Practice Test(DOMAIN4)

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Domain 4 Exam.

A minimum of 70% is required to pass.

 

Results

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#1. An attacker is attempting a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack using UDP floods. How does a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack work at this time?

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) floods are often used in distributed denial of service (DDOS) attacks because they are connectionless and yet allow for easy generation of UDP messages from various scripting and compilation languages. UDP is a datagram protocol.

#2. Angela wants a computer environment that can be used together in departmental groups while easily sharing network resources. Which computers should logically be used as group computers?

〇:VLAN

Virtual LANs (VLANs) allow logical isolation and grouping of computers based on resource requirements, security, or business needs, despite the standard physical location of the system. Computers in the same department configured on the same VLAN network can all receive the same broadcast messages, allowing all users to access the same types of resources regardless of their physical location.

 

×:Open Network Architecture  

Open network architecture is wrong because it describes the technology that can configure a network; the OSI model provides a framework for developing products that operate within an open network architecture.

 

×:Intranet

Incorrect because an intranet is a private network used by a company when it wants to use Internet and Web-based technologies in its internal network.

 

×:VAN  

Incorrect because a Value Added Network (VAN) is an electronic data interchange (EDI) infrastructure developed and maintained by a service bureau.

#3. The IT Security team has been asked to propose a mitigation strategy using the OSI reference model. Which of these would address the Layer 7 issue?

Application firewalls target Layer 7 of the OSI. The main advantage of an application firewall is its ability to understand specific applications and protocols. Packets are not decrypted until Layer 6, so Layer 7 can see the entire packet. Other firewalls can only inspect the packet, not the payload. It can detect if an unwanted application or service is trying to bypass the firewall by using a protocol on an allowed port, or if the protocol is being used in a malicious manner.

#4. Software-defined network (SDN) technology specifies which of the following?

〇:How routers are centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions 

Software-defined networks (SDN) are intended to facilitate centralized management of routing decisions and to separate the router’s logical functions of passing data between the routing decision and the interface and making its mechanical functions.SDN architecture is a scalable, a programmable, and is intended to be a standard method of providing router control logic. Therefore, the correct answer is “a way for routers to be centrally managed and control packets based on the controller’s instructions.

 

×:Mapping between MAC and IP addresses.

ARP table.

 

×:Updating the routing table in a dynamic way.

Explanation of dynamic routing.

 

×:A method in which routers communicate with each other to update the routing table when an event occurs.

This is an explanation of routing control in case of communication failure.

#5. One approach to fighting spam mail is to use the Sender Policy Framework, an email validation system. What type of system implements this functionality and receives and responds to requests?

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) is an email verification system that detects email spoofing and prevents spam and malicious email. Attackers typically spoof e-mail addresses to make recipients believe that the messages come from a known and trusted source. SPF allows network administrators to specify which hosts can send mail from a particular domain by implementing SPF records in the Domain Name System (DNS). The e-mail server is configured to check with the DNS server to ensure that e-mail sent from a particular domain was sent from an IP address authorized by the administrator of the sending domain.

#6. Robert is responsible for implementing a common architecture for accessing sensitive information over an Internet connection. Which of the following best describes this type of architecture?

〇:3-tier architecture

The 3-tier architecture clearly distinguishes the three layers: the client has the user interface responsible for input and displaying results, and the server has the functional process logic responsible for data processing and data storage for accessing the database. The user interface role is generally handled by the front-end web server with which the user interacts. It can handle both static and cached dynamic content. The functional process logic is where requests are reformatted and processed. It is typically a dynamic content processing and generation level application server. Data storage is where sensitive data is held. It is the back-end database and holds both the data and the database management system software used to manage and provide access to the data.

 

×:2-tier architecture

Two-tier, or client/server, is incorrect because it describes an architecture in which a server serves one or more clients that request those services.

 

×:Screened Subnets

A screen-subnet architecture is for one firewall to protect one server (basically a one-tier architecture). The external, public-side firewall monitors requests from untrusted networks like the Internet. If one layer, the only firewall, is compromised, an attacker can access sensitive data residing on the server with relative ease.

