Practice Test(DOMAIN4)

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Domain 4 Exam.

A minimum of 70% is required to pass.

 

Results

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#1. Which of the following is not a network topology?

Matrix is not a network topology. Ring, mesh, and star are network topologies.

#2. Which network line should be used to ensure that traffic always uses the same path?

Circuit switching is a dedicated communication channel through a network. The circuit guarantees full bandwidth. The circuit functions as if the nodes were physically connected by cables.

#3. You want to make it clear to developers that application processing and session processing are separate. Which network model should they follow?

〇:OSI reference model

The OSI reference model is a seven-layer classification of network communication. The concepts of application communication and session are separated, which would be clearly communicated based on the OSI reference model. Therefore, the correct answer is “OSI reference model.

 

×:TCP/IP model

The TCP/IP model is a layer design that is closer to the concept of a system than the OSI reference model; in the TCP/IP model, the application layer, presentation layer, and session layer of the OSI reference model are represented by a single application layer.

 

×:Data link model

There is no such model.

 

×:Biba model

Biba model is one of the security models that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

#4. Brad wants to ban the use of instant messaging (IM) on corporate networks. Which of the following should NOT be included in his presentation?

〇:The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

 

×:Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

 

×:Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

 

×:A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

#5. What is the IPSec SA value?

Each IPSec VPN device will have at least one security association (SA) for each secure connection it uses; the SA, which is critical to the IPSec architecture, is the device’s need to support IPSec connections over VPN connections This is a record of the configuration that needs to be in place.

#6. Which of the following is the most appropriate relationship between SSL and TLS?

〇:TLS is an open community version of SSL.

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are cryptographic protocols used to protect communications by encrypting segments of a network connection. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol.

 

×:TLS is an open community version of SSL. SSL is a proprietary protocol and TLS was developed by a standards body, making it an open community protocol. x: The SSL protocol can be modified by developers to extend its capabilities.

This is incorrect because SSL is a proprietary protocol developed by Netscape. This means that the technical community cannot easily interoperate and extend SSL to extend to its functionality.

 

×:SSL is an open community protocol while TLS is a proprietary protocol.

The meaning and matching are reversed.

 

×:SSL is an extended version and backward compatible with TLS.

Wrong, since TLS is actually more extensible than SSL and is not backward compatible with SSL.

#7. Which DNS extension provides authentication of the origin of DNS data to DNS clients (resolvers) that can reduce DNS poisoning, spoofing, and other attacks?

〇:DNSSEC

DNSSEC is a set of extensions to the DNS that provide DNS clients (resolvers) with authentication of the origin of DNS data to reduce the threat of DNS poisoning, spoofing, and similar attack types. It is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) specification for securing services.

 

×:Resource Record

DNS servers contain records that map hostnames to IP addresses, called resource records. The answer is incorrect. When a user’s computer needs to resolve a hostname to an IP address, it looks in its network configuration to find its DNS server. The computer then sends a request containing the hostname to the DNS server for resolution; the DNS server looks at its resource records, finds a record with this particular hostname, retrieves the address, and responds to the computer with the corresponding IP address.

 

×:Zone Transfer

Primary and secondary DNS servers synchronize their information via zone transfers. The answer is incorrect. After changes are made to the primary DNS server, these changes must be replicated to the secondary DNS server. It is important to configure the DNS servers so that zone transfers can take place between specific servers.

 

×:Resource Transfer

Equivalent to transferring DNS resource records, but the answer is incorrect.

#8. Which of the following is NOT a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?

There are many different types of distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks; there is no IPSec flood; UDP flood, SYN flood, and MAC flood are all distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

#9. What is the intention of preparing artificially vulnerable network domains?

〇:For early detection or enclosure in the event of an attack.

Attackers will conduct an investigation before launching a substantial attack. In such cases, a vulnerable network can provide preventative information such as where the attacker is accessing the network from. This is because only an attacker would have the incentive to break into the network. Vulnerable network domains, such as honeypots, make this kind of intrusion easier and clarify the attacker’s behavior. Thus, the correct answer is “to detect or enclose them early in the event of an attack.” will be

 

×:Debugging environment for when a system outage occurs in the current environment.

The answer is not to intentionally create a vulnerable environment. It is only the result of creating an environment that is vulnerable.

 

×:Aiming to prevent regressions due to old vulnerabilities.

Even if it is an old vulnerability, it should be addressed and there is no point in allowing it to remain.

 

×:A special environment for running a product with a low version that is no longer supported.

It is not an answer to intentionally create a vulnerable environment. It is merely the result of creating an environment that is vulnerable.

#10. Software-defined network (SDN) technology specifies which of the following?

〇:How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

 

×:Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

 

×:Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

 

×:A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

#11. An attacker is attempting a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack using UDP floods. How does a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack work at this time?

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) floods are often used in distributed denial of service (DDOS) attacks because they are connectionless and yet allow for easy generation of UDP messages from various scripting and compilation languages. UDP is a datagram protocol.

#12. An IT security team at a small healthcare organization wants to focus on maintaining IDS, firewalls, enterprise-wide anti-malware solutions, data leak prevention technology, and centralized log management. Which of the following types of solutions implement standardized and streamlined security features?

