Practice Test(DOMAIN4)

Domain 4 Exam.

A minimum of 70% is required to pass.

 

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#1. When attackers set up war dialing, what do they try to do?

War Dialing is the indiscriminate and repeated act of cracking dial-ups in search of dial-up lines, such as those for non-public internal networks. It automatically scans a list of telephone numbers, usually dialing all numbers in the local area code, and searches modems, computers, bulletin board systems, and fax machines.

#2. Which is the most correct use of a captive portal?

A captive portal is a mechanism that restricts communication with the outside world until user authentication, user registration, and user consent are performed when a terminal connects to the network.

#3. What is the range of well-known port?

A well-known port is a port number from 0 to 1023 that is reserved for standard services. There are three port number combinations. Well-known port numbers (0-1023) are port numbers officially registered with IANA. Registered port numbers (1024-49151) are port numbers that are officially registered with IANA. A dynamic/private port number (49152-65535) is a port number that is not officially registered with IANA.

#4. Which of the following is an incorrect description of IP telephony security?

〇:Softphones are safer than IP phones. 

IP softphones should be used with caution. A softphone is a software application that allows users to make calls via computer over the Internet. Replacing dedicated hardware, a softphone works like a traditional telephone. Skype is an example of a softphone application. Compared to hardware-based IP phones, softphones are more receptive to IP networks. However, softphones are no worse than other interactive Internet applications because they do not separate voice traffic from data, as IP phones do, and also because data-centric malware can more easily enter the network through softphones. network.

 

×:VoIP networks should be protected with the same security controls used on data networks.

The statement is incorrect because it correctly describes the security of an IP telephony network. an IP telephony network uses the same technology as a traditional IP network, which allows it to support voice applications. Therefore, IP telephony networks are susceptible to the same vulnerabilities as traditional IP networks and should be protected accordingly. This means that IP telephony networks should be designed to have adequate security.

 

×:As an endpoint, IP telephony can be a target of attack.

Incorrect because true: An IP phone on an IP telephony network is equivalent to a workstation on a data network in terms of vulnerability to attack. Thus, IP phones should be protected with many of the same security controls implemented on traditional workstations. For example, the default administrator password must be changed. Unnecessary remote access functions need to be disabled. Logging should be enabled and the firmware upgrade process should be secured.

 

×:The current Internet architecture in which voice is transmitted is more secure than physical phone lines.

True and therefore incorrect. In most cases, the current Internet architecture in which voice is transmitted is more secure than physical telephone lines. Physical phone lines provide a point-to-point connection, which is difficult to leverage over the software-based tunnels that make up the bulk of the Internet. This is an important factor to consider when protecting IP telephony networks because the network is now transmitting 2 valuable asset data and voice. It is not unusual for personal information, financial information, and other sensitive data to be spoken over the phone; intercepting this information over an IP telephony network is as easy as intercepting regular data. Currently voice traffic should also be encrypted.

#5. Brad wants to ban the use of instant messaging (IM) on corporate networks. Which of the following should NOT be included in his presentation?

〇:The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

 

×:Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

 

×:Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

 

×:A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

#6. We would like to use Ethernet for a bus type network configuration. The service requirements are a communication speed of 5 M and a distance of 200 m. Which standard should we use?

Ethernet is a way of communication used for local area networks; LANs and such communicate over Ethernet. In other words, most communication is now done over Ethernet.

Name Type Speed Max Distance
10Base2 ‘Thinnet’
Bus
10Mbit
185meters
10Base5 ‘Thicknet’
Bus
10Mbit
500meters
10BaseT
Star
10Mbit
100meters
100Mbit
Star
100BaseT
100meters
1000BaseT
Star
1000Mbit
100meters

#7. What is the intention of preparing artificially vulnerable network domains?

〇:For early detection or enclosure in the event of an attack.

Attackers will conduct an investigation before launching a substantial attack. In such cases, a vulnerable network can provide preventative information such as where the attacker is accessing the network from. This is because only an attacker would have the incentive to break into the network. Vulnerable network domains, such as honeypots, make this kind of intrusion easier and clarify the attacker’s behavior. Thus, the correct answer is “to detect or enclose them early in the event of an attack.” will be

 

×:Debugging environment for when a system outage occurs in the current environment.

The answer is not to intentionally create a vulnerable environment. It is only the result of creating an environment that is vulnerable.

 

×:Aiming to prevent regressions due to old vulnerabilities.

Even if it is an old vulnerability, it should be addressed and there is no point in allowing it to remain.

 

×:A special environment for running a product with a low version that is no longer supported.

It is not an answer to intentionally create a vulnerable environment. It is merely the result of creating an environment that is vulnerable.

#8. An IT security team at a small healthcare organization wants to focus on maintaining IDS, firewalls, enterprise-wide anti-malware solutions, data leak prevention technology, and centralized log management. Which of the following types of solutions implement standardized and streamlined security features?

