.

 

×:Business interruption insurance

Although the term business interruption insurance does not exist, it can be interpreted as a concept similar to insurance in the event of business interruption. Insurance is typically applied against financial risk. In this issue, software escrow is more appropriate because we want to continue access to the software.

#8. After a disaster has occurred, an impact assessment must be performed. Which of the following steps is the last one performed in an impact assessment?

〇:Declare the impact and consequences of the disaster.

The final step in the damage assessment is to declare the disaster. After the information from the damage assessment has been collected and evaluated, determine if the BCP actually needs to be activated. The BCP coordinator and team should determine the activation criteria before the disaster occurs.

 

×:Determine the cause of the disaster.

Determining the cause of the disaster is incorrect as it is the first step in the damage assessment process.

 

×:Identify resources that need to be replaced immediately.

Incorrect because identifying resources that need to be replaced immediately is not the last step in damage assessment.

 

×:Determine how long it will take to bring critical functions back online.

Incorrect because determining how long it will take to bring critical functions back online is the second-to-last step in damage assessment.

#9. As a security administrator, you are dealing with a virus infection. One day, your antivirus application detects that a file is infected with a dangerous virus. Disinfecting that file may damage the normal file contents themselves. What action should you take?

〇:Restore the virus unpatched file version from the backup media.

The best practice is to install an unpatched, uninfected version of the file from the backup media. It is important to restore files that are known to be clean, as attempts to remove the files may corrupt them. The most important thing is not to spread the impact, but attempting to unilaterally delete files may make them unavailable for later investigation.

 

×:Replace the file with the file saved the previous day.

The file saved the previous day may also contain the virus.

 

×:Delete the file and contact the vendor.

This is an incorrect answer because the condition of this question is that if the file is deleted, the normal file content itself may be damaged.

 

×:Back up the data and delete the file.

This is an incorrect answer because backing up the data that contains the virus and deleting the file does not result in a clean situation.

#10. The change management process includes a variety of steps. Which of the following incorrectly describes a change management policy procedure?

〇:A change unanimously approved by the change control committee would be a step that does not require testing of the actual equipment.

This is a false choice question.

For different types of environmental changes, a structured change management process needs to be in place. Depending on the severity of the change requirement, the change and implementation may need to be presented to a change control committee. Change requests approved by the change control committee must be tested to discover any unintended consequences. This helps to demonstrate the purpose, consequences, and possible effects of the change in its various aspects. This means that just because a change has been approved by the change control board does not mean that it does not need to be tested. The change control board has mandated action on the change, and its appropriateness must be ensured by testing. Therefore, the correct answer is: “A change that is unanimously approved by the change control committee is a step that does not require testing on the actual equipment.” The result will be

 

×:Changes approved by the change control committee should be kept as a log of changes.

This is correct change management.

 

×:A rough schedule should be created during the planning phase of the change.

This is correct change management.

 

×:Proposed changes should be prioritized and reviewed.

This is correct change management.

#11. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the Disaster Recovery Planning life cycle?

Disaster Recovery Planning includes the Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, and Recovery life cycles.

  • Mitigation: Reduces the impact and likelihood of a disaster.
  • Prepare: Create programs, procedures, and tools for response.
  • Response: follow procedures and how to respond to a disaster.
  • Recovery: re-establish basic functionality and return to a full production environment.

#12. You are the security administrator for a large retail company. Their network has many different network devices and software appliances that generate logs and audit data. At one point, your staff is trying to determine if any suspicious activity is taking place in the network. However, reviewing all the log files is burdensome. Which of the following is the best solution for your company in this case?

〇:SIEM

Many organizations have implemented security event management systems, called Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems. They attempt to correlate log data collected from various devices (servers, firewalls, routers, etc.) and provide analysis capabilities. They also have solutions with networks (IDS, IPS, anti-malware, proxies, etc.) that collect logs in various proprietary formats that require centralization, standardization, and normalization. Therefore, the correct answer is SIEM.

 

×:Intrusion Detection System

Intrusion Detection System (IDS, Intrusion Detection System) is a mechanism that monitors the system and leads to passive actions. It does not have the ability to collect and analyze logs.

 

×:SOAR

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) is a technology that enables efficient monitoring, understanding, decision-making and action on security incidents. It may be fulfilled by SOAR through intrinsic cause analysis, but it is not a solution used for the purpose of identifying if suspicious activity is taking place in the network.

 

×:Event correlation tools

The term “event correlation tool” does not exist, but may be a feature of a SIEM.

#13. Which of the following plans would you use to organize information about specific system hardware?

Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP) is the process of creating short-term plans, policies, procedures, and tools to enable the recovery or continuation of critical IT systems in the event of a disaster. It focuses on the IT systems that support critical business functions and how they will be restored after a disaster. For example, it considers what to do if you suffer a distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack, if your servers are compromised, if there is a power outage, etc. BCP is more focused on what should happen and does not necessarily include system requirements.

#14. One approach to alternative off-site facilities is to establish a reciprocal agreement. Which of the following describes the pros and cons of a reciprocal agreement?

〇:Can be the cheapest of the off-site options, but can create many security problems due to mixed operations.

Reciprocal agreements, also called mutual aid, mean that Company A agrees to allow Company B to use its facilities if Company B suffers a disaster, and vice versa. While this is a less expensive way to move than other off-site alternatives, it is not always the best choice. In most environments, the facility has reached its limits regarding the use of space, resources, and computing power. To allow different firms to come in and operate out of the same store could be detrimental to both firms. The stress of both companies working in the same environment can cause tremendous levels of tension. If that did not work out, it would provide the only short-term solution. Configuration management could be a nightmare, and mixing operations could result in many security problems. Reciprocal agreements have been known to work well for certain companies, such as newsprint. These firms require very specific technology and equipment that is not available through any subscription service. For most other organizations, reciprocity agreements are, at best, generally a secondary option for disaster protection.

 

×:Fully set up and ready to operate within a few hours is the most expensive of the off-site options.

This is a description of a hot site.

 

×:Inexpensive option, but takes the most time and effort to get up and running after a disaster.

Explanation for cold sites.

 

×:A good alternative for companies that rely on proprietary software, but regular annual testing is usually not available.

This is incorrect as it describes with respect to companies that depend on proprietary software. Having proprietary software in a shared space with other vendors is basically undesirable from the standpoint of license agreements involved.

#15. Server cluster configurations are taken for critical applications, but what functions are achieved by this configuration?

Clustering is designed for fault tolerance. It is often combined with load balancing, but they are essentially separate. Clustering can make an operation active/active. On top of that, the load balancing feature handles traffic from multiple servers. Active/passive, on the other hand, has a designated primary active server and a secondary passive server, with the passive sending keep-alives or heartbeats every few seconds.

#16. Which of the following backup types does NOT clear the archive bit of the Windows system?

Archive bits are those that have been updated since the previous backup point in time. Full backups are full backups, so there is no need to be aware of where changes have occurred. Incremental backups also do not require awareness of change points because the backup portion is predetermined. Therefore, both clear the archive bit. However, differential backups do not clear the archive bit because only the changed part is known to be backed up.

#17. You are selecting a site for a new data center and offices. Which of the following is not a valid security concern?

Greenfield is undeveloped land that has not yet been built upon. The perspectives for selecting a site as a data center site include topography, utilities, and public safety.

  • Topography refers to the physical shape of the landscape-hills, valleys, trees, streams.
  • Utility refers to the degree to which power and internet in the area are reliable.
  • Public safety is in terms of how high is the crime rate in the area and how close is the police force.

#18. In a redundant array in a RAID system, data and parity information is striped across several different disks. What is parity information?

〇:Information used to reconstruct data

RAID can improve system performance by providing fault tolerance to the hard drive and the data it holds. Redundancy and speed are provided by splitting the data and writing it to multiple disks, allowing different disk heads to operate simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also distributed across each disk. This is called parity, and if one disk fails, the other disks can work together to recover the data.

 

×:Information used to create new data

This is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data, but rather as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

 

×:Information used to erase data

Parity information is not used to erase data. This is incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

 

×:Information used to construct data

Parity information is not used to create data. Incorrect because it is used as instructions on how to recreate lost or corrupted data.

#19. John provides a weekly report to the manager outlining security incidents and mitigation procedures. If there is no incident information to put on the report, what action should he take?

〇:Send a report labeled “No output”.

If there is nothing to report (nothing to report), you need to make sure the manager is aware that the report has no information and is not only to be held accountable.

 

×:Send an email notifying the manager that there is nothing to report.

It is not appropriate to suddenly keep a record of the report by e-mail, since the report is normally scheduled to be reported in the operation. Realistically, wouldn’t you be more endearing to your manager if you communicated with him or her every step of the way? No, I am not asking you to do that.

 

×:Re-submit last week’s report and submit the date of last week’s report as this week’s date.

Delivering last week’s report does not express that nothing was reported this week.

 

×:Nothing.

You are required to report that nothing happened.

#20. What is remote journaling as part of a fault tolerance strategy?

Remote journaling means that a transaction log file, not the file itself, is sent remotely. A transaction is one or more update operations performed on a file. In other words, it is a history of updates to a file. This means that if the original file is lost, it can be reconstructed from the transaction log.

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