 

×:Public and Private DNS Zones

Separating DNS servers into public and private servers provides protection, but this is not the actual architecture.

#7. What is the intention of preparing artificially vulnerable network domains?

〇:For early detection or enclosure in the event of an attack.

Attackers will conduct an investigation before launching a substantial attack. In such cases, a vulnerable network can provide preventative information such as where the attacker is accessing the network from. This is because only an attacker would have the incentive to break into the network. Vulnerable network domains, such as honeypots, make this kind of intrusion easier and clarify the attacker’s behavior. Thus, the correct answer is “to detect or enclose them early in the event of an attack.” will be

 

×:Debugging environment for when a system outage occurs in the current environment.

The answer is not to intentionally create a vulnerable environment. It is only the result of creating an environment that is vulnerable.

 

×:Aiming to prevent regressions due to old vulnerabilities.

Even if it is an old vulnerability, it should be addressed and there is no point in allowing it to remain.

 

×:A special environment for running a product with a low version that is no longer supported.

It is not an answer to intentionally create a vulnerable environment. It is merely the result of creating an environment that is vulnerable.

#8. Which network line should be used to ensure that traffic always uses the same path?

Circuit switching is a dedicated communication channel through a network. The circuit guarantees full bandwidth. The circuit functions as if the nodes were physically connected by cables.

#9. Which word indicates the destination address and the computer service or protocol communication method at the destination?

〇:Socket

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) are transport protocols used by applications to retrieve data over a network. Both use ports to communicate with the upper OSI layer and keep track of the various conversations that occur simultaneously. Ports are also the mechanism used to identify how other computers access services. When a TCP or UDP message is formed, the source and destination ports are included in the header information along with the source and destination IP addresses. This IP address and port number is called a socket; the IP address serves as the gateway to the computer and the port serves as the gateway to the actual protocol or service.

 

×:IP address

This is incorrect because the IP address does not tell the packet how to communicate with the service or protocol. The purpose of an IP address is to identify and address the location of a host or network interface. Each node in a network has a unique IP address. This information, along with the source and destination ports, make up a socket. The IP address tells the packet where to go, and the port indicates how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol.

 

×:Port

The port is incorrect because it tells the packet only how to communicate with the appropriate service or protocol. It does not tell the packet where it should go. The IP address provides this information. Ports are communication endpoints used by IP protocols such as TCP and UDP. Ports are identified by a number.

 

×:Frame

Frame is incorrect because the term is used to refer to a datagram after the header and trailer have been given to the data link layer.

#10. What is the range of well-known port?

A well-known port is a port number from 0 to 1023 that is reserved for standard services. There are three port number combinations. Well-known port numbers (0-1023) are port numbers officially registered with IANA. Registered port numbers (1024-49151) are port numbers that are officially registered with IANA. A dynamic/private port number (49152-65535) is a port number that is not officially registered with IANA.

#11. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of VoIP?

〇:Security

Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) refers to a transmission technology that delivers voice communications over an IP network; IP telephony uses technology that is similar to TCP/IP and therefore similar in its vulnerabilities. Voice systems are vulnerable to application manipulation and unauthorized administrative access. It is also vulnerable to denial of service attacks against gateway and network resources. Eavesdropping is also a concern since data traffic is transmitted in clear text unless encrypted.

The term security is a difficult answer to choose from because it has a very broad meaning. However, information security scriptures such as CISSP are persistent in saying that VoIP has vulnerabilities. Although this answer is a bit over the top in practical terms, it was made to educate the public, because depending on the creator’s intentions, this issue may arise.

 

×:Cost

Wrong, because cost is an advantage of VoIP; with VoIP’s, a company becomes a dedicated alternative to a separate network dedicated to data transmission and voice transmission. For telephony features such as conference calling, call forwarding, and automatic redialing are freed up in VoIP, which is open source, while companies that use traditional communications charge for VoIP.

