Domain 4 Exam.
A minimum of 70% is required to pass.
#1. Which DNS extension provides authentication of the origin of DNS data to DNS clients (resolvers) that can reduce DNS poisoning, spoofing, and other attacks?
〇:DNSSEC
DNSSEC is a set of extensions to the DNS that provide DNS clients (resolvers) with authentication of the origin of DNS data to reduce the threat of DNS poisoning, spoofing, and similar attack types. It is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) specification for securing services.
×:Resource Record
DNS servers contain records that map hostnames to IP addresses, called resource records. The answer is incorrect. When a user’s computer needs to resolve a hostname to an IP address, it looks in its network configuration to find its DNS server. The computer then sends a request containing the hostname to the DNS server for resolution; the DNS server looks at its resource records, finds a record with this particular hostname, retrieves the address, and responds to the computer with the corresponding IP address.
×:Zone Transfer
Primary and secondary DNS servers synchronize their information via zone transfers. The answer is incorrect. After changes are made to the primary DNS server, these changes must be replicated to the secondary DNS server. It is important to configure the DNS servers so that zone transfers can take place between specific servers.
×:Resource Transfer
Equivalent to transferring DNS resource records, but the answer is incorrect.
#2. What is the intention of preparing artificially vulnerable network domains?
〇:For early detection or enclosure in the event of an attack.
Attackers will conduct an investigation before launching a substantial attack. In such cases, a vulnerable network can provide preventative information such as where the attacker is accessing the network from. This is because only an attacker would have the incentive to break into the network. Vulnerable network domains, such as honeypots, make this kind of intrusion easier and clarify the attacker’s behavior. Thus, the correct answer is “to detect or enclose them early in the event of an attack.” will be
×:Debugging environment for when a system outage occurs in the current environment.
The answer is not to intentionally create a vulnerable environment. It is only the result of creating an environment that is vulnerable.
×:Aiming to prevent regressions due to old vulnerabilities.
Even if it is an old vulnerability, it should be addressed and there is no point in allowing it to remain.
×:A special environment for running a product with a low version that is no longer supported.
It is not an answer to intentionally create a vulnerable environment. It is merely the result of creating an environment that is vulnerable.
#3. What is the range of well-known port?
A well-known port is a port number from 0 to 1023 that is reserved for standard services. There are three port number combinations. Well-known port numbers (0-1023) are port numbers officially registered with IANA. Registered port numbers (1024-49151) are port numbers that are officially registered with IANA. A dynamic/private port number (49152-65535) is a port number that is not officially registered with IANA.
#4. DNS is a popular target for attackers on the Internet; which ones use recursive queries to pollute the caches of DNS servers?
〇:DNS Hijacking
The DNS plays a great role in the transmission of traffic on the Internet; it directs traffic to the appropriate IP address corresponding to a given domain name DNS queries can be classified as either recursive or iterative. In a recursive query, the DNS server forwards the query to another server, which returns the appropriate response to the inquirer. In an iterative query, the DNS server responds with the address of another DNS server that may be able to answer the question and then proceeds to further ask for a new DNS server. Attackers use recursive queries to pollute the caches of DNS servers.
The attacker sends a recursive query to the victim’s DNS server asking for the IP address of the domain; the DNS server forwards the query to another DNS server. Before the other DNS server responds, the attacker inserts his IP address. The victim server receives the IP address and stores it in its cache for a specific period of time. The next time the system queries the server for resolution, the server directs the user to the attacker’s IP address.
×:Manipulating the hosts file
Manipulating the hosts file is wrong because it does not use recursive queries to pollute the DNS server cache. The client queries the hosts file before issuing a request to the first DNS server. Some viruses add the antivirus vendor’s invalid IP address to the hosts file to prevent the virus definition file from being downloaded and to prevent detection.
×:Social engineering
Social engineering is wrong because it does not require querying DNS servers. Social engineering refers to manipulation by an individual for the purpose of gaining unauthorized access or information.
×:Domain Litigation
Domain litigation is wrong because it does not involve poisoning the DNS server cache. Domain names are at trademark risk, including temporary unavailability or permanent loss of established domain names.
#5. An attacker is attempting a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack using UDP floods. How does a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack work at this time?
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) floods are often used in distributed denial of service (DDOS) attacks because they are connectionless and yet allow for easy generation of UDP messages from various scripting and compilation languages. UDP is a datagram protocol.
#6. Encryption can occur at different layers of the operating system and network stack. Where does PPTP encryption occur?
Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a way to implement a virtual private network (VPN). It is Microsoft’s proprietary VPN protocol that operates at the data link layer of the OSI model; PPTP can only provide a single connection and can operate over a PPP connection.
#7. Robert is responsible for implementing a common architecture for accessing sensitive information over an Internet connection. Which of the following best describes this type of architecture?