〇:Unified Threat Management

Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance products have been developed to provide firewall, malware, spam, IDS / IPS, content filtering, data leak prevention, VPN capabilities, and continuous monitoring and reporting in computer networks.

Since this question asks for a definition of Unified Threat Management that is unfamiliar or not even mentioned in the course material, it is inefficient to buy and study a new book just to get this score. To avoid ending up with “I don’t know = I can’t solve it,” be sure to develop the habit of choosing a “better answer.

If you think in terms of the classification Concepts/Standards > Solutions/Implementation Methods, ISCM (NIST SP800-137) and centralized access control systems are the former, while Unified Threat Management and cloud-based security solutions are the latter. Therefore, it is still better to bet on unified threat management and cloud-based security solutions.

 

×:ISCM (NIST SP800-137)

Because continuous monitoring in the security industry is most commonly Information Security Continuous Monitoring ISCM (NIST SP800-137), which enables companies to gain situational awareness, continuous awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support business risk management decisions , is incorrect.

 

×:Centralized Access Control System

Wrong because a centralized access control system does not attempt to combine all of the security products and capabilities mentioned in the issue. A centralized access control system is used so that its access control can be enforced in a standardized manner across different systems in a network environment.

 

×:Cloud-based security solutions

Cloud-based security solutions include security managed services that allow an outsourced company to manage and maintain a company’s security devices and solutions, but this is not considered a cloud-based solution. The cloud-based solution provides the infrastructure environment, platform, or application to the customer so that the customer does not have to spend time and money maintaining these items themselves.

#9. Robert is responsible for implementing a common architecture for accessing sensitive information over an Internet connection. Which of the following best describes this type of architecture?

〇:3-tier architecture

The 3-tier architecture clearly distinguishes the three layers: the client has the user interface responsible for input and displaying results, and the server has the functional process logic responsible for data processing and data storage for accessing the database. The user interface role is generally handled by the front-end web server with which the user interacts. It can handle both static and cached dynamic content. The functional process logic is where requests are reformatted and processed. It is typically a dynamic content processing and generation level application server. Data storage is where sensitive data is held. It is the back-end database and holds both the data and the database management system software used to manage and provide access to the data.

 

×:2-tier architecture

Two-tier, or client/server, is incorrect because it describes an architecture in which a server serves one or more clients that request those services.

 

×:Screened Subnets

A screen-subnet architecture is for one firewall to protect one server (basically a one-tier architecture). The external, public-side firewall monitors requests from untrusted networks like the Internet. If one layer, the only firewall, is compromised, an attacker can access sensitive data residing on the server with relative ease.

 

×:Public and Private DNS Zones

Separating DNS servers into public and private servers provides protection, but this is not the actual architecture.

#10. Which technology optimizes content delivery by determining geographic location based on the client’s IP address for routing that constitutes the proximal topology of Web content?

〇:Content Delivery Network (CDN)

Content delivery networks (CDNs) are designed to optimize the delivery of content to clients based on their global topology. In such a design, multiple web servers hosted at many points of existence on the Internet are globally synchronized and contain the same content, and the client is usually directed to the nearest source via DNS record manipulation based on geolocation algorithms for can be directed to.

 

×:Distributed Name Service (DNS)

Wrong, as there is no protocol called Distributed Name Service; DNS refers to the Domain Name Service protocol.

 

×:Distributed Web Service (DWS)

Distributed Web Services is also wrong because it is an incorrect answer. The concept of a distributed Web services discovery architecture is not a formal protocol, although it has been discussed by the IEEE and others.

 

×:Content Domain Distribution (CDD)

The term Content Domain Distribution (CDD) does not appear in CISSP’s CBK terminology.

#11. Communication speed has become a problem and we want to renew our Wi-Fi. I want to get the fastest possible connection speed. Which Wi-Fi standard should we use?

IEEE 802.11 is one of the wireless LAN standards established by IEEE.

Type Max Speed Frequency
802.11
2Mbps
2.4GHz
802.11a
54Mbps
5GHz
802.11b
11Mbps
2.4GHz
802.11g
54Mbps
2.4GHz
802.11n
600Mbps
2.4GHz or 5GHz
802.11ac
1.3Gbps
5GHz

#12. Angela wants a computer environment that can be used together in departmental groups while easily sharing network resources. Which computers should logically be used as group computers?

〇:VLAN

Virtual LANs (VLANs) allow logical isolation and grouping of computers based on resource requirements, security, or business needs, despite the standard physical location of the system. Computers in the same department configured on the same VLAN network can all receive the same broadcast messages, allowing all users to access the same types of resources regardless of their physical location.