 

×:Convergence

Wrong because convergence is the advantage of VoIP. Convergence means the integration of traditional IP networks with traditional analog telephone networks.

 

×:Flexibility

Wrong, because flexibility is an advantage of VoIP. The technology is very simple, easy and supports multiple calls over a single Internet broadband connection.

#12. We are implementing a new network infrastructure for our organization. The new infrastructure uses carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA / CD). What are you trying to implement?

Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detection (CSMA / CD) is used for systems that can transmit and receive simultaneously, such as Ethernet. If two clients listen at the same time and make sure the line is clear, both may transmit at the same time, causing a collision. Collision Detection (CD) is added to solve this scenario. The client checks to see if the line is idle and transmits if it is idle. If in use, they wait for a random time (milliseconds). During transmission, they monitor the network and if more input is received than transmitted, another client is also transmitting and sends a jam signal instructing other nodes to stop transmitting, wait a random time and then start transmitting again.

#13. Which technology optimizes content delivery by determining geographic location based on the client’s IP address for routing that constitutes the proximal topology of Web content?

〇:Content Delivery Network (CDN)

Content delivery networks (CDNs) are designed to optimize the delivery of content to clients based on their global topology. In such a design, multiple web servers hosted at many points of existence on the Internet are globally synchronized and contain the same content, and the client is usually directed to the nearest source via DNS record manipulation based on geolocation algorithms for can be directed to.

 

×:Distributed Name Service (DNS)

Wrong, as there is no protocol called Distributed Name Service; DNS refers to the Domain Name Service protocol.

 

×:Distributed Web Service (DWS)

Distributed Web Services is also wrong because it is an incorrect answer. The concept of a distributed Web services discovery architecture is not a formal protocol, although it has been discussed by the IEEE and others.

 

×:Content Domain Distribution (CDD)

The term Content Domain Distribution (CDD) does not appear in CISSP’s CBK terminology.

#14. Which of the following is NOT a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack?

There are many different types of distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks; there is no IPSec flood; UDP flood, SYN flood, and MAC flood are all distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

#15. Brad wants to ban the use of instant messaging (IM) on corporate networks. Which of the following should NOT be included in his presentation?

〇:The use of IM can be stopped by simply blocking certain ports on the network firewall.

Instant messaging (IM) allows people to communicate with each other via real-time and personal chat room types. These technologies will have the ability to transfer files. Users install an IM client and are assigned a unique identifier; they provide this unique identifier to anyone they wish to communicate with via IM. ineffective.

Another way to answer the question is to say that the question itself confirms our understanding of security, and then we can lay down the assumption that “should not be included in the presentation” means that we should not say anything that will later be held liable. There will be far more events that indicate that there is a possibility than events that say there is no possibility at all.

 

×:Sensitive data and files can be transferred from system to system via IM.

This is incorrect because in addition to text messages, instant messaging allows files to be transferred from system to system. These files could contain sensitive information, putting the company at business or legal risk. And sharing files via IM will use that much network bandwidth and impact network performance.

 

×:Users can be subjected to attacks posing as legitimate senders from malware containing information.

Incorrect because it is true. Due to lack of strong authentication, accounts can be falsified because there is to accept information from malicious users of the legitimate sender, not the receiver. There will also be numerous buffer overflows and malformed packet attacks that have been successful with different IM clients.

 

×:A security policy is needed specifying IM usage limits.

This is incorrect because his presentation should include the need for a security policy specifying IM usage restrictions. This is only one of several best practices to protect the environment from IM-related security breaches. Other best practices include upgrading IM software to a more secure version that configures the firewall to block IM traffic, implementing a corporate IM server so that only internal employees communicate within the organization’s network, and implementing an integrated Includes implementing an antivirus/firewall product.

#16. We would like to use Ethernet for a bus type network configuration. The service requirements are a communication speed of 5 M and a distance of 200 m. Which standard should we use?

Ethernet is a way of communication used for local area networks; LANs and such communicate over Ethernet. In other words, most communication is now done over Ethernet.