〇:3-tier architecture
The 3-tier architecture clearly distinguishes the three layers: the client has the user interface responsible for input and displaying results, and the server has the functional process logic responsible for data processing and data storage for accessing the database. The user interface role is generally handled by the front-end web server with which the user interacts. It can handle both static and cached dynamic content. The functional process logic is where requests are reformatted and processed. It is typically a dynamic content processing and generation level application server. Data storage is where sensitive data is held. It is the back-end database and holds both the data and the database management system software used to manage and provide access to the data.
×:2-tier architecture
Two-tier, or client/server, is incorrect because it describes an architecture in which a server serves one or more clients that request those services.
×:Screened Subnets
A screen-subnet architecture is for one firewall to protect one server (basically a one-tier architecture). The external, public-side firewall monitors requests from untrusted networks like the Internet. If one layer, the only firewall, is compromised, an attacker can access sensitive data residing on the server with relative ease.
×:Public and Private DNS Zones
Separating DNS servers into public and private servers provides protection, but this is not the actual architecture.
#8. Which of the following is the most appropriate relationship between SSL and TLS?
〇:TLS is an open community version of SSL.
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are cryptographic protocols used to protect communications by encrypting segments of a network connection. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol.
×:TLS is an open community version of SSL. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol. x: The SSL protocol can be modified by developers to extend its capabilities.
This is incorrect because SSL is a proprietary protocol developed by Netscape. This means that the technical community cannot easily interoperate and extend SSL to extend to its functionality.
×:SSL is an open community protocol while TLS is a proprietary protocol.
The meaning and matching are reversed.
×:SSL is an extended version and backward compatible with TLS.
Wrong, since TLS is actually more extensible than SSL and is not backward compatible with SSL.
#9. One approach to fighting spam mail is to use the Sender Policy Framework, an email validation system. What type of system implements this functionality and receives and responds to requests?
Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.
#10. An IT security team at a small healthcare organization wants to focus on maintaining IDS, firewalls, enterprise-wide anti-malware solutions, data leak prevention technology, and centralized log management. Which of the following types of solutions implement standardized and streamlined security features?
〇:Unified Threat Management
Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance products have been developed to provide firewall, malware, spam, IDS / IPS, content filtering, data leak prevention, VPN capabilities, and continuous monitoring and reporting in computer networks.
Since this question asks for a definition of Unified Threat Management that is unfamiliar or not even mentioned in the course material, it is inefficient to buy and study a new book just to get this score. To avoid ending up with “I don’t know = I can’t solve it,” be sure to develop the habit of choosing a “better answer.
If you think in terms of the classification Concepts/Standards > Solutions/Implementation Methods, ISCM (NIST SP800-137) and centralized access control systems are the former, while Unified Threat Management and cloud-based security solutions are the latter. Therefore, it is still better to bet on unified threat management and cloud-based security solutions.
×:ISCM (NIST SP800-137)
Because continuous monitoring in the security industry is most commonly Information Security Continuous Monitoring ISCM (NIST SP800-137), which enables companies to gain situational awareness, continuous awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support business risk management decisions , is incorrect.
×:Centralized Access Control System
Wrong because a centralized access control system does not attempt to combine all of the security products and capabilities mentioned in the issue. A centralized access control system is used so that its access control can be enforced in a standardized manner across different systems in a network environment.
×:Cloud-based security solutions
Cloud-based security solutions include security managed services that allow an outsourced company to manage and maintain a company’s security devices and solutions, but this is not considered a cloud-based solution. The cloud-based solution provides the infrastructure environment, platform, or application to the customer so that the customer does not have to spend time and money maintaining these items themselves.
#11. Which protocols does Voice over IP (VoIP) primarily use?
VoIP uses UDP. It is real-time oriented, and it is probably better to lose one or two packets than to retransmit a few seconds later in a connectionless fashion.
#12. Which is the most correct use of a captive portal?
A captive portal is a mechanism that restricts communication with the outside world until user authentication, user registration, and user consent are performed when a terminal connects to the network.
#13. Which word indicates the destination address and the computer service or protocol communication method at the destination?
〇:Socket
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) are transport protocols used by applications to retrieve data over a network. Both use ports to communicate with the upper OSI layer and keep track of the various conversations that occur simultaneously. Ports are also the mechanism used to identify how other computers access services. When a TCP or UDP message is formed, the source and destination ports are included in the header information along with the source and destination IP addresses. This IP address and port number is called a socket; the IP address serves as the gateway to the computer and the port serves as the gateway to the actual protocol or service.