〇:Unified Threat Management

Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance products have been developed to provide firewall, malware, spam, IDS / IPS, content filtering, data leak prevention, VPN capabilities, and continuous monitoring and reporting in computer networks.

Since this question asks for a definition of Unified Threat Management that is unfamiliar or not even mentioned in the course material, it is inefficient to buy and study a new book just to get this score. To avoid ending up with “I don’t know = I can’t solve it,” be sure to develop the habit of choosing a “better answer.

If you think in terms of the classification Concepts/Standards > Solutions/Implementation Methods, ISCM (NIST SP800-137) and centralized access control systems are the former, while Unified Threat Management and cloud-based security solutions are the latter. Therefore, it is still better to bet on unified threat management and cloud-based security solutions.

 

×:ISCM (NIST SP800-137)

Because continuous monitoring in the security industry is most commonly Information Security Continuous Monitoring ISCM (NIST SP800-137), which enables companies to gain situational awareness, continuous awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support business risk management decisions , is incorrect.

 

×:Centralized Access Control System

Wrong because a centralized access control system does not attempt to combine all of the security products and capabilities mentioned in the issue. A centralized access control system is used so that its access control can be enforced in a standardized manner across different systems in a network environment.

 

×:Cloud-based security solutions

Cloud-based security solutions include security managed services that allow an outsourced company to manage and maintain a company’s security devices and solutions, but this is not considered a cloud-based solution. The cloud-based solution provides the infrastructure environment, platform, or application to the customer so that the customer does not have to spend time and money maintaining these items themselves.

#13. Which is the most correct use of a captive portal?

A captive portal is a mechanism that restricts communication with the outside world until user authentication, user registration, and user consent are performed when a terminal connects to the network.

#14. Encryption can occur at different layers of the operating system and network stack. Where does PPTP encryption occur?

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a way to implement a virtual private network (VPN). It is Microsoft’s proprietary VPN protocol that operates at the data link layer of the OSI model; PPTP can only provide a single connection and can operate over a PPP connection.

#15. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of VoIP?

〇:Security

Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) refers to a transmission technology that delivers voice communications over an IP network; IP telephony uses technology that is similar to TCP/IP and therefore similar in its vulnerabilities. Voice systems are vulnerable to application manipulation and unauthorized administrative access. It is also vulnerable to denial of service attacks against gateway and network resources. Eavesdropping is also a concern since data traffic is transmitted in clear text unless encrypted.

The term security is a difficult answer to choose from because it has a very broad meaning. However, information security scriptures such as CISSP are persistent in saying that VoIP has vulnerabilities. Although this answer is a bit over the top in practical terms, it was made to educate the public, because depending on the creator’s intentions, this issue may arise.

 

×:Cost

Wrong, because cost is an advantage of VoIP; with VoIP’s, a company becomes a dedicated alternative to a separate network dedicated to data transmission and voice transmission. For telephony features such as conference calling, call forwarding, and automatic redialing are freed up in VoIP, which is open source, while companies that use traditional communications charge for VoIP.

 

×:Convergence

Wrong because convergence is the advantage of VoIP. Convergence means the integration of traditional IP networks with traditional analog telephone networks.

 

×:Flexibility

Wrong, because flexibility is an advantage of VoIP. The technology is very simple, easy and supports multiple calls over a single Internet broadband connection.

#16. Which of the following is NOT an effective countermeasure against spam mail?

〇:Make the mail relay server available to everyone.

This is a question of choosing the “ineffective” one. An open mail relay server is not an effective countermeasure against spam. In fact, spammers often use spammers to distribute spam, because the attackers can hide their identities. An open mail relay server is an SMTP server configured to allow inbound SMTP connections from anyone on the Internet, and many relays are properly configured to prevent attackers from distributing spam and pornography. Thus, the correct answer is “have an email relay server available to everyone.” will be.

 

×:Build a properly configured mail relay server.

A properly configured mail relay server can also suppress spam mail.

 

×:Perform filtering at the e-mail gateway.

Filtering emails that are considered spam mail at the gateway will help to prevent spam mail.

 

×:Filtering at the client.

Filtering spam mail at the client, i.e., in a mailing application such as Outlook, is considered to be a countermeasure against spam mail.

#17. The IT Security team has been asked to propose a mitigation strategy using the OSI reference model. Which of these would address the Layer 7 issue?

Application firewalls target Layer 7 of the OSI. The main advantage of an application firewall is its ability to understand specific applications and protocols. Packets are not decrypted until Layer 6, so Layer 7 can see the entire packet. Other firewalls can only inspect the packet, not the payload. It can detect if an unwanted application or service is trying to bypass the firewall by using a protocol on an allowed port, or if the protocol is being used in a malicious manner.

#18. Which protocols does Voice over IP (VoIP) primarily use?

VoIP uses UDP. It is real-time oriented, and it is probably better to lose one or two packets than to retransmit a few seconds later in a connectionless fashion.

#19. One approach to fighting spam mail is to use the Sender Policy Framework, an email validation system. What type of system implements this functionality and receives and responds to requests?

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.

#20. When attackers set up war dialing, what do they try to do?

War Dialing is the indiscriminate and repeated act of cracking dial-ups in search of dial-up lines, such as those for non-public internal networks. It automatically scans a list of telephone numbers, usually dialing all numbers in the local area code, and searches modems, computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.

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