Name Type Speed Max Distance
10Base2 ‘Thinnet’
Bus
10Mbit
185meters
10Base5 ‘Thicknet’
Bus
10Mbit
500meters
10BaseT
Star
10Mbit
100meters
100Mbit
Star
100BaseT
100meters
1000BaseT
Star
1000Mbit
100meters

#17. Which of the following is an attack that accesses an internal IP address as the source from the outside and aims for internal access by means of a response request?

〇:LAND attack

A LAND attack is an attack that penetrates firewalls that block bad requests; it is similar to the Fraggle attack, but it sends a request to the firewall with the sender as the target of the attack. This is a blind spot because the firewall, which is supposed to protect the inside of the system, is used for the attack.

 

×:Teardrop

Teardrop is an attack that halts the system by forging the offset of IP packets before they are split.

 

×:Christmas Tree Attack

A Christmas tree attack is an attack in which a packet is sent with a number of flags (URG, ACK, PSH, RST, SYN, FIN) and the response is observed.

 

×:CHARGEN attack

CHARGEN (port 19) is a protocol that returns an appropriate string.

#18. An IT security team at a small healthcare organization wants to focus on maintaining IDS, firewalls, enterprise-wide anti-malware solutions, data leak prevention technology, and centralized log management. Which of the following types of solutions implement standardized and streamlined security features?

〇:Unified Threat Management

Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance products have been developed to provide firewall, malware, spam, IDS / IPS, content filtering, data leak prevention, VPN capabilities, and continuous monitoring and reporting in computer networks.

Since this question asks for a definition of Unified Threat Management that is unfamiliar or not even mentioned in the course material, it is inefficient to buy and study a new book just to get this score. To avoid ending up with “I don’t know = I can’t solve it,” be sure to develop the habit of choosing a “better answer.

If you think in terms of the classification Concepts/Standards > Solutions/Implementation Methods, ISCM (NIST SP800-137) and centralized access control systems are the former, while Unified Threat Management and cloud-based security solutions are the latter. Therefore, it is still better to bet on unified threat management and cloud-based security solutions.

 

×:ISCM (NIST SP800-137)

Because continuous monitoring in the security industry is most commonly Information Security Continuous Monitoring ISCM (NIST SP800-137), which enables companies to gain situational awareness, continuous awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support business risk management decisions , is incorrect.

 

×:Centralized Access Control System

Wrong because a centralized access control system does not attempt to combine all of the security products and capabilities mentioned in the issue. A centralized access control system is used so that its access control can be enforced in a standardized manner across different systems in a network environment.

 

×:Cloud-based security solutions

Cloud-based security solutions include security managed services that allow an outsourced company to manage and maintain a company’s security devices and solutions, but this is not considered a cloud-based solution. The cloud-based solution provides the infrastructure environment, platform, or application to the customer so that the customer does not have to spend time and money maintaining these items themselves.

#19. Encryption can occur at different layers of the operating system and network stack. Where does PPTP encryption occur?

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a way to implement a virtual private network (VPN). It is Microsoft’s proprietary VPN protocol that operates at the data link layer of the OSI model; PPTP can only provide a single connection and can operate over a PPP connection.

#20. Which of the following is a straightforward inference as to why email spoofing was so easily carried out?

〇:SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms.

Email spoofing is easy to perform if the SMTP lacks proper authentication mechanisms. An attacker can spoof the sender address of an e-mail by sending a Telnet command to port 25 of the mail server. The spammer uses e-mail spoofing to prevent himself from being identified.

 

×:The administrator forgot to configure a setting that prevents inbound SMTP connections for non-functioning domains.

If it is spoofed, the email sender is also spoofed. This can happen even if you prevent inbound SMTP connections for a domain.

 

×:Technically abolished by keyword filtering.

Filtering is not very effective against spoofing. Therefore, even if it is technically obsolete, it is unlikely to be the cause.

 

×:The blacklist function is not technically reliable.

If an email is spoofed, the sender of the email is also spoofed. This can happen even if the filtering function is not reliable.

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