×:IP address
This is incorrect because the IP address does not tell the packet how to communicate with the service or protocol. The purpose of an IP address is to identify and address the location of a host or network interface. Each node in a network has a unique IP address. This information, along with the source and destination ports, make up a socket. The IP address tells the packet where to go, and the port indicates how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol.
×:Port
The port is incorrect because it tells the packet only how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol. It does not tell the packet where it should go. The IP address provides this information. Ports are communication endpoints used by IP protocols such as TCP and UDP. Ports are identified by a number.
×:Frame
Frame is incorrect because the term is used to refer to a datagram after the header and trailer have been given to the data link layer.
#14. Software-defined network (SDN) technology specifies which of the following?
〇:How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions
Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.
×:Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.
ARP table.
×:Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.
Explanation of dynamic routing.
×:A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.
This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.
#15. Angela wants a computer environment that can be used together in departmental groups while easily sharing network resources. Which computers should logically be used as group computers?
〇:VLAN
Virtual LANs (VLANs) allow logical isolation and grouping of computers based on resource requirements, security, or business needs, despite the standard physical location of the system. Computers in the same department configured on the same VLAN network can all receive the same broadcast messages, allowing all users to access the same types of resources regardless of their physical location.
×:Open Network Architecture
Open network architecture is wrong because it describes the technology that can configure a network; the OSI model provides a framework for developing products that operate within an open network architecture.
×:Intranet
Incorrect because an intranet is a private network used by a company when it wants to use Internet and Web-based technologies in its internal network.
×:VAN
Incorrect because a Value Added Network (VAN) is an electronic data interchange (EDI) infrastructure developed and maintained by a service bureau.
#16. Which network line should be used to ensure that traffic always uses the same path?
Circuit switching is a dedicated communication channel through a network. The circuit guarantees full bandwidth. The circuit functions as if the nodes were physically connected by cables.
#17. Which technology optimizes content delivery by determining geographic location based on the client’s IP address for routing that constitutes the proximal topology of Web content?
〇:Content Delivery Network (CDN)
Content delivery networks (CDNs) are designed to optimize the delivery of content to clients based on their global topology. In such a design, multiple web servers hosted at many points of existence on the Internet are globally synchronized and contain the same content, and the client is usually directed to the nearest source via DNS record manipulation based on geolocation algorithms for can be directed to.
×:Distributed Name Service (DNS)
Wrong, as there is no protocol called Distributed Name Service; DNS refers to the Domain Name Service protocol.
×:Distributed Web Service (DWS)
Distributed Web Services is also wrong because it is an incorrect answer. The concept of a distributed Web services discovery architecture is not a formal protocol, although it has been discussed by the IEEE and others.
×:Content Domain Distribution (CDD)
The term Content Domain Distribution (CDD) does not appear in CISSP’s CBK terminology.
#18. IP telephony networks require the same security measures as those implemented on IP data networks. Which of the following is a feature unique to IP telephony?
〇:IP Session Restriction via Media Gateway
The VoIP Media Gateway translates Internet Protocol (VoIP) voice over time division multiplexing (TDM) voice to and from. As a security measure, the number of calls through the Media Gateway should be limited. The Media Gateway is vulnerable to denial-of-service attacks, hijacking, and other types of attacks.
×:Identification of Rogue Devices
Incorrect, as rogue devices on both IP telephony and data networks need to be identified.
×:Implementation of Authentication
Incorrect because authentication is recommended for both data and voice networks.
×:Encryption of packets containing sensitive information
Incorrect because sensitive data can be transmitted over either voice or data networks and must be encrypted in both cases. Eavesdropping is a very real threat for VoIP networks.
#19. Which of the following is an attack that accesses an internal IP address as the source from the outside and aims for internal access by means of a response request?
〇:LAND attack
A LAND attack is an attack that penetrates firewalls that block bad requests; it is similar to the Fraggle attack, but it sends a request to the firewall with the sender as the target of the attack. This is a blind spot because the firewall, which is supposed to protect the inside of the system, is used for the attack.
×:Teardrop
Teardrop is an attack that halts the system by forging the offset of IP packets before they are split.
×:Christmas Tree Attack
A Christmas tree attack is an attack in which a packet is sent with a number of flags (URG, ACK, PSH, RST, SYN, FIN) and the response is observed.
×:CHARGEN attack
CHARGEN (port 19) is a protocol that returns an appropriate string.
#20. Which of the following attacks aims to bring down equipment by means of packets whose offsets have been tampered with?
〇:Teardrop
Teardrop is an attack to bring a system to a halt by forging the offset of IP packets when they are returned before splitting.
×:Fraggle attack
Fraggle attack is an attack that uses the CHARGEN function to generate an appropriate string.
×:CHARGEN attack
There is no attack with such a name.
×:War Driving
Wardriving is the act of driving around a city looking for vulnerable wireless LAN access points.