 

×:Open Network Architecture  

Open network architecture is wrong because it describes the technology that can configure a network; the OSI model provides a framework for developing products that operate within an open network architecture.

 

×:Intranet

Incorrect because an intranet is a private network used by a company when it wants to use Internet and Web-based technologies in its internal network.

 

×:VAN  

Incorrect because a Value Added Network (VAN) is an electronic data interchange (EDI) infrastructure developed and maintained by a service bureau.

#13. Which of the following attacks aims to bring down equipment by means of packets whose offsets have been tampered with?

〇:Teardrop

Teardrop is an attack to bring a system to a halt by forging the offset of IP packets when they are returned before splitting.

 

×:Fraggle attack

Fraggle attack is an attack that uses the CHARGEN function to generate an appropriate string.

 

×:CHARGEN attack

There is no attack with such a name.

 

×:War Driving

Wardriving is the act of driving around a city looking for vulnerable wireless LAN access points.

#14. Which of the following is a vulnerability in onion routing?

Onion routing is characterized by multiple layers of encryption because encryption is applied each time it passes through a router. However, there is no security feature at the final router because all encryption is decrypted at the final point of the router and becomes plaintext.

#15. Which DNS extension provides authentication of the origin of DNS data to DNS clients (resolvers) that can reduce DNS poisoning, spoofing, and other attacks?

〇:DNSSEC

DNSSEC is a set of extensions to the DNS that provide DNS clients (resolvers) with authentication of the origin of DNS data to reduce the threat of DNS poisoning, spoofing, and similar attack types. It is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) specification for securing services.

 

×:Resource Record

DNS servers contain records that map hostnames to IP addresses, called resource records. The answer is incorrect. When a user’s computer needs to resolve a hostname to an IP address, it looks in its network configuration to find its DNS server. The computer then sends a request containing the hostname to the DNS server for resolution; the DNS server looks at its resource records, finds a record with this particular hostname, retrieves the address, and responds to the computer with the corresponding IP address.

 

×:Zone Transfer

Primary and secondary DNS servers synchronize their information via zone transfers. The answer is incorrect. After changes are made to the primary DNS server, these changes must be replicated to the secondary DNS server. It is important to configure the DNS servers so that zone transfers can take place between specific servers.

 

×:Resource Transfer

Equivalent to transferring DNS resource records, but the answer is incorrect.

#16. Which of the following is NOT a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?

There are many different types of distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks; there is no IPSec flood; UDP flood, SYN flood, and MAC flood are all distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

#17. One approach to fighting spam mail is to use the Sender Policy Framework, an email validation system. What type of system implements this functionality and receives and responds to requests?

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.

#18. We are implementing a new network infrastructure for our organization. The new infrastructure uses carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA / CD). What are you trying to implement?

Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detection (CSMA / CD) is used for systems that can transmit and receive simultaneously, such as Ethernet. If two clients listen at the same time and make sure the line is clear, both may transmit at the same time, causing a collision. Collision Detection (CD) is added to solve this scenario. The client checks to see if the line is idle and transmits if it is idle. If in use, they wait for a random time (milliseconds). During transmission, they monitor the network and if more input is received than transmitted, another client is also transmitting and sends a jam signal instructing other nodes to stop transmitting, wait a random time and then start transmitting again.

#19. You want to make it clear to developers that application processing and session processing are separate. Which network model should they follow?

〇:OSI reference model

The OSI reference model is a seven-layer classification of network communication. The concepts of application communication and session are separated, which would be clearly communicated based on the OSI reference model. Therefore, the correct answer is “OSI reference model.

 

×:TCP/IP model

The TCP/IP model is a layer design that is closer to the concept of a system than the OSI reference model; in the TCP/IP model, the application layer, presentation layer, and session layer of the OSI reference model are represented by a single application layer.

 

×:Data link model

There is no such model.

 

×:Biba model

Biba model is one of the security models that indicates that data cannot be changed without permission.

#20. Which of the following is NOT an effective countermeasure against spam mail?

〇:Make the mail relay server available to everyone.

This is a question of choosing the “ineffective” one. An open mail relay server is not an effective countermeasure against spam. In fact, spammers often use spammers to distribute spam, because the attackers can hide their identities. An open mail relay server is an SMTP server configured to allow inbound SMTP connections from anyone on the Internet, and many relays are properly configured to prevent attackers from distributing spam and pornography. Thus, the correct answer is “have an email relay server available to everyone.” will be.

 

×:Build a properly configured mail relay server.

A properly configured mail relay server can also suppress spam mail.

 

×:Perform filtering at the e-mail gateway.

Filtering emails that are considered spam mail at the gateway will help to prevent spam mail.

 

×:Filtering at the client.

Filtering spam mail at the client, i.e., in a mailing application such as Outlook, is considered to be a countermeasure against spam mail.

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